Don’t Know As Of June 27 Flashcards by Sara Gibbons

All of the following may be associated with hepatic cirrhosis, EXCEPT:
A. portal hypertension.
B. esophageal varices.
C. hepatic encephalopathy.
D. increased arterial and venous blood flow through the liver.
E. ascites.

D. increased arterial and venous blood flow through the liver.

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Cytokines that send regulatory signals between cells of the immune system are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. interferon
B. interleukins
C. monokines
D. tumor necrosis factors
E. immunoglobulins

B. interleukins

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\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ immunity is characterized by the formation of a population of lymphocytes that can attack and destroy the foreign material.
A. Acquired
B. Humoral
C. Cell-mediated
D. Hypersensitive
E. Innate

C. Cell-mediated

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\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ immunity is associated with the production of antibodies that can combine and eliminate the foreign material.
A. T-cell mediated
B. Humoral
C. Cell-mediated
D. Hypersensitive
E. Passive

B. Humoral

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\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ inhibit the multiplication of viruses that have infected a cell.
A) natural killer cells
B) tumor necrosis factor
C) interferons
D) B lymphocytes
E) T lymphocytes

C) interferons

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T/F: Pitting edema most frequently occurs in left heart failure.

False

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Which of the following is not a frequent complication of a myocardial infarction?
A. heart failure
B. arrhythmias
C. formation of mural thrombi
D. rupture of the heart
E. mitral valve prolapse

E. mitral valve prolapse

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Which of the following would be most likely to result in respiratory alkalosis?

a) kidney disease
b) hyperventilation
c) overuse of antacids
d) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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Which reaction is typical of the kind catalyzed by vitamin C?

a. transamination
b. methylation
c. hydroxylation
d. decarboxylation
e. carboxylation

hydroxylation

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One health claim for calcium states that levels above _____ are unlikely to provide additional benefit.

a. 1200 mg/d
b. 800 mg/d
c. 1000 mg/d
d. 2000 mg/d

d. 2000 mg/d

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The Vitamn C absorption increases with increased vitamin intake?

a. True
b. False

False

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Choose the food that is high in vitamin A palmitate

a. pumpkin
b. spinach
c. carrots
d. liver

d. liver

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The binding of iron by proteins defends the cells against

a. Iron deposition in kidneys and other organs
b. Oxidative damage from free radicals
c. Tissue hypoxia
d. Stellate cells

Oxidative damage from free radicals

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A food may be labeled “low sodium” if each serving provides:

a. 35 mg or less
b. 140 mg or less
c. less than 5 mg
d. 240 mg or less

b. 140 mg or less

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osteoblasts
Which cells are considered the bone-building cells?
a. osteopontins
b. osteonectins
c. osteoblasts
d. osteoclasts

c. osteoblasts

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Secretin is released from the enteroendocrine S-cell in the _____.

a. proximal small intestine
b. colon
c. esophagus
d. gastric mucosa

a. proximal small intestine

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Large amounts of folic acid can mask a vitamin B12 deficiency and prevent _____ from resulting. Over time the symptoms unique to a vitamin B12

a. DNA and RNA synthesis, vascular system
b. macrocytic anemia, nervous system
c. microcytic anemia, muscular system
d. one-carbon transfer, nervous system

macrocytic anemia, nervous system

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Which of the following best describes hemosiderin?

a. Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs
b. Responsible for iron transport in serum
c. Facilitates oxygen transport in muscle
d. Primary storage form of iron
e. Responsible for iron transport within the intestinal cell

Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs

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How long does it take for most of the carbohydrate, protein, and fat to be absorbed from chyme after it enters the small intestine?

a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 hours

a. 30 minutes

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Which are responsible for regulation of extracellular water osmolarity and volume?

a. liver and pancreas
b. pancreas and kidney
c. hypothalamus and kidney
d. spleen and bone marrow

c. hypothalamus and kidney

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Which is NOT a component of saliva?

a. enzymes
b. mucus
c. water
d. proteases

d. proteases

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Carotenoids like Lutein and Zeaxanthin are found in the macula and can induce oxidation of cell membranes and can exacerbate UV-induced eye damage?

a. True
b. False

False

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Elevations in lactate can indicate disruption of carbohydrate metabolism and the body’s need to regenerate the vitamin _____________ to keep the glycolytic pathway functional

) NADH
) NADPH
) FADH
) NAD

4.) NAD

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List the large neutral AA:

