EPI 1.0 Flashcards

1
Q

define an emerging infectious disease

A

One that has appeared in a population for the first time, or that may have existed previously but is rapidly increasing in incidence or geographical range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the 5 main reasons diseases are emerging and spreading

A

1) Ecological changes or disruption (climate change)
2) Introduction of animals/people to new areas
3) Increasing global movement (people and animals)
4) Cultural changes and changes to agriculture practices
5) Enhanced diseases surveillance and detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What about ecological changes or disruption leads to emergence of disease and what are the 3 important factors

A

Changes in precipatation, extreme weather events (droughts and floods) and seasonal shifts can directly impact disease agents, vectors and hosts and their interactions

1) Disease agents -> altered pathogen survival, replication or distribution
2) Vectors -> changes to habitat, vector distribution, altered contact with hosts
3) Hosts: stress, debilitation, malnutrition, or post-disaster injury as populations response to extreme weather events Disease agents with external (eg, nonhost) portions to their life cycles are more likely to be influenced by ecological change (i.e. parasites and food-, water-, and vector-borne diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give an example of how an emerging disease occurred due to ecological change or disruption

A

Emergence of bluetongue virus in Europe - Transmission of BTV is affected by temperature due to intermediate host (Culicoides)

1) Extrinsic incubation is faster
2) Vector number increase
3) Vector distribution expands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Introduction of animals/people to new areas what is it driven by and how does it lead to emerging diseases

A
  • Driven by many factors
    ○ Climate change and environmental factors
    ○ Agriculture/urbanisatin on nautral ecosystems
    ○ Displacement of people due to political, social or economic
  • Bring domestic animals and people into contact with wildlife and their infectious agents
  • Infections can then be transmitted from wildlife hosts to domestic animals -> spillover events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 2 examples of how introduction of animals/people to new areas lead to the emergence of diseas

A

1) Hendra virus: fruit bats -> horses -> humans (Australia)

2) Nipah virus: fruit bats -> (pigs) -> humans (Malaysia and Bangladesh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What makes bats a good vector for disease transmission

A

1) Bats have some unique immunological features
- can have more persistent viral infections
- can be more susceptible to reinfection
2) Bats have behavior characteristics that favor virus transmission
- live in large populations
- migrate large distances
- live in close proximity to human populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

increasing global movement what are the 2 main ways it leads to emergence of diseases

A

1) Movement of people and animals is not new just the scale and speed of movement has increased dramatically in recent history
○ Sea and land travel
○ Air travel -> easier to control due to restriction on products that can take with you
2) The incubation period of many infectious diseases in now longer then the time it takes to circumnavigate the globe
○ Can no longer control More than 1 billion international travels per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give an example of a disease that emerged from increasing global movement

A

Emergence and spread of H1N1 in 2009 - H1N1 pandemic in 2009 - 2010

  • Emerged in Veracruz , Mexico
  • Rapid global spread, despite control efforts (closure of public facilities, travel restrictions, travel warnings)
  • Very highly studies pandemic
  • Mortalities estimate to be 300,000 to 500,000 (normal seasonal influenza)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cultural changes and changes to agriculture practices how does this mainly lead to emergence of disease

A

A rapidly expanding global population, and increased demand for animal protein in developing countries with rising incomes, is driving increased production of meat and other animal food products
- Increase demand for animal protein contributes to
○ Intensification of animal production systems
§ Spread of infectious disease
§ Waste management problems
○ Use of in-feed problems
§ Emergence and spread of antibiotic resistance
□ Via the food chain
□ Via a contaminated environment
□ Resistance genes can spread to other bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Enhanced disease surveillance and detection how does this result in emergence of new disease and the 2 ways these are identified

A

Enhanced surveillance systems and improved methods of detecting pathogens contribute to the identification of new disease agents
1) PCR requires some knowledge of the infectious agents
§ Some sequence information is required for primer design
2) Newer ‘high throughout’ DNA sequencing technologies can detect and identify infectious agents without targeted PCR amplification
§ Very well suited to the detection of novel pathogens
§ Can reveal whole genome sequence information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 7 main roles of clinical veterinarians in emerging diseases

A
  1. Protect themselves - PPE, hygiene, infection control
  2. Protect their staff - supervise and advise on PPE, hygiene, infection control
  3. Protect clients - advise on PPE, hygiene, infection control
  4. Disease detection - recognise and report diseases
  5. Assist with disease surveillance in animals
  6. Assist in outbreak investigation and control
  7. Work with human health professional and other scientists in controlling any animal reservoirs of human infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List 5 roles of government, university veterinarians

