Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IERW - Schmitt > EXAM 2 > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which flight control allows the pilot to counteract main rotor torque and control the helicopter around the yaw axis?
A

Pedals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What component transmits the pilot’s flight control movements to the hydraulic actuators?
A

flex-ball cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. When pushing right pedal, the thrust/ pitch of the tail rotor thrust is _______ causing the nose of the a/c to turn right.
A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. When pushing left pedal, the thrust/ pitch of the tail rotor thrust is ________ causing the nose of the a/c to turn left.
A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. When pushing right pedal, which direction will the helicopter turn around the yaw axis?
A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the cyclic:

SAS ON (Stability Augmentation System On) is a 4-waytoggle used to (re)engage the pitch/roll/yaw backup SAS

A

left of reset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Select the correct button on cyclic:

SAS/AP CUT (Stability Augmentation System / Autopilot Cut) disengages the SAS (3-axis backup SAS) and AFCS simultaneously

A

On the left and you know it!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the cyclic:

AP MD DCPL (Autopilot Mode Decouple) cancels all upper modes and reverts to ATT mode when pressed for less than 1 second

A

:)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What sub component of the number 2 hydraulic system boosts the control signals from the pedals to reduce pilot workload.
A

actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which component drives the hydraulic pumps?
A

Main Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What are the CAUTIONS associated with operating the hydraulic test switch?

HYD Test switch ____ _____ ____ operated during flight. Observe _ _ limits during hydraulic test.

A

must not be, mast moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The cyclic controls _______ attitude with fore and aft movement of the cyclic and the left and right tilt of the main rotor with lateral (left and right) movement.
A

pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the collective:

Go-Around (GA) mode button, used in case of a missed approach.

A

left lower button on collective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the collective:

4-Way directional control switch that extends and retracts the searchlight.

A

middle lower 4-way button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What component acts as the yaw Stability Augmentation System (SAS) for the UH-72A, increasing aircraft stability by damping disturbances due to wind, turbulence.
A

Smart Electro-Mechanical Actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which flight control changes the blade pitch equally on all four main rotor blades?
A

Collective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The component depicted in the graphic below increases hydraulic fluid pressure to provide the forces to move the actuators.

What is the component.

A

Hydraulic Pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the collective:

Landing on search light switch (on/off)

A

Upper Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. When pushing left pedal, which direction will the helicopter turn around the yaw axis?
A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which component transmits flight control signals from the swash plate to the main rotor blades?
A

Pitch Change Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the collective:

Wiper switch, allowing for a single swipe of the wiper blade.

A

Wiper button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Are cyclic and collective control inputs independent of each other?
A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. During extended ground operations, and while conducting the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) Test during run-up, the collective must be secured with the _________________.
A

Collective lever lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which flight control allows the pilot to change the pitch and roll (bank angle) of the aircraft?
A

Cyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. The three types of flight controls used to fly the helicopter are the [1] , [2], and the [3].
A
  1. cyclic
  2. collective
  3. pedals

Order not relevant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the cyclic:

RESET pushbutton enables the pilot to acknowledge each caution (CAD indication and master caution light).

A

Yep. red and long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the collective:

4-Way switch used to adjust engine trim when operating in the manual mode (MAN mode) only.

A

lower right button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which component transmits the three amplified main rotor control signals to the swashplate?
A

Mixing Lever Assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which hydraulic system boosts the tail rotor controls?
A

2 System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which axis of the helicopter does the cyclic control?

[1] and [2] or [3] and [4]

A
  1. pitch
  2. roll
  3. lateral
  4. longitudinal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which component provides a constant resistance in the pedals to prevent over-control of the tail rotor?
A

Yaw Brake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Select the correct button on the cyclic:

FTR (Force Trim Release) opens both cyclic stick parallel actuator clutches to release stick forces

A

Think harder. You got this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. The SEMAs provide the actuator input for the _____ to dampen dynamic and atmospheric disturbances? (Abbreviated Answer)
A

Stability Augmentation System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. What system provides attitude hold in the helicopter?
A

Autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Place the 5 levels of AFCS control in the proper sequence
A
  1. Unstablized (no AFCS or autopilot on)
  2. Back-up SAS (SAS actuators on only)
  3. Digital SAS (autopilot on - trim motors off)
  4. Autopilot (attitude retention)
  5. Autopilot (upper modes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Pressing the [a] / [b] [c] switch on either cyclic will switch from Level 4 Attitude Hold to Level 1 Unstabilized.
A

a. SAS
b. AP
c. Cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. In Level 1 Unstabilized, pressing the SAS ON button on the cyclic will move the system to level 2 Backup SAS.
A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. The UH-72 AFCS controls the [a], [b] and [c] making it a 3 axis system.
A

a. pitch
b. roll
c. yaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. AFCS Levels [a] and [b] allow for hands off flying?
A

a. 4
b. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Identify the operational differences between the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) and Trim System (Parallel Actuators) by matching the characteristic to its corresponding system.

a. Has the capacity for full flight control authority
b. Pilot can see and feel flight control inputs
c. Allows for hands-off flight
d. Has limited flight control authority
e. Pilot cannot see or feel flight control inputs
f. Does not allow for hands-off flight

A

a. Trim
b. Trim
c. Trim
d. SAS
e. SAS
f. SAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. What system is used for basic stabilization of helicopters?
A

Stability Augmentation System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. The basic structure of the AFCS consists of three types of components.

A -> B -> C -> A (cycle)

A

A. sensors
B. computers
C. actuators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Match the correct term with it associated button or switch
  2. SAS/AP Cut
  3. SAS On
  4. Force Trim Release (FTR)
  5. Beep Trim
  6. APP MD DCPL
  7. GA (Go around)
A
  1. -> C (Disengages both, the back-up SAS AND AFCS simultaneously)
  2. -> D ((Re)engagement of P/R/Y back-up SAS
  3. -> F (Opens both cyclic stick parallel actuator clutches to release the stick forces and if autopilot is active, sets the new reference for the autopilot’s auto trim function)
  4. -> E (Modifies the attitude reference ATT MODE. Modifies IAS, ALT, ALTA, HDG, GA or VS reference when the respective upper mode is engaged)
  5. -> A (Cancels all upper modes and reverts to ATT mode)
  6. -> B (Used in the event of a missed approach, acquires and holds a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min. After 10 seconds, the mode automatically reverts to the VS mode
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Which switch on the cyclic is a 4-way toggle switch that allows the pilot to modify the attitude reference when operating in ATT (Attitude) mode?
A

Beep Trim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Which cyclic switch is used to turn off the backup SAS?
A

SAS/AP Cut Switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. The backup SAS is turned on when the [a] switches are turned on or by pressing the [b] switch on the cyclic
A

a. avionics master
b. SAS On

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. What AFCS system makes inputs that cannot be seen in the flight controls?
A

Stability Augmentation System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. What button on the cyclic must be pressed to move the system from Level 5 Upper Modes to Level 4 Attitude Hold?
A

AP MD DCPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. In Primary Phase the UH-72 will be flown in Level 3 with FTR off. To select level 3 the AFCS must first be in Level [a] then press the [b] switches on the APMS followed by the [c] switch located on the [d].
A

a. 4
b. Trim
c. Force Trim Release
d. Instrument Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Low natural stability of a helicopter requires a _______ _______ of the pilot?
A

high workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Pressing the SAS/AP CUT switch on the cyclic will take you to what Level?
A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. A logbook entry and maintenance action are required to be performed when the mast moment indicator reaches a level greater than [a] %
A

77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. If the magnetic oil drain plug installed on the intermediate transmission detects metal particles, will a chip light will illuminate in the cockpit to notify the pilot?
A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. The lift and propulsion required for flight are generated by the [a] [b] [c].
A

a. Main
b. Rotor
c. Blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. The [a] [b] prevents a reverse power flow from the main transmission to the engines.
A

a. Freewheeling
b. Unit

56
Q
  1. Unlike many Army helicopters that have a fully articulated main rotor system, the UH-72 has what type of rotor system?
A

Rigid

57
Q
  1. The [a] [b] system permits stopping of the main rotor as quickly as possible after the engines have been shut down.
A

a. Rotor
b. Brake

58
Q
  1. When the rotor RPM is below 70%, the mast moment indication is depicted by a [a] scale ; what type of scale?
A

Linear

59
Q
  1. On preflight, the oil level of the main transmission is checked via the [a] [b].
A

a. sight
b. glass

60
Q
  1. Refer to the graphic below to identify the main components of the UH-72A Lifting System. Match the component picture to its name.