) Trp, Tyr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Val
) Trp, Thr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Met
) Trp, Thr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Val
) Trp, Tyr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Met

4.) Trp, Tyr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Met

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Phenylalanine Hydroxylase (PAH) requires what nutrients for conversion of Phe -> Tyr? 1) Copper, B2, BH4 2. ) Copper, B3, BH4 3. ) Iron, B2, BH4 4. ) Iron, B3, BH4

4.) Iron, B3, BH4

Elevations in Cortisol have been implicated in insulin resistance. Which of the following is NOT an action of high cortisol levels? 1. ) Increased FA synthesis 2. ) Increased gluconeogenesis 3. ) Upregulation of GLUT4 receptors 4. ) Increased glycogenolysis

3.) Upregulation of GLUT4 receptors

The pathway Arg -> Orn + a-KG -> -> Pro for the creation of collagen via the enzymes arginase, ornithine aminotransferase and pyrroline-5-carbosylate reductase require what nutrients for proper activity? 1. ) Mn++, B5, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++ 2. ) Mn++, P5P, B5, B3, Mg++ 3. ) Zn++, B5, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++ 4. ) Mn++, P5P, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++

4.) Mn++, P5P, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++

Alcohol can deplete numerous nutrients. Match the nutrient depletion and the type of symptom/problem that can occur when that nutrient is depleted. 1. ) Depletion of vitamins B1 and B6 causes 2. ) Depletion of vitamins B6 and B9 causes 3. ) Depletion of vitamin B1 causes 4. ) Depletion of vitamin D causes

1. ) neurological symptoms 2. ) hematological symptoms 3. ) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome 4. ) osteoporosis

The enzyme CPOX (coproporphyrinogen oxidase) converts coproporphyrinogen III to protoporphyrinogen IX and is blocked by the heavy metals. 1. ) Lead and Mercury 2. ) Mercury and Arsenic 3. ) Arsenic and Cadmium 4. ) Lead and Cadmium

1.) Lead and Mercury

Methylation typically works on endogenous constituents, with O-methyl metabolites have ___(a)____ activity than the original molecule. The active methyl group used in methylation reactions is ____(b)____. 1. ) (a) greater, (b) SAMe 2. ) (a) lesser, (b) SAMe 3. ) (a) greater, (b) 5MHTF 4. ) (a) lesser, (b) 5MTHF

1.) (a) greater, (b) SAMe

Lysine does NOT undergo the initial transamination requiring B6 but downstream conversion of alpha-aminoadipic acid (a-AAA) to alpha-ketoadipate does require B6. What nutrient is required for the initial conversion of Lys -> Saccharopine? 1. ) B2 2. ) B12 3. ) B5 4. ) B3

4.) B3

Alpha-amino-N-butyric acid (AANB) may be elevated in alcoholism. What nutrient may be deficient when AANB is elevated? 1. ) B2 2. ) B6 3. ) Iron 4. ) B3

2.) B6

What nutrients are required for the creation of connective tissue components Hydroxyproline (HPro) and Hydroxylysine (HLys)? 1. ) Vitamin A, Iron 2. ) Vitamin A, Copper 3. ) Vitamin C, Copper 4. ) Vitamin C, Iron

4.) Vitamin C, Iron

T/F: ADMA (asymmetric dimethylarginine) activates nitric oxide synthesis and angiogenesis.

A: False

Match the appropriate detox function with the specific nutrient: 1. ) toxic metal binding & antioxidant protection 2. ) hepatic conjugation substrates 3. ) glutathione regeneration 4. ) methyl donors 5. ) lead protection 6. ) stimulate Phase I and Phase II detox ``` vitamin C Calcium glycine, sulfate Cruciferous Met, SAMe NAC, Se, Mn, Cu, Zn ```

1. ) vitamin C 2. ) glycine, sulfate 3. ) NAC, Se, Mn, Cu, Zn 4. ) Met, SAMe 5. ) Calcium 6. ) Cruciferous

High levels of suberate, adipate and ethylmalonate can be reduced with vitamin ________, which is utilized by the flavoprotein enzyme Fatty Aycl-CoA Dehydrogenase.

