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Pharma Review > Endocrine and Metabolic Drugs > Flashcards

Endocrine and Metabolic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

[hypothalamic-pituitary drugs]

treatment of genetic short stature, failure to thrive

A

somatropin

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2
Q

[hypothalamic-pituitary drugs]

treatment of acromegaly, variceal bleeding

A

octreotide, somatostatin

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3
Q

[hypothalamic-pituitary drugs]

treatment of hyperprolactinemia, prolactinoma

A

bromocriptine

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4
Q

[hypothalamic-pituitary drugs]
labor induction/augmentation, control of postpartum hemorrhage
SE: fluid retention

A

oxytocin

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5
Q

[hypothalamic-pituitary drugs]

treatment of central diabetes insipidus

A

desmopressin

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6
Q

[thyroid drugs]

treatment of hypothyroidism, myxedema coma

A

levothyroxine

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7
Q

[thyroid drugs]
inhibits thyroids peroxidase, blocks peripheral conversion to T4 to T3
SE: agranulocytosis,
DOC in pregnant hyperthyroid patients

A

PTU

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8
Q

[thyroid drugs]
inhibits thyroid peroxidase
SE: agranulocytosis, teratogen (aplasia cutis)

A

methimazole

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9
Q

[thyroid drugs]
preferred treatment for hyperthyroidism
SE: permanent hypothyroidism

A

RAI

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10
Q

[thyroid drugs]

reduces size and vascularity of thyroid gland

A

SSKI (Lugol’s solution)

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11
Q

[thyroid drugs]

symptomatic treatment fo hyperthyroidism, decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

propranolol

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12
Q

differentiate Wolf-Chaikoff effect from Jod-Basedow phenomenon

A

Wolf-Chaikoff effect ingestion of iodine causes hypothyroidism.
Jod-Basedow phenomenon ingestion of iodine causes hyperthyroidism.

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13
Q

which antithyroid drug inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?

A

PTU
Propranolol
Hydrocortisone

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14
Q

what drugs can cause drug-induced hyperthyroidism?

A

clofibrate
amiodarone
methadone

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15
Q

[corticosteroids]

acute adrenal insufficiency, status asthmaticus, thyroid storm

A

hydrocortisone

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16
Q

[corticosteroids]
prototype oral glucocorticoid
SE: adrenal suppression, Cushing syndrome

A

prednisone

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17
Q

[corticosteroids]

hastens fetal lung maturation

A

betamethasone/ dexamethasone

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18
Q

[corticosteroids]

mineralocorticoid replacement for chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)

A

fludrocortisone

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19
Q

mnemonics
Addison’s = Addrenal insufficiency
Conn’s= adrenal exCess

A

mnemonics
Addison’s = Addrenal insufficiency
Conn’s= adrenal exCess

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20
Q

[female gonadal hormones]
most frequently used synthetic estrogen in OCPs
SE: hypertension, DVT/PE, endometrial CA,
contraindicated in women (age >35) who are heavy smokers

A

ethinyl estradiol

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21
Q

[female gonadal hormones]

SE: clear cell vaginal adenoCA in daughter

A

diethystilbesterol

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22
Q

[female gonadal hormones]

prevents estrogen-induced endometrial CA

A

norgestrel

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23
Q

[female gonadal hormones]

OCP of choice in lactating women

A

DMPA

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24
Q

[female gonadal hormones]
hormone-responsive breast CA
SE: endometrial CA

A

tamoxifen

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25
Q

[female gonadal hormones]
ovulation induction
SE: multiple pregnancies

A

clomiphene

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26
Q

[female gonadal hormones]

treatment of endometriosis

A

danazol

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27
Q

[female gonadal hormones]

medical abortion

A

“3 Ms”
mifepristone
methotrexate
misoprostol

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28
Q

[male gonadal hormones]
treatment of male hypogonadism
SE: virilization, paradoxical feminization

A

testosterone

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29
Q

[male gonadal hormones]

anabolic steroids, illegal performance enhancers

A

oxandrolone

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30
Q

[male gonadal hormones]

treatment of prostate cancer

A

flutamide

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31
Q

[male gonadal hormones]

treatment of prostate cancer, coadministered to prevent acute flare-ups of tumor

A

flutamide + leuprolide

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32
Q

[male gonadal hormones]

5-alpha reductase inhibitor, treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness

A

finasteride

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33
Q

mnemonic:
FinAsteRIde
Five Alpha Reductase Inhibitor

A

FinAsteRIde

Five Alpha Reductase Inhibitor

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34
Q

mnemonic:

Clone Me Phlease = Clomiphene

A

mnemonic:

Clone Me Phlease = Clomiphene

35
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
most efficacious antidiabetic drug, activates tyrosine kinase
SE: hypoglycemia, lipodystrophy

A

insulin

36
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
1st generation SU
SE: hypoglycemia, weight gain, disulfiram reaction

A

chlorpropamide

37
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
2nd generation SU
SE: hypoglycemia, weight gain, disulfiram reaction

A

glipizide

38
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
newer insulin secretagogue
NO hypoglycemia

A

repaglinide

39
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
first line antidiabetic drug, decreases gluconeogenesis
SE: lactic acidosis, weight loss (DOC for obese diabetics), GI upset

A

metformin

40
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
TZD, acts on PPAR-gamma, insulin senitizer
SE: CHF

A

pioglitazone

41
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
SE: flatulence

A

acarbose, miglitol

42
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
DPP4 inhibitor
SE: pancreatitis

A

sitagliptin

43
Q

[antidiabetic agents]
GLP-1 analogue
SE: weight loss

A

exenatide

44
Q

[insulin type]

rapid acting

A

lispro, aspart, gluiisine

3-4 hrs

45
Q

[insulin type]

short acting

A

regular

5-7 hrs

46
Q

[insulin type]

intermediate acting

A

NPH, lente

18-24 hrs

47
Q

[insulin type]

long acting

A

ultralente

18-28 hrs

48
Q

[insulin type]

ultra long acting

A

glargine
detemir
lantus
>24 hrs

49
Q

mnemonic:
LISpro= mabiLIS
gLARGgine = Go Large!
LANTus = LANTa na sa sobrang tagal

A

mnemonic:
LISpro= mabiLIS
gLARGgine = Go Large!
LANTus = LANTa na sa sobrang tagal

50
Q

why is there paradoxical improvement of diabetes in patients with end-stage renal disease?