A. (4 blades are attached)
B. (generates lift)
C. (Reduces RPM)
D. (Reduces Rotor Speed)

A

A is 3. Main Rotor Head
B is 4. Main Rotor Blades
C is 1. Main Transmission
D is 2. Rotor Brake System

61
Q
  1. If the magnetic oil drain plug installed on the tail rotor transmission detects metal particles, will a chip light will illuminate in the cockpit to notify the pilot?
A

No

62
Q
  1. The primary purpose of the tail rotor is to [a] the torque effect of the [b] rotor
A

a. counteract
b. Main

63
Q
  1. What actions are required of the pilot if the pop-up indicator pin is found “popped” on preflight?

You must make a [a] and [b].

A

a. write up
b. notify maintenance

64
Q
  1. The main gear is driven by the two engines and drives the main rotor, tail rotor, and accessories. The main transmission reduces the input RPM of the two engines to the required output RPM for the [a] [b] and [c].
A

a. main rotor
b. tail rotor
c. accessories

65
Q
  1. Transmission oil pressure and temperature indications are displayed on [a] of the [b].
A

a. Lane 2
b. VEMD

66
Q
  1. What component changes the power flow coming from the main transmission to the tail rotor gearbox?
A

Intermediate Gearbox

67
Q
  1. To ensure oil circulation in the event of clogging, the oil filter assembly for the main transmission incorporates a [a] with an indicator button.
A

bypass

68
Q
  1. Which of the following design characteristics best describes how blade flap and lead-lag movement are accomplished?
A

The elasticity of the blades

69
Q
  1. Which component reduces the engine output speed and transmits power from the engines to the main and tail rotor systems?

[a] [b]

A

a. Main
b. Transmission

70
Q
  1. Do not operate the rotor brake until both engines are [a] and the rotor RPM (NR) is below [b]%
A

a. shut down
b. 50

71
Q
  1. The caution “MM EXCEED” will illuminate on the Caution and Advisory Display (CAD) if the mast moment exceeds [a].
A

77%

72
Q
  1. Which system measures and indicates any bending moments occurring on the rotor mast?

[a] [b] [c]

A

a. Mast
b. Moment
c. Indicator

73
Q
  1. When the rotor RPM is above 70%, the mast moment indication is depicted by a [a] scale ; what type of scale?
A

a. Circular

74
Q
  1. The operational advantage of having a transmission with a “[a]” type Lubrication System is that the system consists of two identical lubrication circuits; if one circuit fails the other continues to lubricate the entire transmission system.
A

Redundant

75
Q
  1. In forward flight, the Delta hinge system allows for [a].
A

Flapping

76
Q
  1. Which audio warning is the only audio warning that cannot be suppressed by the RESET switch on the cyclic?
A

a. Rotor
b. Overspeed

77
Q
  1. What component changes the direction of the power flow coming from the intermediate gearbox to the tail rotor assembly?
A

Tail Rotor Gearbox

78
Q
  1. If this caution (XMSN CHIP) is displayed on the CAD it means that the [a] oil is contaminated by [b] particles.
A

a. Main transmission
b. metal

79
Q
  1. What are the three main sub-systems of the Electrical System?

Electrical power [a] system.
Electrical power [b] system.
Electrical power [c]

A

a. Supply
b. Distribution
c. Consumers

80
Q
  1. During engine start, if the BAT DISCH caution illuminates on the CAD, what corrective action is required?
A
  1. No action is required - it’s normal during engine start.
81
Q
  1. Which component converts mechanical energy to electrical energy?
A

Generator

82
Q
  1. Momentarily placing the BAT MSTR switch to the ENGAGE position connects the battery to the [a] and [b].
A

a. Main Bus 1
b. Main Bus 2

83
Q
  1. Which component recharges the battery when the engines are running?

[a]/[b]