A: B2

Precoproporphyrin may elevate when __________ blocks the last step of UROD, leading to the accumulation of pentacarboxyporphyrinogen, which gets converted by CPOX to precoproporphyrin. 1. ) Mercury 2. ) Lead 3. ) Arsenic 4. ) Cadmium

1.) Mercury

Deficiency of the mineral, ___________, can lead to decreased incorporation of cystine into protein, allowing sulfate to spill into the urine. 1. ) Zinc 2. ) Copper 3. ) Selenium 4. ) Iron

1.) Zinc

Elevation of the kynurenin pathway constituent 3-hydroxykynurenin leads to its side conversion into xanthurenate, which spills into the urine and can indicate insufficiency of vitamin ___________. 1. ) B6 2. ) B5 3. ) B3 4. ) B2

1.) B6

Alanine aminotransferase converts alpha-ketoglutarate into glutamate and alanine into: 1. ) Pyruvate 2. ) Aspartate 3. ) Oxaloacetate 4. ) Glutamate

1.) Pyruvate

The Bohr effect explains that a decrease in the amount of oxygen associated with hemoglobin (Hb) due to a reduced affinity of oxygen for Hb is the result of: 1. ) Increased pC02 and increased pH 2. ) Increased pCO2 and decreased pH 3. ) Decreased pC02 and decreased pH 4. ) Decreased pC02 and increased pH

2.) Increased pCO2 and decreased pH

There are two major types of sulfotransferases. One type is membrane-bound in the golgi apparatus and sulfates GAGs and glycoproteins, while the other is located in the __________ and conjugates steroids, catecholamines, T4, bile acids, and xenobiotics. 1. ) cytosol 2. ) nucleus 3. ) smooth ER 4. ) mitochondria

1.) cytosol

Histidine is converted to histamine via histadine decarboxylase. What cofactor is required for this reaction? 1. ) Flavoprotein 2. ) Nicotinamide 3. ) Pantothenic acid 4. ) Pyridoxal-5-phosphate

4.) Pyridoxal-5-phosphate

NH3 is ___(a)___ and acts to help buffer __(b)__ environments. 1. ) (a) mildly basic, (b) acidic 2. ) (a) mildly basic, (b) basic 3. ) (a) mildly acidic, (b) basic 4. ) (a) mildly adicic, (b) acidic

1.) (a) mildly basic, (b) acidic

BCAA are converted to alpha-ketoacids via BCAA transaminase. This enzyme requires the cofactor: 1. ) B3 2. ) B6 3. ) B5 4. ) B2

2.) B6

Both Methionine Synthase (MS) and Betaine Homocysteine Methyltransferase (BHMT) can convert homocysteine to methionine with the assistance of what mineral? 1. ) Zn++ 2. ) Fe++ 3. ) Cu++ 4. ) Mg++

1.) Zn++

Asparagine (from asparagus) can be converted into aspartate. Aspartate is in a unique position to enter the TCA cycle through its conversion into the TCA cycle intermediate, __________________, via the enzyme AST (SGOT) and cofactor vitamin B6. 1. ) Citrate 2. ) Oxaloacetate 3. ) Pyruvate 4. ) Malate

2.) Oxaloacetate

High ammonia levels from urea cycle dysfunction can lead to the accumulation of _ (a) . Treatment with (b) , may help the urea cycle function better and decrease urinary (a) levels. 1. ) (a) Orotate, (b) Arginine, Mg++ 2. ) (a) Pyroglutamate, (b) NAC 3. ) (a) Glucarate, (b) Arginine, Mn++ 4. ) (a) Sulfate, (b) NAC

1.) (a) Orotate, (b) Arginine, Mg++

What are the four conditionally essential amino acids? 1. ) Arg, Gln, Gly, Ser 2. ) Arg, Glu, Gly, Tau 3. ) Arg, Glu, Gly, Ser 4. ) Arg, Gln, Gly, Tau

4.) Arg, Gln, Gly, Tau

An expected MCV for pernicious anemia would be A. Below normal. B. Normal. C. Above normal.

C. Above normal.

``` What is the most likely explanation for a low level of tryptophan in a blood specimen? A. Toxicity from chemicals. B. Inadequate stomach acid. C. Steroid use. D. Vitamin B6 deficiency. ```

B. Inadequate stomach acid.

``` The best assessment of glomerular filtration rate is A) urine pH B) examination of urinary sediment C) serum creatinine D) urine nitrites ```

C) serum creatinine

Cirrhosis of the liver can cause an increased APTT because A. Cirrhosis causes an increased production of heparin. B. Cirrhosis causes decreased absorption of vitamin K. C. Cirrhosis causes decreased platelet production. D. Cirrhosis causes decreased production of coagulation factors.

