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Aisha > Dunedin-Oncology > Flashcards

Dunedin-Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe some oncogenes

A
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2
Q

Describe some tumour suppressor genes

A
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3
Q

What is micro satellite instability (MSI)?

A

genetic hypermutability that occurs with impaired mismatch repair (MMR)

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4
Q

What does MSH2 and MLH1 bind to?

A

4 main proteins but 2 main complexes

MSH2 —> attach to MSH6
MLH1 attach to PMS2

MSH6 and PMS2 do not have alternatie binding partners, so id you lose MLH1 and MSH2 then you loose both

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5
Q

What is the inheritance mode of Lynch syndrome?

A

autosomal dominant

mutations in one of the 5 key MMR genes: MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2, EPCAM

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6
Q

What is the action of CTLA4?

What is the action of PDI?

A

CTLA4: Dampens the amplitude of the immune response

PD1: down regulates the activity of T cells (tumour)

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7
Q

What are the mechanisms of metastatic spread?

A
  • Haematogenous spread
  • Lymphatic spread
  • Transcoelomic spread- direct seeding of peritoneal/pleural cavity
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8
Q

What are some blood tests used for staging of cancer?

A
  • LDH – melanoma
  • hCG – gestational trophoblastic tumours
  • LDH, hCG, AFP - testis
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9
Q

What is the therapeutic targeting for cancer?

A
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10
Q

Describe the cell cycle

A

G1- cellular contents duplicated
S- chromosomes duplicated
G2- double check of chromosomes
Mitosis
cytokinesis

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11
Q

Describe the S-Phase of cell cycle

A

DNA unraveling from histones (HDAC inhibitors)

Helicase splits DNA double strand

Topoisomerase “release tension” of unwinding helix (topoisomerase poisons)

DNA polyemerase assist matching of base pairs (Purine and pyrimidine analogues)

Ligase joins short fragments and completes replication

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12
Q

Describe Mitosis

A
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13
Q

Classes of chemotherapies?

A

Alkylating agents - mustards, platinums

Anti-metabolites- anti-folates, purine analogues, pyrimidine analogues

Alkaloids and topoisomerase poisons

Hormones

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14
Q

What are the types of Alkylating agents?

A

Mustard and derivatives
Cyclosporin / Cyclophosphamide
* Chlorambucil
* Dacarbazine
* Temozolomide
* Lomustine
* Streptozotocin

Platinum agents
* Cisplatin
* Carboplatin
* Oxaliplatin

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15
Q

What is the MOA of alkylating agents

A

Work at any point in the cell cycle

Mustard: Addition of ethyl or methyl groups to various positions on DNA bases e.g. cyclophosphamide

Platinum: cause cross linking of DNA preventing helicase separating double strand, preventing replication

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16
Q

What is the MOA of anti-metabolites

A

Act only in S phase

Work by interfering with T G C A (U) synthesis
Interfere with DNA and RNA production

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17
Q

What are the types of anti-metabolites?

A

anti-folates: methotrexate

Purine antagonist: Fludarabine, azathioprine, 6-TG

pyrimidine antagonis: fluropyrimidines, gemcitabine

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18
Q

What are examples of alkaloids? and its MOA

A

Vinca alkaloids- vincristine, vinblastine, binorelbine
Stop microtubule formation

Taxanes- paxlitaxel, docetacel
stops microtubule disassembly

Topoisomerase inhibitor: s-phase specific

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19
Q

What is the MOA of anthracyclines

A

Non-cell cycle specific
interfere with toposomerase 2
induce histone vision from chromatin

Eg doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin

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20
Q

Describe some oestrogen signalling axis and inhibitors

A

LHRH analogues- lucrin, zoladex

Tamoxifen - SERM

Aromatase inhibitors: anastrozole, letrozole

Steroidal aromatase inhibitors - exemestane

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21
Q

Describe some androgen signalling axis and inhibitors

A

LHRH analogies - lucre, zoladex

peripheral androgen blockage (bicalutamide, flutamide)

Adrenal androgen synthesis (abiraterone)

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22
Q

What are main S/E of chemotherapy?

A
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23
Q

What pathways are involved in angiogenesis?

A

VEGF, FGFR, PDGFR

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24
Q

What pathways are involved in epidermal growth factor receptor pathway?

A

HER2(EGFR2)
* PI3-AKT-mTOR signaling pathway
* RAS-RAF-MEK-ERT signaling pathway

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25
Q

Nomenclature of monoclonal antibodies

A
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26
Q

What are common side-effects of EGFR pathway?

A

dermatological toxicity

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27
Q

What are common side effects of VEGF pathway?