A

a. Starter
b. Generator

84
Q
  1. A separate power module (battery) supplies 24 VDC as emergency power for the emergency lighting system and the [a] .
A

Standby Horizon

85
Q
  1. In the event of a dual generator failure both the Non-essential and Shed Buses are disconnected from the electrical system. Which of these buses can be reconnected to electrical power from the battery using an overhead switch?
A

Shed Bus

86
Q
  1. Which components supply electrical power to the UH-72?
A
  • Starter/ Generators
  • External Power Unit
  • Battery
87
Q
  1. Which component converts stored chemical energy to electrical energy?
A

Battery

88
Q
  1. The starter-generator automatically transitions from start mode to generator mode when engine N1 speed exceeds [a]%?
A

40

89
Q
  1. On engine start, the ENG START switch disengages at 40% N1, and the generator is automatically connected to the electrical system when N1 is > ______%?
A

40

90
Q
  1. Electrical power consumers are divided into which 3 busses?
A
  • Shed Bus
  • Essential Bus
  • Non-Essential Bus
91
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the GCU (Generator Control Unit)?
A

a. Voltage
b. Regulation

92
Q
  1. An External Power Unit (EPU) is used for engine start if battery power is less than __________ VDC.
A

23.5

93
Q
  1. When operated by the battery, how many VDC (Volts DC) does the electrical power supply system supply to the airborne electrical system?
A

24

94
Q
  1. To prevent the starter from overheating when using the battery to start the engine, limit starter to [a] seconds of activation.
A

30

95
Q
  1. When operated by the generators, how many VDC (Volts DC) does the electrical power supply system supply to the airborne electrical system?
A

28.5

96
Q
  1. The minimum power required to start the UH-72A is [a] Volts?
A

23.5

97
Q
  1. How many stages of compression in the engine’s N1 Section.
A

2

98
Q
  1. The two sections of the fuel control unit are the [a] control and the hydro-[b] control.
A

a. manual
b. mechanical

99
Q
  1. What is the function of the engine control system?
A
  1. To keep the rotor speed constant under all operations
  2. To allow manual control of the fuel flow for starting and in case of fuel control failure
100
Q
  1. Refer to the Engine Module graphic and Components List to match each component labeled on the graphic
A

A. Axial Compressor
B. Gas Generator
C. Power turbine
D. Transmission Shaft & Accessory Gearbox
E. Reduction Gearbox

101
Q
  1. [a] air is used to aid in start injector ventilation, prevent compressor stalls, and provide cabin heat.
A

Bleed

102
Q
  1. When the (4 way beeper) switch is moved to the left the power of enigne #1 is [a] , while the power of engine #2 is [b] , and the [c] RPM remains constant.
A

a. increased
b. decreased
c. rotor

103
Q
  1. What conditions must exist to activate the engine fire extinguishing system?

Select all that apply.

A
  1. EMER OFF switch released
  2. N1 RPM of the respective engine less than 50%
  3. BOT1/BOT2 switch depressed
  4. FIRE warning on
104
Q
  1. The engine trim 4 way beeper switch on the pilot’s and co-pilot’s collective are only active when the [a] is in the manual mode of operation.
A

VARTOMS (means: Variable Rotor Speed Torque Matching System)

105
Q
  1. The [a] [b] turbine drives the compressor.
A

a. gas
b. generator

106
Q
  1. The engine has an independent [a] [b] lubrication system installed on each engine.
A

a. Dry
b. Sump

107
Q
  1. The VAR NR caution on the Caution and Advisory Display (CAD) and MAN pushbutton for the VARTOMS Mode Selector on the main switch panel illuminate in flight if the engines experience a torque split that exceeds [A]%.
A

