EXAM #1+2 (Ch. 1 + 2)* Flashcards

1
Q

define: ethics

A

moral responsibility and the science of appropriate conduct towards others

ASRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define: image receptors

A

device that receives the energy of the x-ray beam and forms the image of the body part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are [4] types of image receptors?

A
  • cassette with film
  • PSPIP (photostimulable storage phosphor image plate)
  • solid-state digital detectors (portable)
  • fluoroscopic image receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

screen-film radiography:

what [3] things control optical density

A
  • mA
  • exposure time (seconds)
  • miliampere-seconds (mAs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

[*] define: contrast/contrast resolution

what controls it in digital radiology?

what controls it in screen-film radiography?

A

differences in adjacent densities (low/high)

digital: bit depth

screen-film: kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[*] define: spatial resolution / recorded detail

what [8] things control it?

A

ability to visualize small structures

  • IP phosphor (digital)
  • DEL size (digital)
  • geometry
  • distance
  • motion
  • focal spot size
  • intensifying screen
  • film
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define: distortion

what [5] things control it?

A

misrepresentation of the size/shape of a structure

  • alignment
  • central ray
  • anatomic part
  • image receptor
  • angulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

true or false?

magnification is size distortion

A

true, magnification is (size) distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

true or false?

all images are affected by distortion

A

true, all images are affected by distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what controls size distortion magnifcation

A

OID (object-source receptor distance)

SID (source-image receptor distance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

true or false?

radiographs are usually viewed in anatomic position

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

[*] what are [4] exceptions when radiographs are NOT viewed in the anatomic position?

how are they viewed?

A

extremities

  • hands
  • wrists
  • feet
  • toes

viewed from perspective of the tube with distal ends toward ceiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an RT responsible for during basic patient care

A

verify correct procedure is ordered

observe conditions or abnormalities to relay to radiologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a radiography responsible for during care of examination room

what [3] things are to be stocked?

A

keeping room clean (IRs + equipment) to minimize transmission or infection and provide patient confidence

stock:
• linens
• contrast
• ancillary equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most effective and efficient method to control spread of microorganisms?

A

handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when should appropriate and required protection be used?

A

when there is a possibility of coming into contact with infectious organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what should IRs be protected from?

A

body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

imaging of motion ____ image quality

A

imaging of motion ruins image quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are [3] types of motion?

A
  • voluntary
  • involuntary
  • equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[*] what are [6] things that cause involuntary motion?

what is the primary control of involuntary motion?

A
  • heartbeat
  • chills
  • peristalsis
  • tremor
  • spasm
  • pain

primary control: use short exposure times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

[*] what are [7] things that cause voluntary motion?

what are [5] things that control imaging of voluntary motion?

A
causes:
• nervousness
• discomfort
• excitability
• mental illness
• fear
• age
• breathing
controls:
• clear instructions
• patient comfort
• adjusting supporting devices
• apply immobilization
• decreasing exposure time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are [4] things that are required ID items to be printed on radiographs?

A
  • date
  • name/number
  • right or left marker
  • institution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when are side markers put on?

A

during the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are [3] general IR positions?

which is most often used?

A
  • longitudinal
  • horizontal
  • corner-to-corner

most often used: longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CR is always centered to ____.

unless…?

A

CR is always centered to IR

unless: IR displacement is being used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the CR should be angled through the part of interest to [4] things

A
  • avoid superimposition of structures
  • straighten out a curved structure
  • align the CR through an angled
  • avoid distortion of an angled structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define: source-image receptor distance

abbreviation?

affects [3] things

A

distance from the anode in x-ray tube (source) to the IR

SID

  • magnification
  • spatial resolution
  • patient dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

[*] longer SID ____ magnification and ____ spatial resolution

A. increases, increases
B. reduces, reduces
C. increases, reduces
D. reduces, increases

A

D. reduces, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

true or false?

SID is standardized for examinations and must be indicated on technique charts

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

when are the following SID used?

40 inches?

48 inches?

72 inches?

A

40 inches: traditionally used on most examinations

48 inches: recent increase in many facilities

72 inches: used on examinations with increased OID to reduce magnification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define: collimation

[2] purposes of collimation?

A

restriction of x-ray beam to only the anatomy of interest

  1. ) minimizes patient exposure
  2. ) reduces scatter radiation
32
Q

true or false?

the gonads may be irradiated for some examinations

A

true

shielding should be used when practical

33
Q

what are the [3] shielding guidelines, when should gonads be shielded?

A

gonads lie within or close to x-ray field

clinical objective is not compromised

patient has reasonable reproductive potential

34
Q

what does DR stand for?