A
  1. Laboratory diagnosis and detection of disease agents
  2. Co-ordinate animal surveillance and idsease ocntrol measures
  3. Liaise with media, politicians, industry, other stakeholders
  4. Research (vaccine development, pathogenesis, epidemiology)
  5. Policy development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List some difference between the veterinary and medical professions

A

1) Herd animals are usually managed as a group with few rights for the individual animal; not the case in human medicine
2) For vets quality of life of their patient is more important than life itself; for doctors life is paramount
3) Economic issues are a very important factor in veterinary decisions (life and death at times); costs only modify management for doctors
4) Consent of owner not always critical for vets as consent can often be overruled by legislation; consent of patient or guardian is very important for doctors (very difficult to overrule)
5) Animals can be killed because they are ill, suspected of being ill, or close to another ill animal; not so for humans
6) Vets have more power to enforce their decisions; doctors have to convince patients and populations to do what is best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List 7 main impacts of emerging infectious disease and examples within

A

1 ) Animal health and welfare - Animal illness/deaths from disease - Culling

2) Human Health - Human illness/death from disease - Psychological distress
3) Economic impacts - Direct (loss of animals, loss of production) - Indirect (associated industries, tourism)
4) Social impacts - Loss of livelihoods, movement restrictions
5) Trade restriction - Animals and animal products
6) Environmental - Carcass disposal, use of chemicals, PPE (single use - more plastic, disinfecting with chemicals)
7) Political

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 main areas of economic impacts from FMD 2001 outbreak and how affected

A

AGRICULTURE & FOOD INDUSTRY
- Ban on British exports of livestock, meat and animal products
- Culling for disease control measures or welfare reasons
- Production losses, disease eradication costs, trade disruption
- Agricultural producers (animals), Agricultural producers (feed), Food industry (auction markets, abattoirs, processors, transporters)
TOURISM - Tourists changed their plans, delayed trips, cancelled trips, switched destinations within UK
- Accommodation, catering, attraction and transport TOTAL - 8.6 billion pound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2001 FMD outbreak what was the main environmental and human health impacts

A

Environmental -> disposal of dead carcasses
Human health ->
- Not a zoonotic disease
- Significant psychosocial effects
○ Vets getting death threats ○ seeing the animals burning on pyres -
Not just farming communities
○ Distress
○ Feeling of bereavement ○ Fear of new disaster
○ Loss of trust in authority and systems of control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the main animal health and welfare impacts for FMD outbreak in 2001

A

1) Animal welfare impacts related primarily to control measures
- Mass culling of healthy/uninfected animals for disease control
- Mass culling of healthy/uninfected animals due to welfare concerns arising from movement restrictions
2) Animals couldn’t be transported to abattoirs, mass culling in the field
- Reduced options for killing methods
- Lack of suitable equipment
- Lack of suitably trained people
- Lack of suitable facilities (including restraint)
- Fatigue (staff and equipment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the political impacts of the FMD 2001 oubreak

A

Loss of public confidence in government Conduct and policies of MAFF heavily criticized

  • Underprepared - Unwillingness to use vaccination
  • Poor coordination and mismanagement (early days of outbreak)
  • Use of the army - Confrontation attitude towards farmers and farming communities
  • Failure to recognize the impact of movement restrictions
  • Failure to pay adequate and timely compensation
  • No public inquiry (3 policy inquiries) ○ Vaccination to be considered in any future outbreaks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the main differences with animals used as food in hunter/gather societies to agriculture societies

A
Hunter/gather 
○ Different hunting/endurance hunting - cruel way 
§ Persistence/endurance hunting 
§ Spears 
§ Bow and arrows § Throwing sticks, boomerang 
Agriculture societies 
○ Domesticated animals 
○ Slaughter +/- stunning 
○ Consideration for animal welfare 
○ Modern abattoirs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the main features of a modern abattoir

A
  • Stunning prior to slaughter
  • Abattoir design to minimise animals stress, maximise animal welfare
  • Protocols/procedures in place to maximise animal welfare at all stages
    ○ Transport
    ○ Lairage - holding yards before go into the abattoir
    ○ Stunning
    ○ Slaughter
  • Design and protocols/procedures to maintain food safety/worker safety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 2 steps involved in the humane slaughter of livestock in an abattoir and what is involved with each

A

1) Stunning - is performed to render the animal unconscious and insensible to pain priot to slaughter
- Slaughter can then be carries out painlessly (and safety for abattoir workers) - MUST BE DONE IN AUSTRALIA prior to slaughter
2) Slaughter occurs after stunning
- Blood vessels carrying oxygenated blood to the brain are severed (“sticking”)
- The result is death from lack of oxygen to the brain (cerebral anoxia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 different stunning methods, define them, what is important and which is mainly used in AUS