A

hypertension, impaired wound healing, GI perforation (monoclonal antibodies – also proteinuria)

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28
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Colorectal cancer

A

2nd/3rd most common cancer
2nd most common cause of cancer death

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29
Q

Describe risk factors for colorectal cancer

A

Risks:
* Personal/Family history
* Ulcerative colitis
* Hyperinsulinism: RR 1.30
* Alcohol:>2pints/d,4glasseswine/d:RR1.41
* Obesity: RR 1.5 if BMI > 25
* Vitamin B6 inversely related to colon cancer
risk: RR 0.51
* Unclear whether supplementation or diet important
* Exercise: RR 0.33-0.60
* Diet – Western Diet
* Red meat > 300g / week -harmful
calcium protective

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30
Q

What are the 3 main molecular subtypes of colorectal cancer?

A

CIN (APC pathway, classical): Chromosome instability

MSI-H (Lynch/HNPCC or BRAF): Microsatellite instability

CIMP: CpG island methylator phenotype

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31
Q

What is the genetic mode of HNPCC/Lynch syndrome?

A

autosomal dominant

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32
Q

What is the genetic mode of familial adenomatous polyposis

A

autosomal dominant

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33
Q

What is the most typical phenotype of HNPCC

A

right sided, <50, microsatellite instability

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34
Q

What is MUTYH- associated polyposis?

A

Phenotypically like FAP or attenuated FAP, but no APC mutn.
Homozygous MUTYH mutation. AR.
Estimated 1 in 100 carrier rate.

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35
Q

What is the age range for FOBT screening?

A

biennial, age 45-70

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36
Q

What microorganism is associated with bowel cancer?

A

Strep gallolyticus (AKA strep bovis)

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37
Q

Can CEA be falsely elected in smokers?

A

Yes

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38
Q

What polyp carries the highest likelihood of malignancy?

A

tubulovillous adenoma with low grade dysplasia

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39
Q

When do you use adjuvant chemo in colorectal cancer?

A
  • stage 3
  • high risk stage 2 - t4, obstruction, poor differentiation, extramural venous invasion, adjacent organ invasion, low LN yield
40
Q

What is the chemotherapy for colorectal cancer

A

5FU/Capecitabine –> diarrhoea, HFS, coronary vasospasm
oxaliplatin –> cold-induced neuropathy, peripheral neuropathy
irinotecan –> diarrhoea, enter-hepatic recirculation of the active metabolite

41
Q

What deficiency makes 5FU/Capecitabine dangerous?

A

Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD)deficiency =
severe tox

42
Q

Can you give EGFR inhibitors in KRAS Mutation?

A

No, as its downstream effects will continue.
avoid in BRAF but can consider

43
Q

What type of patients is cetuximab useful in?

A

LEFT SIDED CANCER
NO KRAS MUTATION

44
Q

When do you give immune therapy in colorectal cancer?

A

MSI-High, dMMR CRC

45
Q

What is the pathophysiology of gastrointestinal stromal tumour?

A

“mesenchymal” tumour (mesoderm
derived)
*Connective tissue/ smooth muscle related

46
Q

What are the genetics of gastrointestinal stromal tumour?

A

CD117/C-kit positive
(rare: C-kit negative / platelet derived growth factor receptor mutants)

47
Q

What do gastrointestinal stromal tumour cells look like?

A

spindle shaped cells

48
Q

What is the treatment of gastrointestinal stroll tumour?

A

Localised –> surgery
Advanced disease –> imatinib
if progress –> escalate doses (interesting in other cancers often have to change the drug), sunitinib, regorafenib, ripretinib

49
Q

What is the epidemiology of HCC?

A

3rd leading cancer death worldwide.
higher incidence in sub-Saharan Africa and east Asia

50
Q

How to diagnose HCC?

A

triple phase CT
hyper vascular liver lesion and AFP >400

51
Q

How do you see cirrhotics for HCC?

A

USS q6mo; +/- AFP

52
Q

What is the criteria for liver transplant?

A

MILAN CRITERIA: (single lesion ≤ 5cm or ≤ 3 lesions of ≤ 3 cm)

Expanded criteria (single lesion ≤ 6cm or ≤ 3 lesions of ≤ 5 cm)

53
Q

What are advised disease therapies for HCC?

A

sorafenib
Atezolizumab
Lenvatinib

54
Q

What is TACE?

A

Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) is a specific type of chemoembolization that blocks the hepatic artery to treat liver cancer

often bridge to liver transplant

55
Q

What is the chemotherapy regimen for oesophagogastric cancer?

A

FLOT

56
Q

Helicobacter pylori reduces the risk of what cancer?

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

57
Q

PRRT (peptide receptor radionuclide therapy) is a treatment for neuroendocrine cancer like pheochromocytoma. What receptor does the cancer need to express for this treatment to be effective/

A

somatostatin receptor

58
Q

What is the biological basis of prostate cancer?

A

Malignant epithelial malignancy derived from prostatic glandular epithelium

59
Q

What is the management for castrate-resistant prostate cancer?

A

docetaxel or cabazitacel

60
Q

What can you do for organ confined prostate cancer?

A

radical prostatectomy comparable to radical radiotherapy

61
Q

Can you give docetaxel to castrate sensitive?

