Exam 1P - Care of the Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

Detergent-like lipoproteins detectable by 24-25 weeks

A

surfactant

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2
Q

what percent of fetal lung fluid is absorbed by the time of birth?

A

65%

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3
Q

what is the purpose of fetal lung fluid?

A

helps expand the alveoli and aids in lung development

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4
Q

____ reduces surface tension within the alveoli

A

surfactant

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5
Q

when do surfactant levels increase?

A

during labor and immediately after birth

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6
Q

___ can be given in preterm labor to help increase surfactant production

A

betamethasone

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7
Q

____ can also delay surfactant production

A

diabetes

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8
Q

when does lung development stop?

A

once the neonate is out of the uterus

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9
Q

T/F - surfactant can be given exogenously

A

T

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10
Q

what are the 4 main types of triggers that lead to first newborn respiration

A

(1) chemical
(2) mechanical
(3) thermal
(4) sensory

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11
Q

chemical triggers for first newborn breath include

A

(1) decreased pH
(2) increased CO2
(3) chemoreceptors
(4) stimulation of medulla / respiratory center

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12
Q

mechanical triggers for first newborn breath are

A

(1) chest is compressed during birth
(2) expulsion of fluid
(3) recoil after birth that eases the first breath

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13
Q

thermal trigger for first newborn breath are

A

skin senses change in environmental temperature - triggers respiratory center

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14
Q

sensory triggers for first newborn breath include

A

(1) touch
(2) light
(3) sounds
(4) smell
(5) discomfort

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15
Q

when do the CV shunts close for newborns?

A

shortly after birth

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16
Q

the initiation of respiration leads to ____

A

the closing of the three shunts because of pressure changes

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17
Q

what are the predisposing factors that lead to heat loss?

A

(1) thin skin with blood vessels close to the surface
(2) little SQ fat
(3) newborns have 3x more SA to body mass than adults
(4) rate of heat loss is 4x greater than that of adults

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18
Q

what is the protective factor for newborm thermoregulation?

A

flexed position (reduces the amt of skin surface exposed)

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19
Q

what are the 4 methods of heat loss?

A

(1) evaporation (wet skin)
(2) conduction
(3) radiation
(4) convection (air)

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20
Q

nursing implications for evaporation

A

(1) keep infant dry
(2) remove wet diapers
(3) minimize exposure during baths

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21
Q

nursing implications for conduction

A

(1) put the baby on prewarmed sheet
(2) cover weighing scaled / x-ray with warm blanket

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22
Q

nursing implications for radiation

A

(1) keep baby cot away from cold walls
(2) cover baby if stable

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23
Q

nursing implications for convection

A

(1) avoid air current
(2) manage babies inside incubator
(3) organize work to minimize opening portholes
(4) provide warm, humidified O2

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24
Q

neutral thermal environment for an undressed infant should be

A

89.6-92.3 F

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25
Q

neutral thermal environment for a dressed infant should be

A

75.2-80.6 F

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26
Q

what are 5 signs of a cold infant?

A

(1) restlessness
(2) crying
(3) increased flexion and activity
(4) vasoconstriction / acrocyanosis
(5) body metabolism increases

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27
Q

increase in body metabolism can lead to ____

A

hypoglycemia

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28
Q

what is an early sign of an infant being cold?

A

acrocyanosis

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29
Q

____ is caused by peripheral vasoconstriction

A

acrocyanosis

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30
Q

_____ is the primary source of heat production

A

non-shivering thermogenesis (NST)

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31
Q

the metabolism of brown fat / adipose tissue to produce heat

A

non-shivering thermogenesis

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32
Q

newborns can increase heat production by ____ using NST

A

100%

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33
Q

what is the basic rule of thumb for newborn dressing?

A

one extra layer than what the parent is wearing

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34
Q

____ is not fully activated until after birth

A

immune system

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35
Q

what is NOT a reliable indicator of infection in the newborn period?