A

digital radiography

35
Q

attention to ____ is key to quality imaging

A

attention to quality is key to digital imaging

36
Q

true or false?

optimum kVp is essential to image quality in digital imaging

A

false

slightly higher kVp yields better image than slightly lower kVp

postprocessing can be used to correct

37
Q

true or false?

IP phosphors are hypersensitive, so when split cassette technique is used, the unexposed side must be protected

A

true

38
Q

true or false?

overexposure or underexposure is determined by displayed image

A

false

exposure numbers are used when determining whether the image is properly exposed

39
Q

true or false?

IP phosphors are more sensitive to scatter radiation

A

true

some examinations may require a grid to reduce scatter

40
Q

____ should be in every room and on mobile machines

A

technique charts

41
Q

what are [2] purposes for technique charts?

A
  • specifies projections performed in room

* includes exposure factors for each projection

42
Q

[*] what [6] pathologic conditions require a DECREASE in technique?

A
  • old age
  • atrophy
  • degenerative arthritis
  • emaciation
  • emphysema
  • pneumothorax
43
Q

[*] what [6] pathologic conditions require an INCREASE in technique?

A
  • pneumonia
  • pleural effusion
  • hydrocephalus
  • enlarged heart
  • edema
  • ascites
44
Q

research shows that obesity has ____ in the last ____ years

A

research shows that obesity has doubled in the last 15 years

45
Q

define: obesity

A

increase in body weight by an excessive accumulation of fat

40+ BMI is morbidly obese

46
Q

[2] empathic communication keys

A
  • avoid mentioning weight

* explain what is required to safely move and/or transfer the patient

47
Q

true or false?

prod patients if they’re obese to find palpable landmarks

A

false

never prod obese patients unnecessarily

48
Q

define: compensating filters

A

assist in achieving even density on anatomic structures that vary in tissue thickness

49
Q

what would happen without compensating filters?

A

images of anatomy with varying tissue thickness would require two exposures to see the same thing in an x-ray image

50
Q

when is a wedge filter used?

A

where tissue density varies gradually from one end to the other

(AP of thoracic spine)

51
Q

when is a trough filter with a double-wedge used?

A

for areas of the body where the density in the center is greater than the edges

(PA of chest)

52
Q

when is a boomerang filter used?

A

conforms to shoulder to improve density

53
Q

when is a ferlic filter used?

A

AP and PA oblique projections of shoulder

54
Q

when is a ferlic collimator-mounted filter used?

A

lateral projections of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer’s) and axiolateral projections of hip

55
Q

what are [3] physical properties of filters

A
  • shape
  • composition
  • placement
56
Q

what is the most commonly used filter?

A

wedge filter

57
Q

what [2] materials are most commonly found in filters?

A

aluminum and high-density plastics

58
Q

what is the benefit of using high-density plastic filters over aluminum filters?

A

aluminum filters block light field and positioning must be complete before mounting filter to collimator

59
Q

what is the boomerang filter made out of?

A

silicone rubber

60
Q

what are the [2] placements of filters?

A
  • contact (on patient or between patient and IR)

* collimator-mounted

61
Q

ferlic swimmer’s filter improves the quality of…?

A

lateral projection of cervicothoracic spine

62
Q

use of scoliosis filters in AP and lateral projections

A

AP – wedge over cervical and thoracic regions

lateral –two double-wedge

63
Q

what kind of filters are used for digital fluoroscopy

A

convex and concave cone-shaped filters

compensate for round image intensifier

64
Q

what kind of filters are used for computed tomography?

A

bow-tie shaped filters compensate for rounded shape of head

65
Q

why are two hands needed when attaching collimator-filters?

A

one below to catch the filter if it does not attach properly so it doesn’t land on the patient

66
Q

[*] what are CR phosphors sensitive to?

A

scatter radiation

67
Q

[*] define: IR

A

image receptor - receives energy of x-ray and forms image

68
Q

[*] what needs to be on every image?

A

side markers

69
Q

[*] what group tells us about blood and body fluid recommendations

A

CDC

70
Q

[*] what needs to be cleaned after every patient

A

the tabletop

71
Q

[*] define: OID

A

object-to-image receptor distance

how far body is to IR

72
Q

[*] define: SID

A

source-to-image receptor distance

hor far x-ray tube is to IR

73
Q

magnification increases with increased ____ and decreased ____

A

magnification increases with increased OID and decreased SID

74
Q

[*] males/females – what exams give highest dose (one Q each)

A

males: pelvis (3mGy)
females: lumbar spine (4mGy)

75
Q

[*] sanitation—the laws of ____ and ____ must be followed

A

the laws of asepsis and prophylaxis must be followed