A

1) Reversible stunning methods - animals is able to recover sensibility
- The brain function of the animal must be stopped by another means (by severing blood vessels carrying blood to the brain
- The period of insensibility needs to continue until death supervenes
- Halal requires reversible stunning - MAIN USED IN AUSTRALIA DUE TO EXPORT
2) Irreversible stunning methods -
animal will die if not slaughtered ‘sticking’ is still performed so that the animals ‘bled out’ before further processing and to guard against any unexpected return to sensibility following stunning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 reversible stunning methods and the 2 irreversible stunning methods

A
Reversible 
1) head only electrical stunning 
2) non penetrative captive bolt 
3) CO2 stunning 
Irreversible 
1) head to back electrical stunning 
2) penetrative captive bolt stunning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Head only electrical stunning how achieved, how long insensible, what animals used in, what needs to occur

A
  • Electrodes placed either side of the head result in passage of an electrical wave from one side of the brain to the other, introducing an epileptiform seizures.
    ○ The period of insensibility is approx. 45 seconds -
    Generally used in small livestock (sheep, goats, pigs, calves) and poultry, rarely used in adult cattle
  • “sticking” must occur quickly after stunning to avoid return to sensibility (“stun to stick” interval)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Non penetrative captive bolt how works, what assocaited with, which animals commonly used for, what must occur afterwards

A
  • A mushroom head captive rapidly accelerates and decelerates the brain in the cranial cavity with the effect of causing massive stimulation and firing of neurons and thus insensibility
  • Often associated with this is general sub-dural haemorrhage
  • Commonly used in adult cattle, can also be used for sheep, goat and pigs
  • “sticking” must occur quickly after stunning to avoid return to sensibility (“stun to stick” interval)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List 7 signs of an effective stun using a captive bolt

A

1) The animal drops immediately and stays down
2) Uncoordinated hindleg movements - kicking
3) No corneal (blink) reflexes
4) Cessation of rhythmic breathing
5) No vocalisation
6) No rotation of the eye ball
7) No coordinated attempts to rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CO2 stunning what animal mainly used in, how occurs, signs, what needs to occur afterwards

A
  • Currently used for pigs
  • Groups of pigs enter a chamber that is then filled with 80% to 90% CO2 in air (minimum 60% CO2)
    ○ Pigs lose consciousness within 30 seconds
  • Can be some struggling or excitement before loss of consciousness
  • Immediate slaughter then needed to ensure the animal does not recover
  • A variation of CO2, stunning is the controlled atmosphere chamber used for poultry (mixture of CO2, nitrogen, argon)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Head to back electrical stunning what result in and what animals used for

A
  • This stun will result firstly in an epileptiform seizure and secondly fibrillation of the heart
  • This causes loss of heart functionality, general blood stasis and reduced oxygen supply to the brain
  • Generally used in small livestock (sheep and pigs), can be used in cattle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Penetrative captive bolt stunning where aim, what result in, animals used for a signs of effective use

A
  • General rule: the bolt should be aimed towards the brain stem
  • The captive bolt also results in percussive wave within the brain tissue increasing the disruption to normal nervous impulses
  • Used in cattle, goats and sheep
  • The signs of an effective stun are the same as those described for stunning with a non-penetrative captive bolt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Slaughter method, when does slaughter need to occur and why

A
  • Animals should be slaughtered as quickly as possible after stunning, especially if a reversible stun has been applied
  • This will ensure that animals do not regain consciousness before they are rendered permanently insensible due to cerebral anoxia following ‘sticking’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is important to cut for slaughter

A
  • Important to cut carotid and vertebral artery as supply to brain not the jugular vein as that is draining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 2 main ways to “stick” an animal and which species

A

1) Chest stick - all
- Most effective method of bleeding -> thoracic stick at the level of the heart
○ Rapid initial blood loss and the shortest time to loss of brain function
2) Sheep and goats sticking can be performed by cutting the blood vessels at the throat
○ Don’t have well developed vertebral artery so don’t need to worry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In sheep what are the periods of insenibility for head-only electrical stun and chest stick and therefore max stun-to-stick interval

A
  1. Head-only electrical stun -> 45 seconds of insensibility
    - MAXIMUM TIME BETWEEN -> 35 seconds
  2. Sever carotid arteries - insensibility after 10 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In cattle what are the periods of insenibility for head-only electrical stun and chest stick and conclusion from this