D. Cirrhosis causes decreased production of coagulation factors.

A well-known biological marker for verifying reported protein intake is A. Analysis of nitrogen in hair B. Analysis of sulfur in a 24-hour urine specimen. C. Analysis of nitrogen in a 24-hour urine specimen. D. Analysis of sulfur in hair.

C. Analysis of nitrogen in a 24-hour urine specimen.

Anemia is a symptom of ________ poisoning. A. Mercury. B. Lead. C. Cadmium.

B. Lead.

``` When Phase I and Phase II liver detoxification pathways are actively working to rid the body of toxins, the most likely observation would be A. High urinary orotate. B. Low urinary orotate. C. High urinary glucarate. D. Low urinary glucarate. ```

high urinary glucarate

``` Protein _____ calcium reabsorption and phosphorus _____ calcium reabsorption. A. Decreases, decreases B. Decreases, increases C. Increases, increases D. Increases, decreases ```

B. Decreases, increases

Cold pressed oils are generally thought to be non-addictive foods according to Dr. Ifland. A. True B. False

False

``` Your vegetarian client comes to you for help with what food to eat for her fatigue. What nutrient deficiencies do you suspect? (select all that apply) A. Zinc B. Magnesium C. Vitamin B12 D. Iron ```

A. Zinc C. Vitamin B12 D. Iron

``` Walter Willet suggests: A. That every adult female should be on calcium supplementation B. Taking a multi vitamin for insurance C. Avoiding grains D. Avoiding legumes ```

B. Taking a multi vitamin for insurance

``` According to Leon Rappoport in his book, How we Eat, what is specifically the first and second criteria for people when choosing food? A. Peer pressure and pleasure B. Behavior and pleasure C. Health and culture D. Pleasure then health ```

D. Pleasure then health

``` It is recommended that women with gestational diabetes aim for a range of _______ % fat calories during pregnancy A. 10-20% B. 20-30% C. 30-40% D. 40-50% E 60% ```

30-40%

``` Which of the following nutrient intakes is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis? A. inadequate calcium intake B. heavy alcohol consumption C. low body weight D. increased iron intake ```

D. increased iron intake

``` What is the daily intake of alliin associated with successful lipid-lowering in most clinical studies using garlic powder? A) About 3-6 mg B) Over 20 mg C) About 6-10 mg D) About 10-20 mg ```

C) About 6-10 mg

What is the proposed active constituent or licensed standardized extract? Feverfew

Parthenolide

Match the botanical term with the mechanism of action associated with it in the treatment of digestive tract dysfunction: 1. ) Bitter 2. ) Cholegogue 3. ) Carminative Choices: A.) Relieve bloating and fullness by facilitating gas expulsion B.) Stimulate gastric secretions C.) Promote bile production and emptying of the gallbladder

1. ) Stimulate gastric secretions 2. ) Promote bile production and emptying of the gallbladder 3. ) Relieve bloating and fullness by facilitating gas expulsion

What is the specific part used for pain in? | Feverfew

Leaf

All of the following mechanisms, except one, have been identified for nettle extracts. Which one is NOT a mechanism for nettle extracts? A.) Inhibit prostatic aromatase B.) Anti-inflammatory effects C.) Reduce blood prolactin levels D.) Inhibition of 5-alpha reductase enzyme

C.) Reduce blood prolactin levels

Match the botanical medicine with the health condition for which it has promising or good evidence as a therapeutic intervention: 1. ) Bromelain 2. ) Aloe vera 3. ) Tea tree oil 4. ) Witch hazel 5. ) Evening primrose oil ``` Choices: A.) Hemorrhoidal disease B.) Psoriasis and genital herpes C.) Post-operative or post-traumatic swelling, especially of the nose and paranasal sinuses D.) Atopic eczema E.) Cutaneous fungal infections ```

1. ) Post-operative or post-traumatic swelling, especially of the nose and paranasal sinuses 2. ) Psoriasis and genital herpes 3. ) Cutaneous fungal infections 4. ) Hemorrhoidal disease 5. ) Atopic eczema

How does hawthorne extract differ pharmacologically from cardiac glycosides such as digitalis? A.) Hawthorne is negatively inotropic yet proarrhythmic B.) Hawthorne is negatively inotropic yet antiarrhythmic C.) Hawthorne is positively inotropic yet antiarrhythmic D.) Hawthorne is positively inotropic yet proarrhythmic

C.) Hawthorne is positively inotropic yet antiarrhythmic

Which two preparations of Echinacea were approved by German Commission E? A.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. pallida B.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. purpurea C.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. purpurea D.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. pallida

