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Endocrine Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Hormones from the Anterior Pituitary

A

GH
Gonadotropins
Prolactin

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2
Q

Hormones from the Hypothalamus

A

GnRH

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3
Q

Hormones from the Posterior Pituitary

A

Oxytocin

Vasopressin

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4
Q

GH Inhibitor

A

Somatostatin

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5
Q

PRL Inhibitor

A

Dopamine

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6
Q

Mediator of GH

A

IGF-1

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7
Q

Mediators of TSH

A

Thyroxine

Triiodothyronine

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8
Q

Mediators of ACTH

A

Glucocorticoid
Mineralocorticoid
Androgens

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9
Q

Mediators of FSH/LH

A

Estrogen
Progesterone
Testosterone

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10
Q

Increases release of IGF1

Hormone for GH deficiency, short stature, Failure to thrive, AIDS wasting

A

Somatotropin

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11
Q

Drug used for performance enhancement (increases muscle mass), banned by athletics committees

A

Somatotropin

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12
Q

Somatostatin analog
Suppresses secretion of GH, IGF1, Serotonin and GI peptides
Drug for acromegaly, pituitary adenoma (GH secreting), carcinoid, gastrinoma, glucagonoma, variceal bleeding
Can alter requirements for antidiabetic agents

A

Octreotide

Lanreotide

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13
Q

In women, FSH directs_____; while FSH and LH collaborate for _________

A

follicle development

ovarian steroidogenesis

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14
Q

In men FSH regulates______ and LH stimulates_________.

A

spermatogenesis

androgen production

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15
Q

Ovulation induction can cause ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome with the following triad of Sx:

A

Ovarian Enlargement
Hypovolemia
Ascites
Possibly Shock

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16
Q

FSH Analog
Drug for controlled ovarian hyperstimulation, infertility due to hypogonadism in men
SE: Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome, multiple pregnancies, gynecomastia in men

A

Follitropin Alfa

Menotropins (hMG), UROFOLLITROPIN (from urine of menopausal women), Follitropin Beta

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17
Q

LH Analog
Drug for controlled ovarian hyperstimulation, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
SE: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, multiple pregnancies, gynecomastia in men

A 
Choriogonadotropin Alfa
(HUMAN CHORIONIC GONADOTROPIN (hCG), Menotropins (hMG), Lutropin
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18
Q

Increased LH and FSH secretion with intermittent administration, reduced LH and FSH with continuous administration
Drug for Controlled ovarian hyperstimulation, endometriosis, myoma uteri, precocious puberty, prostate cancer
SE: Hot flushes, osteoporosis, gynecomastia, temporary exacerbation of precocious puberty or prostate cancer

A

Leuprolide

LAHAT NG -RELIN

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19
Q

GnRH Antagonist
Drug for Controlled Ovarian Hyperstimulation, Prostate Cancer
SE: Hypersensitivity (Abarelix)
Does not cause tumor flare up when used for prostate cancer

A

Ganirelix

LAHAT NG -RELIX

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20
Q

Partial D2 receptor agonist
Inhibits GH release
Drug for hyperprolactinemia, Pituitary adenoma (PRL secreting), acromegaly, Parkinson’s
SE: Erythromelalgia, Reynaud’s Phenomenon, Pulmonary infiltrates

A

Bromocriptine

Pergolide, Carbergoline, Quinagolide

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21
Q

Stimulates uterine contraction and labor
Stimulates milk letdown
Drug for labor induction/augmentation, control of postpartum hemorrhage
SE: Fetal distress, placental abruption, uterine rupture, water intoxication, hypotension

A

Oxytocin

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22
Q

Contraindications to Oxytocin

A 
Fetal distress
Prematurity
Abnormal Presentation
CPD
Predispositions for uterine rupture
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23
Q

Vasopressin V2 receptor agonist

DOC for Central DI

A

Desmopressin

Vasopressin

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24
Q

Sx of Central DI

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Hypernatremia
Inability to resorb water from the urine

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25
Q

Central DI: deficient _________ of ADH

Nerphrogenic DI: end-organ ________ to ADH

A

Secretion

Resistance

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26
Q

Antagonist at V1a and V2 receptors
Drug for SIADH
Central Pontine Myelinosis may occur with rapid correction of hyponatremia

