Exam 1 Flashcards
Which of the following is a false statement for a monopolar electrosurgery unit?
has a hand piece that resembles thumb tissue forceps and therefore does not require a ground plate for the patient.
Which of the following is false when administering an injectable anesthetic induction drug?
The dose in volume is appropriate as the only entry of the amount administered into the medical record.
Which of the following would be the most correct process for the Final (Sterile) Preparation of the surgical site?
Scrubbed with Chlorhexidine Gluconate Scrub, Rinsed with 70% Isopropyl Alcohol, Painted with a 0.2% Chlorhexidine Solution
What surgical preparation clipping guide would be necessary for a Spay (ovariohysterectomy – OHE)?
xiphoid to pubis, laterally to edge of ribs
Which of the following is FALSE when wearing a surgical mask in surgery?
If you need to sneeze you should step away from the sterile field and turn your head away from the sterile field.
“E” tanks containing compressed oxygen…
b. when full have a pressure reading of 2200 psi
This structure on the anesthetic machine decreases the oxygen pressure to 15 psi.
Oxygen Flow Meter
Which of the following scissors are used for delicate surgical dissection, with thin blades and about 1/4th the overall length of the instrument?
Metzenbaum Scissors
What are the hemostats that have horizontal serration that only extend ½ the length of the jaw?
Kelly Hemostats
This absorbable monofilament suture material has good relative knot security, mild tissue reactivity, maintains up to 69% tensile strength at 42 days post-surgery and is completely absorbed in 180 days.
PDS
This anesthesia machine structure delivers pure oxygen at a rate of 35 to 75 Liters per minute when used. What is this structure?
oxygen flush valve
Immediately after administering a manual ventilation (with a partial-rebreathing (semi closed) system the anesthetist…
opens the “pop-off” valve
After injectable anesthetic induction, continued gas anesthetic induction is usually necessary to have the patient achieve maintenance anesthesia. Which of the following anesthetic gas induction protocols is best for a 30 kg patient on a partial rebreathing system (semi-closed)?
Isoflurane at 3% and Oxygen Flow rate at 3 Liters per minute
The absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection is known as…
Asepsis
Which of the following is usually NOT the responsibility of the circulating nurse?
They perform retraction during surgery
When scrubbing in for a surgical procedure, which are considered the “dirtiest” areas?
Under the fingernails and the webbing between the fingers.
When Quarter Draping, what is the sequence of placing drapes?
close, caudal, cranial, far
Which of the following suture material has more ability to harbor bacterial contaminants?
Regular Vicryl
Inhalation anesthetic agents commonly in use today will require what type of vaporizer?
precision vaporizer out of the circuit
Dehydration can be assessed by PCV, TP/PP, Skin Turgor, position of the globe in the orbit, mucous membrane moistness. At what point can dehydration be assessed on physical
assessment?
5%
Which of the following statements is / are true for an IV catheter for a small animal anesthesia patient?
Choose one that is the largest in diameter that will fit into the lumen of the vein.
What would be the minimum acceptable heart rate for a 4 year old, 66 pound (30 kg) mixed breed dog in Stage III, Plane 2 (Moderate / Surgical) anesthesia?
70 beats per minute
Which of the following is / are a normal for an anesthetized cat?
Arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of 97%
When during general anesthesia does endotracheal intubation usually occur?
Stage III plane 1 / Light
The P wave of an ECG tracing is indicative of…
atrial depolarization
What is the term for ineffective circulation or lack of movement of the heart while still having electrical activity seen on the ECG?
Pulseless Electrical activity
These Analgesics are effective in reducing inflammation and work well given as pre-anesthetic agents. They inhibit the activity of COX-1 and/or COX-2 enzymes, may decrease platelet function and can harm the production of cartilage. What is this group of drugs?
NSAID’s
These Analgesics inhibit the release of norepinephrine and therefore inhibit nerve impulse transmission. They also cause sedation and muscle relaxation. Some of the side effects include hypertension and bradycardia. What is this group of drugs?
Alpha-2 agonists
Which of the following is/are TRUE to confirm proper endotracheal tube placement in an anesthetic patient?
Feeling air movement from the distal end of the endotracheal tube.
Fogging of the tube (assuming it is a clear tube) from moist exhaled air.
Palpating only one firm central structure in the neck (trachea).
Povidone Iodine has which of the following characteristics?
It can be used as a solution for ophthalmic surgery
It is deactivated by organic debris.
Chlorhexidine Gluconate has which of the following characteristics?
It is toxic to the eye and can damage the cornea
Which of the following clinical signs, when monitoring an adult medium sized canine anesthetic patient, informs the anesthetist that the patient is at an appropriate surgical level of anesthesia?
ventrodorsal rotation of the globe (eye), absent palpebral reflex, 10 breaths/minute, 120 heart beats/minute, very slight jaw tone.
Which of the following species is (respiratory) sinus arrythmia NOT considered a normal finding?
Cats
What is Second degree AV heart block?
When occasionally there is a P wave without a corresponding QRS – T segment
What should the Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) be in the anesthetized dog or cat?
70-90 mmHg
Normal ETCO2 is…
35mmHg - 45mmHg
Local Anesthetics can block…
Transduction and Transmission
When administering an anticholinergic / parasympatholytic, what type(s) of additional care should be provided to an anesthetic patient?
Eye lubrication needs to be administered
Paradoxical effects like disorientation in dogs and aggression in cats can occur with this group of controlled drugs and is recommended to be used in combination therapy with other preanesthetic agents.
Benzodiazepines
These noncontrolled drugs when administered can cause vomiting and have an early dose dependent vasoconstriction resulting in hypertension and reflex bradycardia.
Alpha-2 Agonists
This group of noncontrolled drugs have antiarrhythmic and antihistamine effects but can cause vasodilation induced hypotension.
Phenothiazines
This injectable sedative-hypnotic imidazole has minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects, and is thought to augment the action of GABA. It is also costly, painful upon injection, and causes nausea and vomiting.
Etomidate
This injectable dissociative anesthetic is commonly mixed with diazepam or midazolam and Administered IV. When this mixture is administered IV, intubation can occur.
Ketamine
The lower the partition coefficient for an inhalation anesthetic means that patients …
have a faster induction to maintenance anesthesia and a faster recovery
An inhalation anesthetic agent with a higher M.A.C. value will have…
a higher precision vaporizer setting for induction and maintenance
Which of the following is / are reasons some veterinarians do not use atropine in cats?
Cats can produce thick mucous causing E.T. tube obstruction as a result of atropine administration.
Which of the following is an example of neuroleptanalgesia
hydromorphone and midazolam
Barbiturates are not commonly used in veterinary anesthesia. Which of the following barbiturates is primarily used as a Euthanasia Agent?
Pentobarbital
Which anesthetic agent is a neuroactive steroid that enhances GABAA receptors by allowing an influx of chloride ions into cells?
Alfaxalone
Propofol, when compared to Alfaxalone ….
Propofol has more cardiovascular suppression
Propofol has a higher risk of apnea
