Exam 1 - Summary Set Flashcards
PID is caused by _____
untreated STIs and other infections
PID is transmitted by ____
sexual contact
dysuria, pelvic pain, and fever are s/s of what STI?
PID
how do you diagnose PID?
pelvic exam, ultrasound, labs
what are considerations for PID and pregnancy?
can cause infertility
syphilis is caused by ____
treponema pallidum
we do not give ____ antibiotic to pregnant people
doxycycline
syphilis is diagnosed with ___
blood tests
congenital syphilis can show s/s of ___, ___, and ___
skin rashes, irritability, and bone abnormalities
long-term result of congenital syphilis is
vision and hearing problems
suppressive therapy for HSV is recommended ____ to prevent risk of transmission
34-36 weeks
GBS is diagnosed with ____
cultures
nurses should screen for GBS at ___ weeks
35-37
___ can cause fever in newborns
GBS
greenish-yellow discharge and pelvic pain are characteristic of which STI?
gonorrhea
urinary frequency, spotting, and vulvar itching are characteristic of which STI?
chlamydia
___ are the cause of the majority of spontaneous abortions.
chromosomal abnormalities
what should you never do with a pt with placenta previa?
vaginal exam
multigravida, cocaine use, and HTN are risks for what?
placental abruption
35 yo patient, previous c-section or uterine surgery, smoking or cocaine use are risks for what?
placenta previa
treatment for placenta previa includes
pelvic rest; c-section around 36 weeks
____ is used to stop pregnancy in ectopic pregnancy (drug)
methotrexate
pt with a headache and BP > 160/110 indicates ____
preeclampsia with severe features
preeclampsia can lead to ___, ___, and ___ for mom.
seizure, stroke, and pulmonary edema (others too)
gonorrhea and chlamydia can lead to _____ in neonates
neonatal conjunctivitis; swelling and pus in the eye
blood test may stay positive even after treatment of ____
syphilis
HPV is diagnosed through ___ and ___
pap smear; HPV DNA test
what is recommended at 34-36 weeks for HSV and why?
suppressive therapy to prevent risk of transmission
Hep B is diagnosed with ____
blood tests
nurses should screen for GBS at ____
35-37 weeks
GBS can cause ___ and ___ in neonates
neonatal infection; respiratory distress
HSV is diagnosed with ___ and ____
viral culture; PCR
when is Rhogam given to Rh- mothers?
28 weeks, 72 hours after birth if baby is (+), abdominal trauma
two s/s of preeclampsia with severe features
BP >160/90; headache and vision changes
kidney disease, DM, and lupus all put pts at HIGH risk for ____
preeclampsia
IVF, being 35+, and being black all put pts at MODERATE risk for ____
preeclampsia
preeclampsia occurs in ____% of preeclampsia pregnancies.
25
name two possible causes of HTN disorders in pregnancy
(1) placental insufficiency, (2) maternal immune / inflammation response
labetalol can cause ____ to the fetus
decreased FHR variability
____ is the maintenance antihypertensive
ca channel blocker - nifedipine
____ is the rescue med for HTN disorders
vasodilator - hydralazine
____ and ____ are pre-pregnancy risks of developing anti-D antibodies
blood transfusions; h/o needle sticks or shared needles
risks of developing anti-D antibodies during pregnancy are ___, ___, ___, and ____
placental abruption, abdominal trauma, abortion, and antepartum bleeding
the major complication for the baby of Rh incompatibility is ___
hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDoN)
cardiac failure and fluid buildup for the baby is ___
hydrops fetalis
HDoN can lead to kernicterus due to _____
non-physiologic jaundice
_____ is a major risk of non-physiologic jaundice
kernicterus
how long after unprotected intercourse can Plan B be taken to effectively prevent pregnancy?
72 hours
____ is an ultrasound that looks at different components of a baby, including muscle tone, fluids, and movement
BPP
external fetal monitoring is called ____
non-stress test
which fetal monitoring test do we want 8/8?
BPP
___, ___, and ____ increase resistance to insulin in later pregnancy
estrogen, progesterone, and hPL
complications of GDM for the pregnant person are ____ & ____
higher risk of preeclampsia and higher risk of c-section
when does the pregnant person need the most insulin?
3rd trimester
normal Hb is __-__
13-16
which Ig immune response can cross the placenta?
IgG
estrogen causes ____ during pregnancy (general term)
hyperemia
during pregnancy heart rate will ____
increase
blood volume increases by ___ in pregnancy
45%
elevated diaphragm decreases total lung capacity by ___
5%
what happens to respiratory rate during pregnancy?
unchanged
there is slight ___ during pregnancy, which ____ PaCO2
hyperventilation; decreases
____ raises sensitivity of respiratory center to carbon dioxide during pregnancy
progesterone
____ decreases airway resistance during pregnancy
progesterone
____ is linked to epistaxis during pregnancy
estrogen
____ makes the ureters elongated and distensible during pregnancy
progesterone
relaxation of pelvic joints and instability is caused by ____
relaxin
increased uterine size leads to ____
lordosis
____ decreases maternal metabolism of glucose
hPL
which hormone acts as a growth hormone during pregnancy?
hPL
___ maintains corpus luteum production of estrogen and progesterone until placenta takes over
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
omega 3 fatty acids support ___
fetal brain development
safer fish options include ___ and ___
salmon, shrimp
max of ____ mg/day of caffeine to prevent infertility or growth issues
200-300
lunch/deli meat, hot dogs, and soft cheeses all increase risk for ____
Listeria
you can use ____ if the pregnancy is from assisted reproductive technology
ART-derived gestational age
very preterm is a baby born ___
before 32 weeks
moderately preterm is a baby born ___
between 32-34 weeks
late preterm is a baby born ___
between 34-36 weeks
early term is a baby born ___
37-39 weeks
full term is a baby born ___
39-41 weeks
late term is a baby born ___
41-41 and 6
post-term babies are born ___
after 42 weeks gestation
monitor ___ and ___ with use of labetalol
BP and HR
monitor for ____ when using nifedipine
hypotension in mom and baby
use ____ cautiously in patients with heart disease
hydralazine
contraindications of Mg Sulfate are ___ and ___
myocardial damage, impaired renal function
name 3 maternal complications of HTN disorders
seizures, stroke, placental abruption
name 3 fetal complications of HTN disorders
premature birth, intrauterine fetal demise, intrauterine growth restriction
if blood glucose is > ____, then you fail the glucose challenge test
130-140
daily intake of carbs prior to OGTT must exceed ___
150 g
no eating for ____ hours prior to OGTT
8-14 hrs beforehand
uterine irritability is a sign of
placental abruption
manage mild placenta previa with ___
pelvic rest
manage mild placental abruption with ____
bedrest, tocolytics, and Rhogam
____ prevent uterine contractions
tocolytics
ACHES stands for…
Abdominal pain
Chest pain
Headaches
Eyesight changes
Severe leg pain
renal blood flow increases during ___ and decreases during ____
T2; T3
