BWS Week 1 Academics Flashcards

1
Q

5 Key Components of every Plan

A

Task Organization and Command or support relationships
Mission Statement (Who, What, Where, When, Why)
Commanders Intent
Concept of Operations
Operations Order

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2
Q

What is the most important part of the OPORD?

A

Commanders Intent

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3
Q

What movement technique would be used if enemy contact is expected?

A

Bounding Overwatch

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4
Q

When planning a terrain flight route, what should be the first consideration?

A

Threat/ Enemy

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5
Q

What are the threee terrain fllight modes used in a high threat area and the altitudes associated with each mode of flight?

A

NOE SFC - 25 ft AHO
Contour 25 - 80 ft AHO
Low Level 80 - 200 ft AHO

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6
Q

To avoid flying over enemy ground forces you should plan routes over what type of terrain?

A

rugged, swampy and or heavily vegetated terrain

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7
Q

An _________ is the movement of friendly assault forces by RW aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain.

A

Air Assault

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8
Q

What key personnel serves as the subject matter expert to AATFC and GTC on aviation and their unit capabilities?

A

Aviation Liasion Officer (LNO)

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9
Q

What is the Decision brief from the AATF staff to the AATFC for approval?

A

Air mission Brief (AMB)

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10
Q

Air Assault are planned in _________ to ensure timing and synchronization.

A

Reverse Sequence

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11
Q

What are the 5 stages of the reverse planning sequence?

A

Ground tactical Plan
Landing plan
Movement plan
Loading plan
Staging plan

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12
Q

What HLZ final update call indicates enemy activity on or near the landing zone above the AATFC’s acceptable level?

A

Cherry

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13
Q

To maintain unit fighting integrity, infantry squeads will be assigned to a ____, platoons will remain in the same _____ and companies will remain within the same _____.

A

Chalk, serial, Lift

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14
Q

What symbol is depicted below?

A

Attack by Fire

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15
Q

A _______ is an area designated for attack helicopters to maneuver and fire into a designated engagement area.

A

BP, Battle position

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16
Q

A ______ is an easily recognizable point on the ground used to initiate, distribute, and control fires.

A

TRP, Target Reference Point

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17
Q

What offensive task is utilized when the enemy situatin is vague?

A

Movement to contact

18
Q

______ follows a sucessful exploitation and is designed to cut off and destroy the enemy attempting to retreat.

A

Pursuit

19
Q

A ______ attack trades off planning and preparation time for speed of execution.

A

Hasty attack

20
Q

Which employment method utilizes 3 attack companies at once for overwhelming the enemy with massed fires?

A

Maximum destruction

21
Q

What is the purpose of an aviation check in brief?

A

To give the ground force the capabilites of air assets on station.

22
Q

After given an Attack Aviation Call for Fire, it is clearance to fire unless _____, or _______?

A

Danger close
At my command

23
Q

The _____ is the commander, or the commanders designated representative who leads a tactical mission involving more than one aircraft and has decision making authority for elements under his command?

A

Air mission commander

24
Q

During the TLP an aviation company breaks into functional planning cells to turn commanders visualization into an _____

A

Actionable Plan

25
Q

What does the O stand in Fundamentals of Recon?

A

Orient on the Recon objective

26
Q

What criteria is a specific condition and size under which enemy unit contact may be avoided (similar to disengagement criteria, accept prior to engagement)

A

Bypass criteria

27
Q

What is displacement criteria?

A

A set of conditions that must be met before assuming a follow on mission.

28
Q

What are the differences between an area and zone reconnaissance?

A

Zone: Large “zone”, restrictive boundaries
Area: Smaller “area”, Permissive boundaries

29
Q

What are the four forms of reconnaissance?

A

Recon in force
Zone recon
Area recon
Route recon

30
Q

What forms of recon is utilized to discover or test the enemy’s strength, dispositions and reactions?

A

Recon in Force

31
Q

Which form of recon is a larger, more time consuming effort (SQN element or larger), used when existing knowledge of enemy and terrain are vague and limited.

A

Zone Recon

32
Q

What does the O stand for in fundamentals of security?

A

Orient on the protected force, area, or facility

33
Q

True or False: It is recommended to break and re-establish contact with the enemy during security operations.

A

False

34
Q

Screen primarily provides what?

A

Early warning

35
Q

What form of security provides the lease amount of security and primarily provides early warning to the protected force?

A

Screen

36
Q

When would you condcut Convoy Security rather than Route Security?

A

When you don’t have enough of a force to secure the entire route.

37
Q

What form of security is designed to protect helicopters in flight to their objective during an air assault or air movement mission?

A

Aerial security

38
Q

What criteria is given as guidance from the commander, as to when you WILL break contact from an enemy force?

A

Disengagement criteria

39
Q

___ are a dynamic process used by small unit leaders to analyse the mission, develop a plan and prepare for an operation

A

TLPs (Troop leading procedures)

40
Q

During TLPs a company breaks up into functional ___ to turn a commanders visualisation into an actionable plan

A

Planning cells

41
Q

What are the forms of security?

A
  • Screen
  • Guard
  • Cover
  • Area
  • Local
42
Q

What form of security is the most robust level of security, capable of operating independently?

A

Cover