A

Conivaptan

Tolvaptan, Lixivaptan

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27
Q

T3 is about ______ times more potent than T4

A

10

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28
Q

T___ is converte to T____ in target cells

A

T4 to T3

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29
Q 
Identify if Thyrotoxicosis or Hypothyroidism:
Weakness
Increased DTR
Menstrual Irregularity
Decreased Fertility
A

Thyrotoxicosis

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30
Q 
Identify if Thyrotoxicosis or Hypothyroidism:
Stiffness
Decreased DTR
Infertility
Decreased Libido
Impotence
Oligospermia
A

Hypothyroidism

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31
Q

Thyroid hormone
Activation of nuclear receptors
Drug for Hypothyroidism, Myxedema Coma
SE: Dry skin, nervousness, heat intolerance

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

Liothyronine (T3)

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32
Q

T4 dose must be lowered in pxs with __________ or longstanding __________ due to increased cardiosensitivity

A

Cardiovascular disease

Hypothyroidism

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33
Q

Thioamide
Inhibits Thyroid peroxidase
Blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Drug for Hyperthyroidism (esp in Pregnant), Thyroid Storm
SE: Fulminant hepatitis, Agranulocytosis
Slow onset of action (3-4 weeks for full effect)
Largely protein bound

A

PTU

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34
Q

Thioamide
Inhibits Thyroid peroxidase, blocks iodine organification
Drug for hyperthyroidism (DOC in nonpregnant)
SE: Cholestatic jaundice, agranulocytosis
altered sense of taste/smell
Slow onset of action (3-4 weeks for full effect)

A

Methimazole

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35
Q

Prenatal exposure to Methimazole can lead to this condition

A

Aplasia Cutis Congenita

Absence of a portion of skin in a localized or widespread area at birth

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36
Q

Sx of Agranulocytosis

A

Acute severe neutropenia
sore throat or high fever
increased susceptibility to infections

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37
Q

Tx for Agranulocytosis

A

Give G-CSF to stimulate body to make more WBC

Discontinue medication

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38
Q

Iodide
Emits beta rays causing destruction of thyroid parenchyma
Hyperthyroidism
SE: Permanent hypothyroidism
Preferred treatment for most patients
Contraindicated in pregnant women or nursing mothers

A

Radioactive Iodine 131I

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39
Q

Iodide
Inhibits iodine organification, reduces size and vascularity of thyroid gland
Drug for thyroid storm, hyperthyroidims, preop thyroidectomy, radiation prophylaxis
SE: Iodism, metallic taste
Prevents radiation induced thyroid damage
Should not be used alone (escape in 2-8weeks)

A

Potassium Iodide

Lugol’s Solution

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40
Q

Prenatal exposure to Potassium Iodide can cause _____

A

Fetal Goiter

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41
Q

Identify: Ingestion of Iodine causes Hypothyroidism

A

Wolf-Chaikoff Effect

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42
Q

Identify: Ingestion of Iodine causes Hyperthyroidism

A

Jod-Basedow Effect

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43
Q

This drug causes clinical improvement of hyperthyroidism without altering thyroid hormone levels

Class?

A

Beta Blockers

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44
Q

This beta blocker may be used to treat thyrotoxicosis-related arrhythmia

A

Esmolol

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45
Q

Enumerate the anti-thyroid drugs that inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A 
Propylthiouracil
Propranolol
Hydrocortisone
Contrast with Iodine
Methimazole
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46
Q

Granulocyte count of <500cells/mm3

Sudden acute exacerbation of all the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis

A

Thyroid Storm

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47
Q

Tx of Thyroid Storm

A

PTU (inhibits conversion of iodide to iodine)
Iodides
Propranolol
Hydrocortisone (protects against shock)

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48
Q

Drugs that can induce Hyperthyroidism

A

Clofibrate
Amiodarone (can convert T4 to T3, or iodine induced in a person with underlying thyroid disease, or inflammatory causing leakage of thyroid hormone)
Methadone

CAM

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49
Q

Tx for Amiodarone induced Thyroid Disease due to Peripheral Conversion

A

Levothyroxine

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50
Q

Tx for Amiodarone induced Thyroid Disease due to Iodine-induced mechanism in those with underlying thyroid disease or inflammatory causing leakage of thyroid hormone

A

Thioamides (PTU/Methimazole)

Corticosteroids

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51
Q

Common Precursor of Corticosteroids

A

Cholesterol

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52
Q

Short-acting, low potency glucocorticoid
Suppresses inflammation
Drug for adrenal insufficiency, insect bites, contact dermatitis, status asthmaticus, thyroid storm