Noo

All of the following mechanisms, except one, have been demonstrated for saw palmetto extracts. Which one has NOT been demonstrated for saw palmetto extracts? A.) Anti-inflammatory effects B.) Inhibition of 5-alpha reductase enzyme C.) Reduce blood prolactin levels D.) Inhibit prostatic aromatase

D.) Inhibit prostatic aromatase

What is the proposed active constituent or licensed standardized extract? Willow bark

Salacin

Match the substances with their mechanism of action: 1. ) Saccharomyces boulardii 2. ) Psyllium husk 3. ) Sorbitol 4. ) Senna pods and leaves 5. ) Buckthorn bark 6. ) Aloe latex Choices: A.) Osmotic laxative B.) Bulk-forming laxative C.) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa D.) Antagonize pathogens and stimulate enteric immune system

1. ) Antagonize pathogens and stimulate enteric immune system 2. ) Bulk-forming laxative 3. ) Osmotic laxative 4. ) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa 5. ) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa 6. ) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa

``` What part of the milk thistle plant is the typical source from which silymarin is extracted? A.) Above ground parts B.) Root C.) Seed D.) Leaf ```

C.) Seed

While human trials of patients with cirrhosis of the liver have found silymarin treatment provides supportive benefits, improved survival rates have never been demonstrated. A.) True B.) False

B.) False

Match the liquid dosage form with the appropriate description: 1. ) Common preparation using alcohol or alcohol+water to produce extracts of a wide variety of herbs and herb combinations 2. ) Especially useful for giving botanical medicines to children 3. ) Alcohol-free preparation that would be expected to contain only lipid-soluble components 4. ) A solution of a volatile substance in alcohol or alcohol+water 5. ) Made from fresh plant parts and contain water-soluble components ``` Choices: A) Plant juices B.) Syrups C.) Medicinal spirits D.) Tinctures E.) Medicinal oils ```

1. ) Tinctures 2. ) Syrups 3. ) Medicinal oils 4. ) Medicinal spirits 5. ) Plant juices

``` Which of the following is a urinary organic acid that becomes elevated as a result of Coenzyme Q10 deficiency? A.) Vanilmandelate B.) Succinate C.) Pyroglutamate D.) D-Lactate ```

B.) Succinate

``` What is the principal form of circulating fatty acids in the fasting state? A.) LDL B.) Chylomicrons C.) HDL D.) Free fatty acids ```

A.) LDL

``` Concurrent elevations of urinary L-lactate and pyruvatehave been shown to respond favorably to which vitamin supplementation? A.) Lipoic acid B.) Ascorbic acid C.) Pantothenic acid D.) Folic acid ```

A.) Lipoic acid

Which laboratory finding tells you that a patient has an increased risk of kidney stone recurrence? A.) Low urinary citrate B.) Low urinary zinc C.) Low urinary taurine D.) Low urinary 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

A.) Low urinary citrate

``` Which of the following is NOT a process that is dependent on the availability of arginine? A.) Porphyrin synthesis B.) Nitric oxide production C.) Urea production D.) Protein synthesis ```

A.) Porphyrin synthesis

``` Tyrosine is the precursor amino acid in the biosynthesis of which compound? A.) Dopamine B.) Serotonin C.) GABA D.) Melatonin ```

A.) Dopamine

Why is oral challenging with DMSA used prior to toxic element testing of urine? A.) To establish a baseline level before test specimen collection B.) To normalize for hemoglobin in urine C.) To demonstrate metallothionein loading status D.) To increase instrumental sensitivity for mass spectrometric assay

A.) Release of bound zinc from food complexes that are denatured by gastric acid Which phrase describes the first step in the assimilation of ingested dietary zinc? A.) Release of bound zinc from food complexes that are denatured by gastric acid B.) Binding of free zinc to metal ion transporters in enterocyte brush borders C.) Transfer of ionic zinc to zinc fingers D.) Metallothionein loading with zinc

A.) Release of bound zinc from food complexes that are denatured by gastric acid

``` Finding elevated urinary alpha-ketoisocaproate and alpha-ketoisovalerate is an indication of what essential nutrient deficiency? A.) Coenzyme Q10 B.) Vitamin B1 C.) Vitamin B6 D.) Vitamin D ```

B.) Vitamin B1

Among reports in the medical literature, which is the most commonly used specimen for arsenic exposure screening?A.) Urine B.) Serum C.) Whole blood D.) Hair

A.) Urine

Which laboratory abnormality would be the most ominous as a risk factor for a chronic pain patient who has a tendency to overdose her acetaminophen? A.) Low plasma methionine B.) Low serum vitamin D C.) Elevated urinary hydroxymethyglutarate D.) Elevated erythrocyte copper

A.) Low plasma methionine