A
  1. Head-only electrical Stun - insensibility induced for 45 seconds
  2. Sever carotid arteries - insensibility induced after 90 seconds
    - Would get a period of recovered sensibility -> POOR ANIMAL WELFARE
    ○ Need to do a chest stick to bleed out quickly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is important about the chiller and what are the 4 main outputs of the abattoir

A
Chiller 
- Get everything within as soon as possible 
- To avoid microbiological contamination
Outputs 
1. Offal - edible and inedible  
2. Hides and skins 
3. Whole carcase sometimes 
4. Fresh or frozen cuts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lairage of the abattoir what are some important features for animal welfare

A
  • Non slip floor
  • Protected from the environment - sprinkles to keep cool in summer
  • Curved races - naturally flow so don’t need to use electrode prods
  • Minimal distractions
  • Move animals in small groups
  • Free access to water
  • Room to lie down
  • Keep animals of similar types and sizes together
  • Ante-mortem inspection of all animals by a veterinarian (AQIS)
  • Access to feed if held for a prolonged period
  • Facilities need to be easy to clean
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Restrain system in abattoir why is it important and the 2 main types, animal used for and what type of stunning used within

A
  • Important for achieving accurate placement of stunning devise and thus for achieving an effective stun
    1. Conveyer restrainers
  • Pigs, sheep, cattle
  • For use with captive bolt or electrical stunning
  • Large plants as expensive so small plants not cost-effective
    2. Stun boxes/crush restrainers
  • Cattle
  • For use with captive bolt stunning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some important features of restraint systems in abattoirs

A
  • Narrow enough to prevent the animal from turning around
  • Non-slip flooring
  • possible solid false floor
  • Appropriate lighting
  • A head restrain may be used
    ○ Head restraint more important for non-penetrating captive bolt
    ○ Can use active or passive head restraint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 4 main things consumers want from meat and 2 other expectations

A
  1. Verification
    1. Quality
    2. Safety
    3. Health promoting
      Other expectations
  2. Safe process for personnel involves (on the farm through to point of sale)
  3. Animal welfare requirements met along the production process
    ○ Consumers increasingly want and expect that the welfare of animals is guarded along the production process
41
Q

what is involved with meat eating consumers wanting verification and quality

A

1) Verification
- The product needs to be consistent with what is on the label
○ Meat substitution racket in Australia in 1980s
§ Kangaroos and horse meat ended up in boxes of the ground beef exported to the USA
§ Significant damage to the industry in Australia
○ Origin
2) Quality
- The product needs to have features desired by consumers
○ Tenderness
○ Juiciness
○ Colour
○ Flavour
○ Shelf-life

42
Q

what is involved with meat eating consumers wanting safety and health promoting

A

Safety
- Consumers expect that they should be able to eat the meat knowing that it will not make them sick
○ No residues of antibiotics, hormones, anthelmintics, agriculture chemicals or pesticides
○ Not derived from a genetically modified animal and not ‘contaminated’ with GMOs (feed vaccines)
4) Health promoting
- Customer expectations/perceptions regarding health effects can range from reasonable to bizarre
- Nutritious and promote health
- Low in fat
- Associated with youth, physical attractiveness, fame

43
Q

What are 2 ways to get higher quality meat

A

Animal welfare is linked to food quality and food safety

  1. Minimise any physical damage (bruising or injury)
  2. Minimise stress before or at slaughter
44
Q

what occurs to meat that has bruising or injury

A
  • From inappropriate handling and/or inappropriate facilities
  • Aesthetically unpleasant and unacceptable to consumer
  • Higher pH leads the meat to decompose and spoil more rapidly (bloody meat promotes that growth of contaminating bacteria)
  • Bruised meat is condemned
45
Q

Blood splash/blood spotting (ecchymosis) on meat what can result in, what results from and 4 ways to prevent

A
  • Mostly considered a cosmetic defect but blood spots also have a higher pH (promotes bacterial growth)
  • Exact cause are poorly understood but it involves high blood pressure and/or weak blood vessels
    ○ Pre-slaughter stress of excitement
    ○ Some electrical stunning conditions
    ○ Long stun-to-stick intervals
    ○ Higher temperature
    To prevent .
    1) Minimise pre-slaughter stress or excitement
    2) Use optimal stunning conditions (optimise time, voltage for electrical stunning)
    3) Minimise stun-to-stick intervals
    4) Maximise efficient bleeding
46
Q

Dark cutting beef** what arises from, results in and why

A
  • DCB generally arises from linger term stress before slaughter
  • Results in meat that is dark in colour, dry and sticky in texture, higher pH and has a reduced shelf life
  • Related to low glycogen levels in the muscle before slaughter
47
Q