A

insulin has prolonged half-life due to decreased clearance

51
Q

which patients are more prone to developing hypoglycemia with insulin use?

A

prone to hypoglycemia:
advanced renal disease
elderly
children younger than 7 years

52
Q

[drugs for bone metabolism]

inactive vitamin D, treatment of rickets and osteomalacia

A

ergocalciferol

53
Q

[drugs for bone metabolism]

active vitamin D, treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

calcitriol

54
Q

[drugs for bone metabolism]

treatment of Paget disease of bone, hypercalcemia, tumor marker for medullary thyroid CA

A

calcitonin

55
Q

[drugs for bone metabolism]
suppresses osteoclast activity, treatment of Paget disease of bone and osteoporosis
SE: esophagitis

A

alendronate (bisphosphonates)

56
Q

[drugs for bone metabolism]

phosphate-binding resin

A

sevelamer

57
Q

Calcium content of Ca carbonate

A

40%

58
Q

Calcium content of tricalcium phosphate

A

39%

59
Q

Calcium content of Ca chloride

A

27%

60
Q

Calcium content of Ca acetate

A

25%

61
Q

Calcium content of Ca citrate

A

21%

62
Q

Calcium content of Ca lactate

A

13%

63
Q

Calcium content of Ca gluconate

A

9%

64
Q

Calcium content of Ca gluceptate

A

8%

65
Q

Calcium content of Ca glubionate

A

6.5%

66
Q

describe the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A 
osteBlast = builds bone
osteoCLast = CLeaves / resorbs bone
67
Q

function of PTH

A

ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)
phosphate
thrashing
hormone

68
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of excess PTH?

A 
HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
painful bones
renal stones
abdominal groans
psychiatric overtones
69
Q

what is the function of calcitonin?

A

CalciTONin = TONes down Calcium

reduces blood Ca, decreases bones resorption

70
Q

Myxedema Coma Treatment

A

IV loading dose of Levothyroxine (300-400 mcg), followed by 50-100 mcg daily

IV Hydrocortisone is indicated if the patjent has associated adrenal or pituitary insufficiency

71
Q

Anti thyroid drugs inhibiting peripheral conversion of T4 into T3

A

Hydrocortisone
PTU
Propranolol

72
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced hyperthyroidism

A

Clofibrate
Amiodarone
Methadone

73
Q

Iodine ingestion cause hypothyroidism

A

Wolf-Chaikoff Effect

74
Q

Iodine ingestion cause hyperthyroidism

A

Jod-Basedow Phenomenon

75
Q

Thyroid Storm treatment

A
  1. PTU -blocks thyroid hormone synthesis
  2. Iodide (KISS) - retards release of thyroid hormone
  3. Propranolol - controls CVS manifestations
  4. Hydrocortisone - protects against shock and blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
76
Q

MOA: inhibits desmolase, blocking conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone; reduces synthesis of all hormonally active steroids
Uses: breast cancer; Cushing syndrome
Abused by body builders to lower circulating levels of cortisol in the body and prevent muscle loss

A

Aminoglutethimide

77
Q

DOC for pregnant patient with Cushing syndrome
MOA: selective inhibitor of steroid 11-hydroxylation, interfering with cortisol and corticosterone synthesis
Uses: diagnostic testing for adrenal function; Cushing syndrome

A

Metyrapone

78
Q

MOA: reduces estrogen synthesis by inhibiting aromatase
Uses: breast cancer, precocious puberty
Effective against breast cancers that have become resistant to Tamoxifen

A

Anastrozole, Letrozole

Exemestane (an irreversible inhibitor)

79
Q

A synthetic steroid with weak estrogenic, proestrogenic and androgenic activity, and hence is an agonist of the estrogen, progesterone and androgen receptor. It is primarily used in menopausal hormone therapy, postmenopausal osteoporosis and endometriosis

A

Tibolone

80
Q

MOA: COC, activates estrogen and progesterone receptors, inhibits ovulation, effects on cervical mucus gland, uterine tubes and endometrium lead to decreased affinity, inhibit ovulation when given before LH surge
Uses: contraception, hypogonadism, acne, hirsutism, dysmenorrhea, endometriosis

A

Estradiol + Norethindrone (ethinyl estradiol + desorgestrel / Norgestrel/ Drospirenone/ Norgestimate/ Noresthisterone)

81
Q

MOA: activates progesterone receptors; prevents contraception by altering cervical mucus and creating a hostile endometrium
Uses: contraception, HRT

A

Medroxyprogesterone Acetate

IM depot preparation: Depoprovera

82
Q

MOA: activates estrogen and/or progesterone receptors; thicken cervical mucus; inhibits ovulation
Uses: emergency contraception
Must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse

A

Levonorgestrel

Ethinyl Estradiol + Levonorgestrel

83
Q

For salt retaining effect in patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia, the drug of choice is

A

Fludrocortisone

84
Q

Used to stimulate spermatogenesis in males with isolated gonadotropin deficiency

A

Menotropin

Pharma Review (15 decks)

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