A

Hydrocortisone
Low Potency: Desonide
Medium Potency: Fluticasone, Mometasone
High Potency: Desoximetasone, Clobetasol

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53
Q

Glucocorticoid

SE: Adrenal SUPPRESSION

A

Prednisone

Betamethasone, Triamcinolone, Dexamethasone

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54
Q

This glucocorticoid hastens fetal lung maturation

A

Betamethasone

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55
Q

Mineralocorticoid
Strong agonist, moderate anti-inflammatory effects
Drug for chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s Disease), Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Adrenal Replacement Therapy Post-Adrenalectomy
SE: Salt and fluid retention, HypoK, Congestive HF
Additive HypoK with Loop diuretics and thiazides

A

Fludrocortisone

Deoxycorticosterone

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56
Q

Destruction or dysfunction of entire adrenal cortex

Ususally symptomatic only with >90% destruction

A

Addison Disease

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57
Q

Adrenal Insufficiency is what syndrome?

A

Addison

ADDrenal insuficiency

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58
Q

Adrenal Excess is what syndrome?

A

Conn

exCess

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59
Q

Most common cause of Iatrogenic Cushing Syndrome

A

Exogenous Steroid Intake

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60
Q

Most common cause of Adrenal Cushing Syndrome

A

Cortisol Secreting Adrenal Adenoma

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61
Q

Most common cause of Pituitary Cushing Syndrome

A

ACTH-secreting Pituitary Adenoma

62
Q

Most common cause of Ectopic Cushing Syndrome

A

Paraneoplastic ACTH production from lung tumors

63
Q

Glucocorticoid Synthesis Inhibitor
Inhibits DESMOLASE, blocking conversion of cholesterol to prenenolone
Drug for breast cancer, cushing syndrome
Abused by body builders to lower circulating cortisol in the body and prevent muscle loss

A

Aminoglutethamide

64
Q

Glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor, Antifungal
Inhibits cholesterol side chain cleavage
Drug for fungal infection
SE: Hepatotoxicity, Gynecomastia, GI disurbances
Inhibitor of CYP450

A

Ketoconazole

65
Q

Glucocorticoid Synthesis Inhibitor
Inhibits 11-hydroxylation
Drug for diagnostic testing, Cushing syndrome
DOC for pregnant patients with cushing’s syndrome

A

Metyrapone

66
Q

This hormone derived from horses is used for HRT

67
Q

Estrogen
SE: Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, HyperTG, HPN
Increases risk for endometrial CA and breast CA (prevented by combining with progestin)

A

Ethinyl Estradiol

Mestranol, Estradiol Cypionate

68
Q 
Synthetic estrogen (nonsteroid)
Drug for metastatic prostate cancer
SE: Increased incidence of Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma in daughters of mothers who took this drug
A

Diethylstilbestrol

69
Q

Progestin
SE: Decreased HDL, Weight gain, Reversible decrease in bone mineral density
Prevents estrogen induced endometrial cancer when used in combination

A

Norgestrel
(Megestrol, Ethynodiol, Desogestrel, Etonogestrel)

LAHAT NG MAY NOR-

70
Q

Type of Oral Contraceptive:

Taken in constant dosage

A

Monophasic

71
Q

Progestin or Estrogen Dosage changes during the month

A

Biphasic or Triphasic

72
Q

Contraceptives may be given within ______ hours after unprotected intercourse

73
Q

MOA of Combination Hormonal Contraceptives

A

Inhibition of Ovulation

74
Q

COC
Activates estrogen and progesterone receptors
SE: Breakthrough bleeding, DVT, Breast CA

A

Estradiol + Norethindrone

(Ethinyl Estradiol PLUS: Desogestrel/Norgestrel, Drospirenone, Norgestimate

75
Q

Does not protect against STDs

76
Q

POP
Alters cervical mucus and creates a hostile endometrium
SE: Breakthrough bleeding, Delayed return of fertility, Osteoporosis

A

Medroxyprogesterone Acetate

IM preparation (Depo-provera)

77
Q

Post coital contraceptive
SE: Severe nausea, dizziness
Must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse

A

Levonorgestrel

78
Q

_____ Regimen is for emergency contraception

A

Yuzpe

4 tabs OCP then 4 tabs again after 12 hours

79
Q

Mixed estrogen agonists that have agonist effects in some tissues and antagonists in others
Class?