Dark cutting beef** the mechanism behind it and what is the ideal pH range

A
  • After death, muscle glycogen is broken down (anaerobic glycolysis) producing lactic acid which lowers the pH of the meat
  • Poor nutrition (on-farm) will reduce muscle glycogen stores)
  • Stressed animals (before or during transport, or at the abattoir) will deplete muscle glycogen prior to slaughter
  • Less glycogen at slaughter = less lactic acid = higher pH
    Ideal pH range - 5.4 - 5.7
48
Q

What are the 2 main ways to avoid dark cutting beef and describe

A

1) Provide adequate nutrition on farm
○ Feedlot cattle have higher levels of muscle glycogen
○ Grazing cattle should be put on good quality pasture at least 2-3 weeks before slaughter, or should receive supplementary feed
2) Avoid physical and psychological stress (farm to slaughter)
○ Good facilities, handling and procedures

49
Q

Pale, soft, exudative (PSE) pork what arises from, mechanism of action, what results in

A
  • Arises from severe, acute stress just before slaughter in pigs
  • Accelerated rate of glycolysis just after slaughter while carcass temperatures remain high
  • Excessive lactic acid produced, resulting in a very low pH
  • Meat is pale, unattractive and has excessive ‘drip loss’ as the meat is cooled and stored - fluid dropping off
  • Primarily has food quality implications but the excessive ‘drip loss’ could promote microbial growth, so there are potential food safety implications too
50
Q

What are the 4 ways to avoid PSE pork

A
  1. Keep pigs cool in hot weather and chill meat quickly
  2. Genetic selection of pigs that are not predisposed to PSE
  3. Reduce stress at the abattoir
  4. Co2 stunning
51
Q

What is the aim of the following steps in the abattoir 1. ante-mortem inspection 2. post-mortem inspection 3. chilling

A

Ante-mortem inspection
AIM: to ensure that only apparently healthy, physiologically normal animas are slaughtered for human consumption and that abnormal animals are separated and dealt with accordingly
Post-mortem inspection
AIM: to ensure that meat from animal is free from disease, wholesome and of no risk to human health
- Routine post-mortem examination of a carcass is carried out on the slaughter floor
- The carcass is passed, trimmed or condemned as appropriate
Chilling
AIM: to rapidly reduce surface and internal temperatures to prevent microbial proliferation
Carcasses are chilled prior to further processes

52
Q

List some abattoir design and food safety considerations

A
  • Product flow from dirty to clean
  • Product flow lines must not intersect or cross, no backtracking
  • Site environment free from contaminants
  • Separate access for animal drop off (dirty) and product pick up (clean)
  • drainage, airflow, surface must be clean
    • Hand washbasins readily available
  • Taps must be operated by foot or knee
  • Adequate clean water supply, hot water, lighting
53
Q

Meat is the end product of a long chain of events

A
  • Farm environment
    • Lifetime experiences of the animal
    • Transport to the abattoir
    • Slaughter process
    • Dressing of carcass
    • Storage of product by wholesaler
    • Transport of product
    • Storage and handling by retailer
    • Transport by end-user
    • Home storage
    • Cooking
    • Consumption
54
Q

What is HACCP apprach to food safety and food quality and what industry used in

A

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point

  • Science-based system of identifying, evaluating and controlling hazards which are significant for food safety
  • Based on a preventative approach
  • Most commonly applied to the food industry but can be applied to other activities too
55
Q

List 7 principles of HACCP

A
  1. Hazard analysis
  2. Identify critical control points (CCPs)
  3. Establish critical limits
  4. Monitor the critical control points
  5. Establish corrective action
  6. Record keeping
  7. Verification
56
Q

What are the 3 steps in hazard analysis (HACCP) and give an example

A

1) Identify the hazards (biological, chemical or physical) that effect food quality and/or safety
2) Identify where in the production process the hazards arise
3) Identify preventative methods
EXAMPLE
Hazard: antibiotic residues in meat products
Arises: on farm
Preventative methods: appropriate and safe use of antibiotics

57
Q

Identify critical control points (CCPs) (HACCP) what is involved and an example in terms of antimicrobial resistance

A
  • Critical control points are steps at which control can be applied and a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated or reduced to an acceptable level
    Example:
  • Ensuring suitable period of time between administering the antibiotic and slaughtering the animal -> withholding period.
58
Q

Establish critical limits (HACCP) what is involved and example with antimicrobial resistance

A
  • Establish the operational boundaries of the critical point (the parameter you will measure to ensure that the CCP is under control
  • Simple measure
    Example:
  • The specified withholding period as it written on the product label
59
Q

