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spinal anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues

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2
Q

What is osteology?

A

the study of bone

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3
Q

What are the 3 primary cell types of bone?

A

osteoblasts, osteoclasts and osteocytes

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4
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast- form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone

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5
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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6
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycoamiglycans

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7
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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8
Q

What is the primary constituents of the bone mineral?

A

calcium, phosphate, citrate and carbonate ions

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9
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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10
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium

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11
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertain to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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12
Q

What are the 3 responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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13
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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16
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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17
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochrondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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18
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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19
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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20
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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21
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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22
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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23
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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24
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bones?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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25
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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26
Q

What are the four basic feature categories of bone?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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27
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and around puberty

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28
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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29
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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30
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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31
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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32
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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33
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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34
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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35
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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36
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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37
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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38
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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39
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent bones

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40
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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41
Q

How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?

A

206 bones

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42
Q

What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?

A

the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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43
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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44
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80

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45
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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46
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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47
Q

what are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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48
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles

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49
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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50
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

51
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

52
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

53
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

54
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

55
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid processs

56
Q

how many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pairs or 24 ribs

57
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

58
Q

What are the 3 histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

59
Q

The ligamentous sacro-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertbral column) are examples of which joint classification?

A

syndesmosis

60
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

61
Q

What are examples of a permanent (amphuarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

62
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

63
Q

Which example of a (ampliarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

64
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

65
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

66
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

67
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

68
Q

What is the function of type 4 articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

69
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

70
Q

What are the modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

(1) synovial villi, (2) articular pads or Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

71
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column

A

lumbar zygapophyses

72
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints example?

A

temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular and radio-ulnar joints

73
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygaposhyses

74
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

75
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

76
Q

Which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

77
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycoaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

78
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time-independent property

79
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

80
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

81
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

82
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

83
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and taste salty

84
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

85
Q

What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

86
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

87
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

88
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (dairthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (dairthrosis trochoid)

89
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis)

90
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifcations given to the same type of joint

91
Q

What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint?

92
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

93
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatartsal-phalangeal joint of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

94
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

95
Q

What are example of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur- acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

96
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

97
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical adult?

A

26 segments

98
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

99
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

100
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three-toed sloth

101
Q

Which mammals do not have seven vertebrae?

A

the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toe sloth

102
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two-toed sloth

103
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

104
Q

What does the tern “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred t the armor bearing region of the torso

105
Q

what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

106
Q

what does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

107
Q

What does the term “Sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

108
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

109
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 centimeter or 28 inches

110
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

111
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spine?

A

about 3 inches

112
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

113
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 centimeters or 11 inches

114
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

18 centimeters or 7 inches

115
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

116
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inces

117
Q

How does the vertebral column participates in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

118
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?

A

s1-s3 at the auricular surface

119
Q

What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

120
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

121
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

122
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

123
Q

what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

spinal anatomy (36 decks)

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