80
Q

Estrogen antagonist in breast tissue and CNS
Estrogen agonist in uterus
Drug for Hormone Responsive Breast CA (ER+/PR+)
Prevents osteroporosis and decreases risk of atherosclerosis at the risk of causing endometrial CA
Drug?

A

Tamoxifen

TAnggal Mammary Mo = TAMOxifen

81
Q

Estrogen Antagonist in Breast, Uterus and CNS
DDrug for Osteoporosis and Breast CA PREVENTION
Reduces risk of Breast CA in those who are VERY HIGH RISK
No estrogenic effects on endometrial tissue

A

Raloxifene

82
Q 
Partial estrogen agonist in pituitary
Reduces negative feedback by estradiol
Increases FSH and LSH output
Drug for induction of Ovulation
SE: Ovarial enlargement, multiple pregnancies
A

Clomiphene

Clone Me Phlease

83
Q

Aromatase inhibitor
Drug for Breast CA, Precocious puberty
Effective to tamoxifen resistant Breast CA

A

Anastrozole
(Letrozole, Exemestane)

Aromatase inhibits Testosterone to Estrogen

84
Q

Partial agonist of Progestin and Androgen receptors
Drug for Endometriosis, Fibrocystic disease
SE: Weight gain
Contraindicated during pregnancy and breast-feeding

A

Danazol

Anti-androgen

85
Q

Antagonist of glucocorticoid and progesterone receptors
Drug for medical abortion
Combination with Misoprostol results in abortion of 95% of early pregnancies
May cause sepsis from unusual organisms

A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

Organisms like Clostridium Sordeli

86
Q

Active form of Testosterone in Prostate

A

DHT

DIhydrotestosterone

87
Q

Stimulate RBC production in certain anemias
Promotes weight gain
Performance enhancement in athletes
Drug?

A

Testosterone

88
Q

Androgen
Increases muscle bulk and RBC production
Drug for male hypogonadism, wasting syndromes in AIDS
SE: Virilization in females, paradoxical feminization in males
Contraindicated in pregnant women and patients with prostate cancer

A

Testosterone

LAHAT NG MAY -TERONE

89
Q

Anabolic steroid androgen
Increases ratio of anabolic to androgenic activity
Drug for performance enhancement
SE: Virilization in females, Paradoxical feminization in males, Cholestatic jaundice, Elevated liver enzymes, HCC

A

Oxandrolone

LAHAT NG MAY -ANDROLONE

90
Q

Androgen antagonist

Drug for prostate cancer (prevention of acute flare up), surgical castration (Nilutamide)

A

Flutamide
(Bicalutamide, Nilutamide)

Fake Androgen: Flutamide

91
Q

Less hepatotoxicity with which androgen antagonists?

A

Bicalutamide

Nilutamide

92
Q

Must be co-administered with Leuprolide to prevent prostate cancer flare up

A

Flutamide

Fake Androgen: Flutamide

93
Q

Androgen antagonist
Drug for hirsutism, decreases sexual drive in men
Currently an orphan drug

A

Cyproterone

Cyproterone Acetate

94
Q

Androgen synthesis inhibitor
Inhibits 5alpha-reductase converting testosterone to DHT
Drug for BPH, male pattern baldness, hirsutism
SE: Impotence
Controversial use in prostate cancer

A

Finasteride

LAHAT NG -ASTERIDE

FinAsteRIde: Five Alpha Reductase Inhibitor

95
Q

C peptide is used to:

A

differentiate Type 1 and Type 2 DM
Diagnose MEN
Rule out factitious hypoglycemia
Assess insulin resistance

96
Q

MOA of Insulin

A

Binds to tyrosine kinase receptor
Activates phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase and MAP kinase
Translucation of glucose transporters

97
Q

Rapid Insulin, duration is 3-4 hours

A

Lispro
Aspart
Glulisin

mabiLIS!

98
Q

Short Acting Insulin, duration is 5-7 hours

99
Q

Intermediate-Acting Insulin, duration is 18-24 hours

100
Q

Long-Acting Insulin, duration is 18-24 hours

A

Ultralente

101
Q

Ultralong Acting Insulin, duration is >24 hours

A

Glargine : go LARGe!
Detemir
Lantus: LANTa na sa sobrang tagal

102
Q

Paradoxical improvement f Diabetes in ESRD is due to?