A

fever

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36
Q

____ is a common indicator of infection

A

hypothermia

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37
Q

signs of newborn infection are ___

A

nonspecific

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38
Q

IgG crosses the placenta in the 3rd trimester and provides ___

A

passive immunity

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39
Q

___ (immunoglobulin) passes the placenta, but not ___ or ____

A

IgG; NOT IgM or IgA

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40
Q

___ protects against gram negative bacteria; Increases rapidly a few days after birth

A

IgM

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41
Q

____ protects the GI and respiratory systems; produced after birth

A

IgA

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42
Q

which type of feeding can lead to temporary GI issues?

A

formula feeding

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43
Q

gastric emptying is quicker for infants who are ____

A

breastfed (compared to formula-fed)

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44
Q

_____ can lead to regurgitation

A

relaxed cardiac sphincter

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45
Q

____ is stimulated when the stomach fills and leads to stooling

A

gastric colic reflex

46
Q

all ___ enzymes are deficient until 7 months, except protein and lactose

47
Q

____ is deficient until 4-6 months of age

A

pancreatic amylase

48
Q

____ is present in breastmilk and produced by saliva until 3 months

49
Q

____ helps in fat absorption and is present in breastmilk

50
Q

___ and ___ are the major carbohydrates in an infant’s milk diet

A

protein; lactose

51
Q

Breastfeeding is encouraged because ____ and ____ are produced and shared in breast milk

A

lipase; amylase

52
Q

the 3 important jobs of the newborn liver are

A

(1) glucose maintenance
(2) conjugation of bilirubin
(3) crucial role in iron storage, metabolism of drugs, and production of coagulation factors

53
Q

when is glucose stored as glycogen in the fetal liver?

A

3rd trimester

54
Q

in order to be excreted bilirubin must be ____ because ____

A

conjugated; it needs to be water soluble

55
Q

____ is stored in the fetal liver and spleen in the last months of pregnancy

56
Q

non-breastfed infants should be given ____-fortified milk

57
Q

physiologic jaundice is ____

A

transient hyperbilirubinemia

58
Q

T/F: Physiologic jaundice is a normal process

59
Q

bilirubin levels peak at ____ mg/dL

60
Q

when do bilirubin levels peak?

61
Q

when do bilirubin levels begin to fall after peak?

62
Q

when do we get worried about bilirubin levels?

A

(1) when they reach 10 or higher (double digits)
(2) levels continue to trend upwards

63
Q

____ is caused by an accelerated destruction of fetal RBCs and increased reabsorption of bilirubin by the liver

A

physiologic jaundice

64
Q

____ develops in 13% of breastfed infants by 1 week of age

A

early-onset breastfeeding jaundice

65
Q

early-onset breastfeeding jaundice is primarily due to _____

A

insufficient fluid intake

66
Q

what is the primary intervention for someone with early-onset breastfeeding jaundice (or risk for)?

A

help the parent to stimulate milk production and increase infant intake

67
Q

____ Usually occurs after the first 3-5 days of life and lasts 3 weeks to 3 months

A

late-onset breastfeeding jaundice

68
Q

why does late-onset breastfeeding jaundice occur?

A

substances in the maternal milk may increase absorption of bilirubin from intestine or interfere with conjugation

69
Q

explain the treatment for late-onset breastfeeding jaundice

A

(1) close monitoring of total serum bilirubin (TSB) + at least 8-12 feedings/day
(2) if TSB levels rise too high - phototherapy; continue BF
(3) if dangerously high - may order formula feed for 1-3 days

70
Q

jaundice that is not physiologic or r/t breastfeeding is ____

A

pathologic jaundice

71
Q

the key difference between pathologic jaundice and other types is ____

A

pathologic jaundice typically appears within 24 hours of birth

72
Q

____ is a result of excessive destruction of RBCs or problems with bilirubin conjugation

A

pathologic jaundice

73
Q

some causes of pathologic jaundice can include

A

(1) sepsis
(2) blood incompatibilities
(3) metabolic d/o
(4) increased hemolysis of RBCs