``` Which vitamin sits near the center of the cellular redox potential spectrum? A.) Vitamin A B.) Pantothenic acid C.) Vitamin D D.) Vitamin C ```

D.) Vitamin C

``` Elevated levels of which of the following fatty acids indicates general PUFA deficiency? A.) Mead B.) Alpha linolenic acid C.) Stearic acid D.) Oleic acid ```

A.) Mead

``` When a patient is found to have high levels of LA and GLA, but a low level of DGLA on a plasma fatty acid profile, what specific nutrientintervention is suggested? p 292 A.) Zinc B.) Iron C.) Primrose oil D.) Fish oil ```

A.) Zinc

``` Accumulation of which compound tends to produce reductive stress? A.) BH4 B.) NADH C.) NAD D.) GSH ```

B.) NADH

``` Which of the following compounds is NOT a tricarboxylic acid? A.) Succinate B.) cis-Aconitate C.) Citrate D.) Isocitrate ```

A.) Succinate

If a patient is found to be homozygous for SNP that causes lowered activity of the enzyme required for conversion of dopamine to epinephrine, what laboratory report abnormality would show metabolic confirmation of the effect? A.) Low urinary vanilmandelic acid B.) High urinary vanilmandelic acid C.) High urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid D.) Low urinary pyroglutamic acid

A.) Low urinary vanilmandelic acid

``` Which of the following is a urinary organic acid that becomes elevated in a patient due to massive intestinal overgrowth of Lactobacillus acidophillus? A.) D-Lactate B.) D-Arabinitol C.) L-Lactate D.) D-Glucarate ```

A.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. pallida | C.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. purpurea

Vitamin B6 functions importantly in all of the following EXCEPT _____. a. synthesis of niacin b. synthesis of fatty acids c. transamination of amino acids d. glycogen breakdown Vitamin B6 functions importantly in all of the following EXCEPT _____. a. synthesis of niacin b. synthesis of fatty acids c. transamination of amino acids d. glycogen breakdown

Bile salts are synthesized from cholesterol in the _____. a. canaliculi b. common bile duct c. hepatocytes d. gallbladder

c. hepatocytes

Which hormone, stimulated by increased blood pressure stretching the heart, functions to inhibit sodium reabsorption to promote sodium excretion? a. angiotensin II b. atrial natriuretic peptide c. aldosterone d. vasopressin

atrial natriuretic peptide

The action of vitamin K is the post-translational synthesis of blood clotting factors occurs: a. in the liver b. in the small intestine c. in the bone marrow d. in the blood

a. in the liver

For which vitamin is the tolerable upper intake level set because of increased tendency for bleeding? a. A b. E c. K d. D

b. E

What is a symptom of a vitamin D toxicity? a. rickets b. hypocalcemia c. hypercalcemia d. osteoporosis

c. hypercalcemia

Which of the following peptides stimulates appetite? a. bombesin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin

d. ghrelin

Dietary intake of which mineral correlates positively with blood pressure? a. potassium b. magnesium c. calcium d. sodium

d. sodium

Water accounts for what percentage of the body weight in normal adult? a. 40% b. 20% c. 60% d. 80%

c. 60%

In the enzyme methionine synthase, vitamin B12 acts by accepting a _____ group from _____ and donating this group to _____ to form methionine. a. carbon, serine, glycine b. methyl, 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, homocysteine c. methyl, formiminoglutamic acid, succinyl-CoA d. carbon, methionine, folate

c. methyl, formiminoglutamic acid, succinyl-CoA

Which vitamin enhances copper transfer and reduction? a. biotin b. ß-carotene c. ascorbic acid d. niacin

c. ascorbic acid

The total bile acid pool in the human body is 2.5 to 5 g. What percentage of bile is reabsorbed in the ileum? a. 65% b. 90% c. 10% d. 30%

b. 90%

The following vitamins/ minerals are required for heme synthesis: a. folate, B12, and iron b. B6, zinc, and iron c. copper, zinc, and folate d. vitamin E, vitamin C, and iron

b. B6, zinc, and iron

Which ultratrace element, in pharmacological quantities, mimics the action of insulin? a. silicon b. boron c. vanadium d. nickel

c. vanadium

Which of the following is needed for the visual cycle? a. 11-cis retinal b. 9-cis retinoic acid c. cryptoxanthin d. lycopene

a. 11-cis retinal

Folate in foods can only be absorbed in the monoglutamate form; therefore, digestive enzymes called _____ are important for folate nutriture. a. lipases b. legumes c. hydrolases d. conjugases

conjugases

``` 10 fold Anaerobic bacteria populate the gut in _____ greater quantities than aerobic bacteria a. 2 fold b. 10 fold c. 100 fold d. 5 fold ```

10 fold

What cells found in oxyntic glands in the body of the stomach secrete pepsinogens? a. parietal cells b. chief cells c. enteroendocrine cells d. neck cells

b. chief cells

Because vitamin B6 is involved in heme synthesis, a deficiency symptom is a. seizures b. hypochromic, microcytic anemia c. hyperhomocysteinemia d. impaired calcium metabolism

c. hyperhomocysteinemia

What genetic disorder causes copper toxicity? a. Wilson's disease b. hemochromatosis c. Menkes disease d. Keshan disease

a. Wilson's disease

To absorb folate consumed from green, leafy vegetables, _____. a. glutamic acid molecules must be added b. glutamic acid molecules must be removed c. glutamate must be transaminated to form alpha-ketoglutarate d. phosphate groups must be removed by the action of alkaline phosphatase

glutamic acid molecules must be removed

Which ultratrace element was used as a preservative for meat, fish, and dairy products in the early 1900s, considered dangerous for humans in the 1920s, and then deemed essential starting in the 1980s? a. boron b. vanadium c. arsenic d. cobalt

boron

Two hormones that stimulate glycogenolysis in the muscle and liver, respectively, are _____. a. insulin and epinephrine b. cortisol and epinephrine c. epinephrine and glucagon d. glucagon and insulin

c. epinephrine and glucagon

Research has shown that supplements of which mineral are associated with significant reductions in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure, especially in individuals with hypertension? a. potassium b. sodium c. calcium d. magnesium

potassium

What percentage of blood volume is circulated through the kidney's a. 50% b. 75% c. 25% d. 100%

c. 25%

Which vitamin is said to be essential for reproductive processes and immune system function? a. D b. A c. K d. E

Which mineral is part of the green chlorophyll pigment in green leafy vegetables? a. potassium b. magnesium c. sulfur d. sodium

b. magnesium

Vitamin C's actual participation in biochemical reactions usually involves its antioxidant ability. Choose the description of this activity. a. Accepts an electron from the quinone form of vitamin E b. Accepts an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor c. Donates an electron or electrons to oxidize a mineral cofactor d. Donates an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor

Donates an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor

The primary physiological role of which mineral is as a constituent in the thyroid hormones? a. chromium b. fluorine c. selenium d. iodine

Iodine

d. iodine

Bile is most important for the digestion and absorption of _____. a. proteins b. vitamins c. fats d. carbohydrates

c. fats

Within the lamina propria, lying just below the epithelium, is the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which a. initiates peristalsis b. contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms c. controls secretions from the mucosal glands d. secretes mucus, hormones and digestive juices into the lumen

contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms.

Which of the following minerals is second only to calcium in abundance in the human body? a. Phosphorous b. Iron c. Magnesium d. Sodium e. Potassium

a. Phosphorous

Erythrocyte transketolase activity is an assay to assess the status of: a. thiamin b. riboflavin c. B6 d. B12

thiamin

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the _____. a. duodenum b. colon c. ileum d. jejunum

c. ileum

Formation of retinol from beta-carotene requires the presence of what B vitamin? a. ascorbic acid b. folic acid c. pyridoxal phosphate d. niacin

d. niacin

The major role of gastrin in the GI tract is that of _____. a. stimulation b. transport c. inhibition d. no effect

a. stimulation

Which of the following dietary components impedes copper absorption? a. phosphate b. ascorbate c. citrate d. gluconate

b. ascorbate

The RDA for vitamin C for adult men is _____ and the UL is _____. a. 200 mg, 2000 mg b. 75 mg, 500 mg c. 100 mg, 500 mg d. 90 mg, 2000 mg

d. 90 mg, 2000 mg

The parietal cells secrete _____. a. hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor b. zymogens and hydrochloric acid c. intrinsic factor and gastrin d. gastrin and zymogens

a. hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

If a patient is a smoker, exercises, and takes PUFA's, it would be a good idea for this individual to supplement with _____ to avoid lipid peroxidation? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E

d. Vitamin E

Which of the following is considered a major mineral in the body? a. iron b. selenium c. sodium d. iodine

c. sodium

The chief cells secrete _______. a. mucus b. zymogens c. hydrochloric acid d. gastrin

d. gastrin

Which symptom of a vitamin A deficiency is most likely responsible for deficiency-related deaths? a. severe infections b. functions as a teratogen c. keratinization of the cornea d. poor cellular differentiation and growth

a. severe infections

What percentage of the glomerular filtrate volume is excreted as urine each day? a. 50% b. 1% c. 25% d. 100%

b. 1%

RANKL is located on the osteoclast? a. True b. False

b. False

Due to a lack of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase, which tissue capable of glycogenesis cannot contribute to blood glucose levels between meals? a. brain b. kidney c. muscle d. liver

c. muscle

_____ is secreted in response to low plasma calcium concentrations and acts on the kidney to increase synthesis of _____, which promotes renal reabsorption of calcium. a. Calcitriol, calmodulin b. Parathyroid hormone, calcitriol c. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin d. Calcitonin, calcitriol

b. Parathyroid hormone, calcitriol

It's a good thing that milk is fortified with vitamin D so that we can consume the RDA if we drink the recommended number of glasses of milk each day. The DRI for 9-69 year olds is 600 IU (15 mg). This equals _____ cups of milk. a. four b. three c. two d. six

d. six

Iron content of the average Western diet is estimated to be about: a. 18 g /day b. 5 to 7 mg iron per 1,000 kcal c. 1 to 4 mg iron per 1,000 kcal d. 8 to 15 mg/day

b. 5 to 7 mg iron per 1,000 kcal

Albumin carries zinc and copper in the portal circulation to all tissues in the body. a. True b. False

b. False

Pepcid, a drug that is classified as a H2 receptor antagonist, acts by _____. a. inhibiting the binding of histamine to the parietal cells b. inhibiting the release of acetylcholine by the vagus nerve c. inhibiting the secretion of hydrogen ions by the parietal cells d. inhibiting the binding of gastrin to the parietal cells

a. inhibiting the binding of histamine to the parietal cells

All of the following are involved in satiety and suppression of food intake EXCEPT _____. a. corticotropin-releasing hormone b. cholecystokinin c. leptin d. neuropeptide Y

d. neuropeptide Y

Acid-base balance refers to: a. the control of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids b. the concentration of the bicarbonate ion in the red blood cells c. homeostasis d. the ratio of acidic and basic foods consumed each day

a. the control of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids

During which period of the life cycle does peak bone mass occur? a. 50 years and above b. 0-10 years c. 10-25 years d. 30-40 years

d. 30-40 years

Zinc is important for taste perception as a component of _____. a. Gustin b. Alcohol Dehydrogenase c. Carbonic Anhydrase d. Thionein

a. Gustin

Which of the following reflects long-term folate status? a. serum folate b. serum methylmalonic acid c. homocysteine concentration in blood d. red blood cell folate

d. red blood cell folate

The hormone whose major action is to alkalize intestinal contents by stimulating secretion of bicarbonate from the pancreas and by inhibiting gastric acid secretion and gastric emptying is _____. a. cholecystokinin b. secretin c. gastrin d. GRP

b. secretin

Methionine is used to synthesize S-adenosylmethionine (SAM). Why is this important? a. so that methyl groups are available b. so that 5-methyl THF is formed c. so that fatty acids with an odd-numbered chain can be metabolized d. so that dUMP is catalyzed to dTMP

Which mineral is known to influence nickel absorption? a. chloride b. iron c. sodium d. iodine

b. iron

Which of the mechanisms responsible for absorption of nutrients into the epithelial cell of the villus requires energy? a. diffusion b. facilitated diffusion c. glucagon d. active transport

d. active transport

The addition to the diet of which food will alleviate the problem of endemic goiter? a. broccoli b. cassava c. cabbage d. iodized salt

d. iodized salt

Of the 3 short-chain fatty acids created by gut bacteria, which one is the preferred energy source for colonic epithelial cells? a. acetic acid b. propionic acid c. butyric acid d. oleic acid

butyric acid

The volume of a normal stomach ranges from 50 mL (~2 oz) when empty to _____ when full. a. 1.5 L (~ 6 cups) b. 750 mL (~3 cups) c. 250 mL (~1 cup) d. 100 mL (~4 oz)

1.5L (~6 cups)