A

Prolonged half-life of insulin due to decreased clearance

103
Q

These symptoms are results of CNS deprivation

A

Neuroglycopenic Symptoms

104
Q

Thes symptoms are results of CNS mediated sympathoadrenal discharge

A

Neurogenic (or Autonomic) Symptoms

105
Q

Patients who are more prone to developing hypoglycemia with insulin:

A

Advanced renal disease
Elderly
Children below 7 years

106
Q

Identify Effect and Tx:
Evening dose is High
3AM is low
7AM is high

A

Somogyi

Decrease Insulin

107
Q

Identify Effect and Tx:
Evening dose is Low
3AM is high
7AM is high

A

Waning

Increase Insulin

108
Q

Identify Effect and Tx:
3AM is Normal
7AM is high (mild)

A

Dawn Phenomenon

Insulin sensitivity becomes low between 6am and 7am due to GH spike

109
Q

Identify Effect and Tx:
Evening dose is High
3AM is high
7AM is higher

A

Waning + Dawn Phenomenon

Increase Insulin

110
Q

Period when exogenous insulin requirements decrease due to an increase in endogenous production of insulin
This is followed by a TOTAL LACK of endogenous insulin

A

Honeymoon Period

111
Q

Most physiologic strategy for Insulin Therapy

A

Basal Bolus

Long acting BASAL + Short acting BOLUS with every meal

112
Q

Amount of short-acting insulin is varied depending on pre-prandial CBG

A

Sliding Insulin Scale

113
Q

Only routes for administration of Insulin

A

Subcutaneous
IV

Inhalational seems promising

114
Q

MOA of insulin Secretagogues

A

closure of K channels in Pancreatic B cell membrane
Not effective in Pxs who lack functional pancreatic B cells
Requires Islet Cell Function

115
Q

1st Generation Sulfonylurea
SE: Hypoglycemia, Weight Gain, Disulfiram Reaction, Dilutional Hyponatremia
Drugs that compete for protein binding may enhance hypoglycemic effects
Requires islet cell function

A

Chlorpropamide

LAHAT NG -AMIDE
Except Gibenclamide

116
Q

2nd Generation Sulfonylurea
SE: Hypoglycemia (less), Weight Gain, Cholestatic Jaundice (Glibenclamide)
Contraindicated with hepatic impairment and renal insufficiency
Requires Islet cell function

A

Glipizide

LAHAT NG GLI-

117
Q

Meglitinide
Insulin Secretagogue
For Postprandial hyperglycemia
SE: Hypoglycemia (least), Upper Respiratory Tract Infections
Used in Diabetics with Sulfa Allergies
Nateglinide has the least Incidence of hypoglycemia and may be used in CKD patients
Requires islet cell function

A

Repaglinide

LAHAT NG -GLINIDE

118
Q

MOA of Biguanides

A

Reduces fasting and postprandial glucose levels
inhibition of hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis
stimulates glucose uptake and glycolysis in peripheral tissues

119
Q

First line for T2DM (esp Obese)
Inhibits hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis
SE: Weight loss, Lactic acidosis, Vit B12 malabsorption
Contraindicated in pxs with renal disease, alcoholism, hepatic disease, or conditions with tissue anoxia

120
Q

MOA of Thiazolidinediones

A

Increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin
Reduces fasting and post-prandial glucose
Increases glucose uptake in muscle and adipose
Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis

121
Q

Thiazolidinedione
Regulates gene expression, binds to PPAR-gamma
SE: Fluid retention, congestive heart failure, Dec HDL, Inc LDL, Inc TG
Contraindicated in pregnancy, chronic liver disease, Congestive heart failure

A

Pioglitazone

LAHAT NG -GLITAZONE

122
Q

Anti-diabetes drug that reduces mortality and macrovascular events (MI/Stroke)

A

Pioglitazone

123
Q

MOA of Alpha Glucosidase Inhibitors

A

Important for the conversion of complex carbs to monosaccharides
Reduction of post-prandial hyperglycemia
Lacks an effect on Fasting Blood Sugar
Reduces risk of Diabetes on High Risk Pxs

124
Q

Inhibits Intestinal Alpha Glucosidases
Drug for Diabetes prevention
SE: GI disturbance, Flatulence, Hypoglycemia with sulfonylureas
Minor glucose lowering benefit
Contraindicated in pxs with renal impairment

A

Acarbose
(Miglitol, Voglibose)

Adjunct therapy only

125
Q

Novel Diabetic Agents

A

Pramlintide
Exenatide
Sitagliptin

126
Q

Amylin analog
Suppresses glucagon release, delays gastric emptying, reduces appetite
Administered as injectable solution with insulin