74
Q

____ is double-digit bilirubin levels that do not resolve

A

hyperbilirubinemia

75
Q

diagnosis of hyperbilirubinemia

A

(1) physical exam
(2) lab testing - total serum bilirubin (TSB)

76
Q

___ is used if bilirubin levels are significant

A

phototherapy

77
Q

____ is treatment performed in the NICU

A

exchanged transfusion

78
Q

why is hemorrhage a risk for newborns?

A

newborns lack intestinal bacteria to make Vitamin K ->
Vitamin K is needed to make clotting factors ->
Prothrombin levels are low during first few days of life

79
Q

what is given within 1 hr after birth to activate prothrombin?

80
Q

Vitamin K is given ___ (route)

81
Q

why is meconium formed in utero?

A

because intestines are not absorbing nutrients yet (still the placenta)

82
Q

transitional stools characteristics

A

thin, brown to green

83
Q

breastfed stools are often described as

A

yellow, gold, mushy, seedy

84
Q

formula-fed infant stools are often described as

A

pale yellow to light brown; pasty

85
Q

normal breastfed infant has ____ stool per day until 6 weeks of age

86
Q

most babies void within _____ of birth

87
Q

when would we be worried about a baby voiding?

A

if 2 days pass without a void

88
Q

the initial bladder volume is ___

A

6-44 mL of urine

89
Q

newborn assessment immediately after birht

A

(1) need for resuscitation, clear airway, dry baby
(2) newborn stability to initiate early attachment

90
Q

newborn assessment 1-4 hours after birht

A

(1) adaptation to extrauterine life
(2) determination of gestational age / size
(3) ongoing assessment for high-risk problems

91
Q

newborn assessment within 24 hours or before discharge

A

(1) complete physical exam
(2) nutritional status and ability to feed
(3) complete all screenings

92
Q

“golden hour” refers to ___

A

when the newborn is most initially alert

93
Q

nursing interventions during the golden hour include…

A

(1) initial assessment and APGARs
(2) eye-to-eye and skin-to-skin
(3) first feedings (if stable
(4) vit K injection
(5) erythromycin ointment

94
Q

newborns may ____ during the second period of reactivity

A

pass the first meconium

95
Q

eye prophylaxis given to all newborns is ____

A

erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment

96
Q

____ can blur vision temporarilty

A

erythromycin

97
Q

what is the purpose of APGAR?

A

to evaluate the need for intervention post-birth

98
Q

timing of APGARs is

A

1 minute nad 5 minutes post-birth

99
Q

what is the nursing role for APGARs?

A

complete APGAR assessment

100
Q

APGAR scores of ____ require intervention

101
Q

APGAR score of ___ is critical

102
Q

APGAR score of ____ is below normal

103
Q

in hours 1-4 after birth, what are the key items for the nurse? (9)

A

(1) VS q30m
(2) identify infant and initiate security system
(3) ht, wt, length, head circ
(4) gestational size / age
(5) skin color (acrocyanosis)
(6) suck and swallow
(7) reflexes and movement
(8) anomalies
(9) skin-to-skin as much as possible!

104
Q

SGA is ____ percentile

105
Q

LGA is ____ percentile

106
Q

AGA is ____ percentile

107
Q

why is gestational age important?

A

can be risk factors for certain conditions

108
Q

____ exam is used to look at external and neurologic characteristics

109
Q

the two parts of the Ballard exam are

A

(1) external physical characteristics
(2) neurologic characteristics

110
Q

when checking newborn head, we are looking at

111
Q

when checking newborn neck, we are looking for

A

webbing, clavicle

112
Q

when we are assessing newborn fingers and toes, we are assessing

A

(1) color
(2) clubbing
(3) webbing