Monitor the CCP’s (HACCP) what is involved and example

A
  • Monitoring is a planned sequence of measurements or observations to ensure the process at that CCP is under control
    Example:
  • Monitor: Record treatment details and check the WHP/ESI has elapsed before stock are sent for slaughter
60
Q

Establish Corrective Action (HACCP) what is involved and example for antimicrobial resistance

A
  • Pre-plan what to do if monitoring indicates that there is a deviation from the critical limit
    Example
  • Corrective Action: Remove animal or product from processing ID and traceability is important for this
61
Q

Record keeping (HACCP) what is involved

A
  • Preparation and maintenance of a written HACCP plan
  • All records generated during the monitoring of each CCP
  • Records of any deviations from CL and the corrective actions taken
    Audited!!!!
62
Q

Verification (HACCP) what is involved and example for antimicrobial resistance

A
  • Verify that the HACCP plan is working
  • Can involve review of HACCP plans and records, and also sampling and analysis
  • Important but not the main step in the process - used to be the main step
    Example:
  • Testing of meat for antimicrobial residues (maximum residue limits - MRLs)
  • National Residue Survey (NRS)
63
Q

ESAM program what is it, what involves

A
  • ESAM program (E. coli and Salmonella program)
  • Mandatory for all export abattoirs
  • Set number of carcasses randomly selected for swabbing (eg. 1 test per 1500 carcasses)
    ○ Very precise size and spots of the swabbing
  • Swabs sent to laboratory for testing and bacterial enumeration
64
Q

Define zoonoses

A

diseases of humans in which the infectious agent is acquired from animals and for which animals are the reservoir of infection

65
Q

What are 3 different definitions for food-borne diseases

A
  1. Zoonoses that have infected the animal from which the food is produced - ZOONOTIC DISEASE
  2. Infectious diseases that are present due to contamination, often during processing, from the environment or from human food handlers
  3. Disease due to the presence of chemicals or toxins (natural toxins or contaminants from the environment)
66
Q

Give an example of a bacteria, parasite and virus that cause food-borne disease in humans

A

Bacteria - salmonella
Parasite - giardia
virus - tick-borne encephalitis virus (not common)

67
Q

Give an example of a bacteria, parasite and virus that causes food-borne disease due to contamination

A

Bacteria - staphylococcus aureus
Parasites - giargia
virus - enterovirus - fecal oral route

68
Q

What are the 4 main diseases due to the presence of chemicals or toxins

A

1) Shellfish poisoning: shellfish accumulate biotoxins through filter feeding - good at cleaning the environment
○ May be heat stable toxins - heat and still sick
2) Chemicals: antibiotic residues, pesticides, agricultural chemicals
3) Mycotoxins: toxins produced by moulds in animal feeds can remain in the food chain
4) Toxic metals: toxic metals can accumulate in animals living in a contaminated environment (mercury in fish)

69
Q

What are the 3 most common agents of food-borne diseases

A

1) campylobacter
2) E.coli
3) Toxoplasma

70
Q

What are the 3 main ways meat is contaminated

A

1) undercooked or raw eggs, meat, shellfish and unpasteurized dairy products
2) minced meat products (beef, chicken, pork)
3) food that are incorrectly stored, handled or transported

71
Q

List some high risk foods for food-poisoning and what do they mainly contain

A
most contain raw eggs 
○ Mayonnaise - homemade 
○ Hollandaise sauce
○ Pork buns
○ Chocolate mouse
○ Tiramisu
○ Rough cookie dough 
○ Rough milk - bathing in milk 
○ Raw shellfish 
○ Raw/undercooked chicken
72
Q

how does mined meat products get contaminated wih bacteria

A
  • Modern methods of processing huge batches of meat mean that large volumes of meat can be contaminated
  • The mincing process exposes more of the meat to bacteria
  • Temperatures in the centre of a minced product can be insufficient during cooking
73
Q

How does foods that are incorrectly stored, handles or transported get infected with bacteria specifically listeria and what are high risk foods for this bacteria

A
  • Incorrect storage temperature allow bacteria to proliferate
  • Generally short term storage below 4 degrees is suitable
  • HOWEVER listeria can grow (slowly) at 4 degrees and so food are refrigerated for a prolonged period and then served cold are “high risk”
    ○ High risk foods for Listeria contamination include:
    § Pate
    § Soft cheeses
    § Cool meats
    § Cooked diced chicken
74
Q

What is the most common symptoms of food-borne disease and other symptoms

A
  • Gastrointestinal symptoms - nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, diarrhoea, fever
  • Onset of symptoms can vary from 30min to several days
    Other symptoms
  • Meningitis (listeria monocytogenes)
  • Jaundice (hepatitis viruses)
  • Paralysis (paralytic shellfish poisoning)
  • Pregnancy miscarriage or birth defects (listeria monocytogenes)
  • Haemolytic-uremic syndrome - anaemia, acute kidney failure, thrombocytopenia
75
Q

What are 2 potential chronic sequalae to food-borne disease

A

1) Chronic (Sterile) joint disease
- Autoimmune conditions, including reactive arthritis and Reiter syndrome, following bacterial enteric infection
2) Guillian-Barre syndrome
- Flaccid, ascending paralysis and autonomic nervous system dysfunction following campylobacter jejuni (autoimmune condition)

76
Q

what makes a group of people more at risk of food-borne disease and who are these groups

A
  • More likely to suffer from food-borne disease
  • More likely to develop serious symptoms
  • More likely to have a prolonged period
    At risk
  • Pregnant women
  • Young children
  • Older people
  • Immunosuppressed people
77
Q

In australia what food-borne disease causes the most death, how many cases per year, how many deaths

A

salmonella doesn’t cause as many cases as E.coli and campylobacter but higher death rate

  • 4 million cases of gastroenteritis
  • 30,000 hospitalizations
  • 76 deaths
78
Q

Developing countries food-borne disease what makes most vulnerable

A

○ Unsafe water for cleaning and processing food
○ Inappropriate and unsafe use of agriculture chemicals
○ Poor food processing and food storage infrastructure
○ Inadequate or poorly enforced regulatory standards
○ Poorly resourced health care systems to manage disease
○ High proportions of people with chronic health problems that can predispose to food-borne illness (malnutrition, HIV/AIDS)

79
Q

Developing country food-borne disease how many deaths, what main age group and main pathogens involved

A

420,000 deaths 2010
40% children under 5
norovirus and campylobacter

80
Q

What are the 2 groups of notifiable enteric diseases when need to report and give 3 examples from each

A
Group A diseases  - more severe - immediately 
1. botulism 
2. cholera 
3. hepatitis A
Group B disease - within 3-5days 
1. salmonellosis 
2. listeriosis 
3. campylobacterosis
81
Q

what happens to information when notify a disease, what is it and what store data from

A

PHESS - Public Health Events Surveillance System
- Web based database
- Standardised reporting functions
- Stores and reports on:
○ Demographic data
○ Notified details
○ Notification type, method of diagnosis, illness profile
○ Risk factor information -> high risk population

82
Q

What are the 3 things surveillance enables and informs

A
Enables 
- Identification of at risk populations 
- Identification of outbreaks
- Recognition of disease trends 
Informs 
- Community education and awareness 
- Development of guidelines for health professionals 
- Policy and planning documentation
83
Q

what are the 4 main modes of trasnmission for enteric pathoens and the 4 most common

A
Modes of transmission 
	- Infected persons 
	- Contaminated food 
	- Infected animals
	- Contaminated Water or Environments 
Main foodborne pathogens 
	- Salmonella
	- Campylobacter 
	- Toxins (C. pergingens)
	- Norovirus
84
Q

What are 2 different outbreak investigation types

A

1) Point source outbreaks

2) Cluster investigations

85
Q

Point source outbreaks what usually linked to and how investigate and how usually detected

A
  1. Usually linked to a common event
    - Easy to recognise and relatively easy to investigate
    - Usually conduct a cohort study to investigate them
  2. Usually detected through informal means
    - Self-report from affected persons
    - Local government/DHS regions
    - Health care/infection control staff
    Schools/child care
86
Q

Cluster investigation of enteric disease what occurs, how to investigate and how usually detected

A
  • An unusual number of notifications of a particular organism either, in time or place and not at the outset of the investigation, associated with a point source
    ○ Often difficult to recognise and investigate
    ○ Usually conduct a case series investigation - may do a case-control study
  • Usually detected through formal means
    ○ Conduct surveillance
    ○ Some national investigations with OzFoodNet
87
Q

What are the 3 components of a outbreak investigation and the 4 steps in the investigation

A

1) Epidemiological
2) Environmental
3) Laboratory
4 steps
1) environmental investigation
2) epidemiological investigation
3) laboratory testing
4) trace-back of suppliers/food

88
Q

Environmental investigation into a food-borne outbreak what is involved

A
  • Inspect the premises and supervise a clean-up
  • Exclude staff who have been ill
  • Recommend change to practices or implement infection control measures as required
  • Review food process/records/audit reports
  • Supervise disposal of open and high risk foods
    After appropriate sampling
89
Q

Epidemiological investigation into a food-borne disease what is involved

A
- Standard questionnaires 
○ 3 day food history 
○ Menu or food items/other risk factors 
- Cohort or case control study 
○ Ill and not ill
90
Q

Laboratory testing and trace-back to supplies/food in a food-borne disease outbreak what is involved

A

3) Laboratory testing
- Food samples and faecal specimens
- Liaison with other jurisdictions (OzFoodNet)
4) Trace-back of suppliers/food
Involve DEDJTER if on farm investigation required

91
Q

What are 6 things that impact the outcome of a outbreak investigation

A

1) Type of outbreak
2) Setting of outbreak
3) Timeliness of notification
a. Recall bias
b. Left over foods -> may throw out
4) Experience of investigators
5) Ability to do analytical studies
6) Traceability of suspected foodstuff

92
Q

In epidemiological investigations of food-borne disease what studies are most used, what do they do and what is needed

A
  • Analytical studies test hypotheses
  • Evaluate the association between exposure and disease
  • Case definition - person, place and time
    ○ A person who ate at restaurant X between 5 and 11 april 2017 and had an onset of diarrhoea between 7 and 15 april
  • Two used in foodborne outbreak investigations
    1) Cohort study - commonly used in point source outbreaks where the subjects are identified based on exposure status
    2) Case-control study - commonly used for cluster investigations where subjects are identified based on case status
93
Q

Cohort study in an outbreak investigation, what is known, what is assessed and measurement outcome

A
  • Exposure known (single event) - restaurant
  • Assess risk of illness if exposed
  • Identify which food risk factors are associated with disease
  • Strength of association - relative risk (RR)
    ○ The risk of becoming ill if eaten X/ the risk of becoming ill if not eaten X
94
Q

Case control study in an outbreak investigation, what is known, what is needed, measurement outcome

A
  • Commonly used when the setting of exposure is unknown
  • Need an hypothesis and selection of control
  • Assess food risk factors in cases (ill) and controls (not ill)
  • Identify which food risk factors associated with disease
  • Strength of association - Odds ratio
    ○ The odds that one had eaten X if ill/ the odds that one had eaten X if not ill
    ○ A person who is ill is X times more likely to have eaten X than person who is not ill
95
Q

What are 6 factors that can influence the significance of association in analytical studies

A

1) Confidence internals
○ Range within which 95% of times the true value of the estimated association lies
2) P value
○ Probably that an association at least as strong as that observed might have arisen by chance alone
3) Statically significance depends on:
○ The magnitude of the difference between the groups
○ The number of people in the study
4) Bias and misclassification
○ Recall bias
○ Incorrect case/control ascertainment
5) Confounding
○ Food eaten together can often confound associations
○ Stratification to control
6) Multivariate analysis
○ Used in foodborne studies where cases eat similar items and multiple foods have statically significant associations with illness

96
Q

What are some possible outcomes of food-borne outbreak disease investigation

A
  • Recommendation to change practices
  • Clearance sampling
  • Ongoing monitoring of compliance
  • Closure of premises
  • Persecution
  • Review of auditor
  • Product recall
  • Policy development/changes
  • Education programs
97
Q

Eggs and salmonella outbreaks what diseases involved, the spread and which in Australia

A
  • Major cause of egg related outbreaks outside of Australia
  • Infection of egg contents via trans-ovarian transmission is the most common route for S. enteritis
    ○ S. Enteritidis is not endemic in Australian egg layers
  • Most egg-related outbreaks in Australia due to S. typhimurium - much lower potential for trans-ovarian transmission - generally raw eggs
  • Contaminated surface of egg shell likely source of salmonella for most outbreaks
98
Q

What are the 2 main limitations of egg associated investigations and describe

A

1) Case investigation
- Recall of egg consumption for cases
- Eggs as ingredients of foods
- Recall of brand information on eggs
- Time lapse between illness and notification impacts on products retained in household
2) Trace-back of eggs
- Consumer cannot name brand/type of eggs used
- Restaurants not keeping batch records of eggs
- No packaging remaining
- Distributor purchase eggs from a number of farms

99
Q

Recommendations of food premises and consumers for avoiding egg associated disease

A

To food premises
- Avoid serving food containing raw eggs
○ Pasteurised egg alternative
○ Purchase commercial brands of prepared food
- If choose to serve food containing raw eggs
○ Use clean, uncracked eggs
○ Store prepared food <5 degrees
○ Produce a fresh batch daily
○ Make small batches
○ Sanitize all equipment between use
Consumers
- Eating raw eggs or raw egg products can cause illness