A

Pramlintide

127
Q

Incretin modulator, GLP-1 Agonist
Retards Gastric Emptying, Inhibits glucagon secretion, Produces SATIETY
SE: Hypoglycemia
Administered as an injectable preparation used in combination with metformin or a sulfonylurea

128
Q

Incretin modulator, DPP-4 Inhibitor (degrades GLP1)

Administered orally as monotherapy or in combination with metformin

A

Sitagliptin

129
Q

Inhibits GI and pancreatic lipase, reduces fat absorption
Drug for Obesity and T2DM
SE: Weight loss, Steatorrhea
Rebound weight gain, contraindicated in pregnancy, malabsorption

130
Q

Inhibits NE and serotonin reuptake in the CNS, reduces appetite
Drug for Obesity
SE Anticholinergic effects
Withdrawn due to increased risk of cardiovascular events and strokes

A

Sibutramine

Reductil

131
Q

Selectively blocks cannabinoid 1 receptors, reduces appetite
Drug for Obesity
SE: Suicidality, depression, nausea
Withdrawn due to increased risk of suicides, depression

A

Rimonabant

132
Q

Contents of Bangkok Pills and adverse effect

A

Ephedrine
Fenfluramine
Phentermine

Adverse effect: Valvular Heart Disease

133
Q

MOA of Glucagon

A

Catabolic
Increases heart rate and force of contraction
increases hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Relaxes smooth muscles

134
Q

Activates glucagon receptors

Drug for severe hypoglycemia, beta blocker overdose

135
Q

These tumors present with decreased AA in blood, anemia, diarrhea, weight loss and NECROLYTIC MIGRATORY ERYTHEMA

A

Glucagonoma

136
Q

MOA of PTH

A

Increase bone turnover, hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

137
Q

This electrolyte regulates the synthesis and secretion of PTH

A

Free Ionized Calcium

138
Q

Recombinant PTH
Drug for Osteoporosis
Must be administered in low intermittent dses to stimulate bone formation

A

Teriparatide

139
Q

Sx of excess Parathyroid Hormone

A

Painful bones
Renal stones
Abdominal groans
Psychiatric overtones

140
Q

Effect of PTH on Phos

A

Phosphate
Thrashing
Hormone

141
Q

IIndirectly increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the intestine via Increasing Vit D metabolites
Decreased calcium excretion, increase Phos excretion in the kidne
Increased Ca and Phos resorption in bone
Serum calcium increased, serum phosphate decreased

142
Q

Increased calcium and phosphate absorption
Increased resorption of calcium
Increase Ca and Phos resorption, promoting mineralization
Serum Ca and Phos both increased

A

Active Vit. D Metabolytes

143
Q

Inactive Vit D
Stimulates INtestinal Ca absorption, bone resorption, renal Ca and Phos reabsorption
Drug for Vit D deficiency
This is added to dairy products

A

Ergocalciferol

LAHAT NG -CALCIFEROL

144
Q

Active Vit D
Drug for secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD, Psoriasis
This is required in CKD, liver disease and hypoparathyroidism

A

Calcitriol

145
Q

Hormone secreted by Parafollicular C cells in the Thyroid Gland
Decreases Serum Ca and Phos by inhibiting bone resorption and inhibiting renal excretion of Ca and Phos

A

Calcitonin

Tones down Calcium, Reverses PTH

146
Q

Drug for Paget Disease of Bone, Hypercalcemia, Osteoporosis, Tumor marker of thyroid cancer
Given as nasal spray

A

Calcitonin

LAHAT NG - TONIN

147
Q

Excessive bone resorption leading to formation of weaker bones

A

Paget Disease of Bone

148
Q

Bisphosphonate
Suppresses Osteoclast activity
Drug for Paget disease of bone, hypercalcemia, osteoporosis
SE: Adynamic bone, Esophagitis, Osteonecrosis of the jaw

A

Alendronate

LAHAT NG -DRONATE / -DRONIC ACID

149
Q

Take this drug with large quantities of water

Contraindicated in renal impairment, esophageal motility disorder and PUD

A

Alendronate

150
Q

Phosphate binding resin
Binds to dietary phosphate and prevents absorption
Drug for hyperphosphatemia in CKD
Can reduce Uric Acid levels
Contraindicated in HYPOphosphatemia and bowel obstruction

A

SEVELAMER

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Pharmacology (31 decks)

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