A

Yes, proven to help

62
Q

What is a MOA Of abiraterone? S/E

A

androgen biosynthesis inhibitor
Inhibits CYP17 enzyme complex required for androgen biosynthesis and is expressed in the testes, adrenal glands, and prostate tumour tissue

S/E- HTN, hypokalaemia, fluid retention. GIVE WITH STEROIDS!

63
Q

List androgen receptor inhibitors

A

enzalutamide
apalutamide
daroluamide

64
Q

What can you use in BRCA mutated prostate cancer?

A

PARP inhibitors eg olaparib

65
Q

What radiotherapy can you use for prostate cancer?

A

Radium -223, an alpha emitter good for bone mets
can cause fractures MUST give bisphosphonate with it

66
Q

What are side effects of ADT?

A
  • Osteoporosis
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Weight gain
  • BMD
  • Mood
  • Insulin resistance
  • CVS morbidity / mortality
67
Q

Describe the BRAF mutation in melanoma

A

35-45% have a BRAF Mutation
70% 600E, 20% 600K

68
Q

What are side effects of V600E inhibitors?

A

photosensitivity, diarrhoea, KA, SCC

69
Q

What is immunotherapy for melanoma?

A

ipilimumab (CTLA-4) + Nivolumab (PD-1)

70
Q

What is the management for immune related side effects?

A
  • Oral steroids Prednisone 1-2mg/kg
  • IV methylprednisolone
  • Azathioprine
  • Mycophenolate
  • Cyclosporin or tacrolimus
  • Infliximab (colitis)
  • Atgam – anti-thymocyte globulin (hepatitis)
  • Tocilizumab (anti IL-6)
71
Q

How to treat melanoma brain mets?

A

few brain mets –> stereotactic radiotherapy or surgery
>3 mets: BRAFi or combined ICI

72
Q

What genes create highest risk of breast cancer?

A

BRCA1
BRCA2
PALB2

73
Q

Is there a role for annual screening with pelvic ultrasound and CA125 in BRCA mutations?

A

NO

74
Q

How to do surveillance for BRCA1/2?

A

Breast
* MRI+/-US from age 25-30
* MRI+ MG age 40-60
* Mammogram alone from age 60

Ovary: no evidence of screening

Men with BRCA2: annual PSA from age 40

75
Q

What are some interventions for BRCA mutations?

A

Offer bilateral prophylactic mastectomy (best age <40 but individualised)

Risk reducing salpingo-oophorectomy (RRSO) once family complete or > 35-40 (BRCA1),
> 40-45 (BRCA2)

76
Q

What are some side effects in PARP inhibitors?

A

Nausea
Diarrhoea
Fatigue
Abdo pain

77
Q

What is the current breast cancer screening progress?

A

50-74 for biennial mammogram but also free to those 40-49 and those over 74

78
Q

What are prognostic biomarkers for breast cancer

A

ER +ve > HER2+ve > triple negative

79
Q

Stratification of breast cancer risk

A
80
Q

Describe (neo) adjuvant treatments in early breast cancer

A
81
Q

What are CYP interactions with tamoxifen?

A

Blocking of CYP2D6 reduces active tamoxifen.

avoid concurrent fluoxetine or paroxetine

82
Q

What are examples of aromatase inhibitors

A

letrozole, anastrozole, exemestane

S/E- menopausal symptoms, arthralgia, accelerated osteoporosis

83
Q

Describe the adjuvant endocrine treatments for breast cancer

A
84
Q

What cell cycle does CDK4/6 act on?

A

G1

85
Q

What are the benefits of using CDK4/6 in high risk breast cancer?

A

Adding adjuvant abemaciclib reduces relapse at 5 years by around 8%

86
Q

What is a side effect of ribociclib?

A

prolongs QTc

87
Q

How trastuzumab deruxtecan work regarding Her 2?

A

works well even in Her2

88
Q

Can people with breast cancer have a baby?

A

Yes, should stop endocrine therapy and have a 3 month wash out

89
Q

Describe the antibody-drug conjugates in breast cancer

A
90
Q

What are side effects of antibody drug conjugates in breast cancer?

A
91
Q

Describe the emetigenicity of drugs

A
92
Q

What is the chemotherapy options for testicular cancer?

A

stage 1: seminoma (carboplatin), non-seminoma (1xBEP)

Advanced stage- BEP (bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin)

93
Q

Describe the treatment of lung cancer

A
94
Q

Describe some toxicities with targeted therapies of lung cancer- alectinib, entrecetinib, lorlatinib, tepotinib

A
  • Alectinib (ALK): Bradycardia, cardiomyopathy, Pneumonitis
  • Entrectinib (ROS1): Prolonged QT, neuropathy
  • Lorlatinib (ALK)
    Hyperlipidemia, neurotoxicity incl confusion
  • Tepotinib (MET)
    Pneumonitis
95
Q
A

Aisha (33 decks)

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