15

108
Q
  1. The “ENG OIL P” caution on the CAD below indicates that the [a] has lost its [b].
A

a. #1 engine
b. oil pressure

109
Q
  1. If an engine is shutdown by the over-speed protection system the other engines over-speed protection system will be _______________.
A

disabled

110
Q
  1. The symbol on the FLI below indicate the compressor bleed valve is ____________.
A

Open

111
Q
  1. During the start sequence, you must turn on the [a] [b] switches in order to supply fuel to the engines.
A

a. Prime
b. Pump

112
Q
  1. The [a] gear train drives the starter generator and the oil pump.
A

N1

113
Q
  1. The major components of the accessory gearbox are the [a] gear train and the [b] gear train.
A

a. N1
b. N2

114
Q
  1. Match the engine module to its correct purpose / description.
A

A + 4
B + 1
C + 2
D + 5
E + 6
F + 3

115
Q
  1. The “TWIST GRIP” caution light will be illuminated on the CAD until the respective engine twist grip is placed in the “[a]” position.
A

Flight

116
Q
  1. There are __________ fire detectors mounted in each engine compartment used to indicate an external engine fire.
A

3

117
Q
  1. The thermocouples on each engine are used to measure what parameter displayed on the FLI?
A

Turbine Outlet Temperature

118
Q
  1. In the combustion section, both [a] and [b] are mixed together and ignited to create power.
A

a. Air
b. Fuel

119
Q
  1. Using the image below match the letter to its corresponding result on the engines.

(?VARTOM? Manual Button on collective)

A

Up D. Increases NR
Down A. Decreases NR
Left C.Increases power to engine 1 and decreases power to engine 2
Right B. Decreases power to engine 1 and increases power to engine 2

120
Q
  1. In the event of an over-speed, the [a] and [b] valve activates to shut down the engine.
A

a. overspeed
b. Drain

121
Q
  1. The [a] gear train drives the main transmission, which drives the main and tail rotor systems.
A

N2

122
Q
  1. Expand the following abbreviation “VARTOMS”

VA
R
TO
M
S

A

a. Variable
b. Rotor
c. Torque
d. Matching
e. System

123
Q
  1. What engine system has failed?

VAR NR Caution and MAN illuminated

A

VARTOMS

124
Q
  1. Which engine module reduces the power turbine RPM, and transfers power forward to the power output flange?
A

reduction gearbox

125
Q
  1. A fuel sample should be taken prior to the [a] [b] of the day
A

a. first
b flight

126
Q
  1. When you see this display on the CAD the system is alerting you to the fact that your [a] tanks are [b].

F PUMP FWD and AFT on, Main tank: 18, Supply tanks: 100L and 114R

A

a. main
b. empty

127
Q
  1. The purpose of the Fuel Vent System is to keep the fuel tanks [a] under all operating conditions.
A

unpressurized

128
Q
  1. Before attempting an inflight restart, wait for the N1 to equal [a]%.
A

0

129
Q
  1. What are the three additives that are blended into the military’s JP8 fuel?
A
  1. Corrosion Inhibitor/ Lubricity enhancer
  2. Fuel System Icing Inhibitor (FSII)
  3. Static dissipation additive
130
Q
  1. The Fuel Prime Pumps are used during ___________.
A

engine start

131
Q
  1. The prime pumps are located in the [a] tanks while the transfer pumps are located in the [b] tanks
A

a. suppy
b. main

132
Q
  1. There are __________ fuel tanks in the UH-72 located beneath the cabin floor. (give quantity)
A

4

133
Q
  1. The total fuel capacity of the fuel tank systems is [a] pounds. The main tanks hold [b] pounds, the right supply tank (larger) holds [c] pounds and the left supply tank holds [d] pounds. The total fuel quantity in the two supply tanks will always be [e] pounds until the fuel in the main tanks is exhausted.
A

a. 1530
b. 1308
c. 118
d. 104
e. 222

134
Q
  1. The [a] supplies fuel via the jet pump into the [b] , which supplies fuel via the transfer pumps into the [c] for delivery to the engines.
A

a. aft main tank
b. forward main tank
c. supply tanks

135
Q
  1. Name the four fuel tanks in the UH-72

[a] main tank

[b] main tank

[c] supply tank

[d] supply tank

A

a. forward
b. aft
c. left
d. right

136
Q
  1. The FWD main tank is connected to the supply tanks by two overflows which are installed at different heights to achieve different volumes of the supply tanks to avoid simultaneous [a] of both [b].
A

a. flame out
b. engines

IERW - Schmitt (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions