Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

COMP EXAM 2022 > Don’t Know As Of June 27 > Flashcards

Don’t Know As Of June 27 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following may be associated with hepatic cirrhosis, EXCEPT:
A. portal hypertension.
B. esophageal varices.
C. hepatic encephalopathy.
D. increased arterial and venous blood flow through the liver.
E. ascites.

A

D. increased arterial and venous blood flow through the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
Cytokines that send regulatory signals between cells of the immune system are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. interferon
B. interleukins
C. monokines
D. tumor necrosis factors
E. immunoglobulins
A

B. interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ immunity is characterized by the formation of a population of lymphocytes that can attack and destroy the foreign material.
A. Acquired
B. Humoral
C. Cell-mediated
D. Hypersensitive
E. Innate
A

C. Cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ immunity is associated with the production of antibodies that can combine and eliminate the foreign material.
A. T-cell mediated
B. Humoral
C. Cell-mediated
D. Hypersensitive
E. Passive
A

B. Humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ inhibit the multiplication of viruses that have infected a cell.
A) natural killer cells
B) tumor necrosis factor
C) interferons
D) B lymphocytes
E) T lymphocytes
A

C) interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: Pitting edema most frequently occurs in left heart failure.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Which of the following is not a frequent complication of a myocardial infarction?
A. heart failure
B. arrhythmias
C. formation of mural thrombi
D. rupture of the heart
E. mitral valve prolapse
A

E. mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following would be most likely to result in respiratory alkalosis?

a) kidney disease
b) hyperventilation
c) overuse of antacids
d) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which reaction is typical of the kind catalyzed by vitamin C?

a. transamination
b. methylation
c. hydroxylation
d. decarboxylation
e. carboxylation

A

hydroxylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

One health claim for calcium states that levels above _____ are unlikely to provide additional benefit.

a. 1200 mg/d
b. 800 mg/d
c. 1000 mg/d
d. 2000 mg/d

A

d. 2000 mg/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Vitamn C absorption increases with increased vitamin intake?

a. True
b. False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Choose the food that is high in vitamin A palmitate

a. pumpkin
b. spinach
c. carrots
d. liver

A

d. liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The binding of iron by proteins defends the cells against

a. Iron deposition in kidneys and other organs
b. Oxidative damage from free radicals
c. Tissue hypoxia
d. Stellate cells

A

Oxidative damage from free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A food may be labeled “low sodium” if each serving provides:

a. 35 mg or less
b. 140 mg or less
c. less than 5 mg
d. 240 mg or less

A

b. 140 mg or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
osteoblasts
Which cells are considered the bone-building cells?
a. osteopontins
b. osteonectins
c. osteoblasts
d. osteoclasts
A

c. osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Secretin is released from the enteroendocrine S-cell in the _____.

a. proximal small intestine
b. colon
c. esophagus
d. gastric mucosa

A

a. proximal small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Large amounts of folic acid can mask a vitamin B12 deficiency and prevent _____ from resulting. Over time the symptoms unique to a vitamin B12

a. DNA and RNA synthesis, vascular system
b. macrocytic anemia, nervous system
c. microcytic anemia, muscular system
d. one-carbon transfer, nervous system

A

macrocytic anemia, nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following best describes hemosiderin?

a. Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs
b. Responsible for iron transport in serum
c. Facilitates oxygen transport in muscle
d. Primary storage form of iron
e. Responsible for iron transport within the intestinal cell

A

Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long does it take for most of the carbohydrate, protein, and fat to be absorbed from chyme after it enters the small intestine?

a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 hours

A

a. 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which are responsible for regulation of extracellular water osmolarity and volume?

a. liver and pancreas
b. pancreas and kidney
c. hypothalamus and kidney
d. spleen and bone marrow

A

c. hypothalamus and kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which is NOT a component of saliva?

a. enzymes
b. mucus
c. water
d. proteases

A

d. proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carotenoids like Lutein and Zeaxanthin are found in the macula and can induce oxidation of cell membranes and can exacerbate UV-induced eye damage?

a. True
b. False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Elevations in lactate can indicate disruption of carbohydrate metabolism and the body’s need to regenerate the vitamin _____________ to keep the glycolytic pathway functional

  1. ) NADH
  2. ) NADPH
  3. ) FADH
  4. ) NAD
A

4.) NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the large neutral AA:

  1. ) Trp, Tyr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Val
  2. ) Trp, Thr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Met
  3. ) Trp, Thr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Val
  4. ) Trp, Tyr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Met
A

4.) Trp, Tyr, Phe, Leu, Ile, Met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Phenylalanine Hydroxylase (PAH) requires what nutrients for conversion of Phe -> Tyr?

1) Copper, B2, BH4
2. ) Copper, B3, BH4
3. ) Iron, B2, BH4
4. ) Iron, B3, BH4

A

4.) Iron, B3, BH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Elevations in Cortisol have been implicated in insulin resistance. Which of the following is NOT an action of high cortisol levels?

  1. ) Increased FA synthesis
  2. ) Increased gluconeogenesis
  3. ) Upregulation of GLUT4 receptors
  4. ) Increased glycogenolysis
A

3.) Upregulation of GLUT4 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The pathway Arg -> Orn + a-KG -> -> Pro for the creation of collagen via the enzymes arginase, ornithine aminotransferase and pyrroline-5-carbosylate reductase require what nutrients for proper activity?

  1. ) Mn++, B5, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++
  2. ) Mn++, P5P, B5, B3, Mg++
  3. ) Zn++, B5, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++
  4. ) Mn++, P5P, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++
A

4.) Mn++, P5P, retinoic acid, B3, Mg++

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Alcohol can deplete numerous nutrients. Match the nutrient depletion and the type of symptom/problem that can occur when that nutrient is depleted.

  1. ) Depletion of vitamins B1 and B6 causes
  2. ) Depletion of vitamins B6 and B9 causes
  3. ) Depletion of vitamin B1 causes
  4. ) Depletion of vitamin D causes
A
  1. ) neurological symptoms
  2. ) hematological symptoms
  3. ) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
  4. ) osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The enzyme CPOX (coproporphyrinogen oxidase) converts coproporphyrinogen III to protoporphyrinogen IX and is blocked by the heavy metals.

  1. ) Lead and Mercury
  2. ) Mercury and Arsenic
  3. ) Arsenic and Cadmium
  4. ) Lead and Cadmium
A

1.) Lead and Mercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Methylation typically works on endogenous constituents, with O-methyl metabolites have ___(a)____ activity than the original molecule. The active methyl group used in methylation reactions is ____(b)____.

  1. ) (a) greater, (b) SAMe
  2. ) (a) lesser, (b) SAMe
  3. ) (a) greater, (b) 5MHTF
  4. ) (a) lesser, (b) 5MTHF
A

1.) (a) greater, (b) SAMe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lysine does NOT undergo the initial transamination requiring B6 but downstream conversion of alpha-aminoadipic acid (a-AAA) to alpha-ketoadipate does require B6. What nutrient is required for the initial conversion of Lys -> Saccharopine?

  1. ) B2
  2. ) B12
  3. ) B5
  4. ) B3
A

4.) B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Alpha-amino-N-butyric acid (AANB) may be elevated in alcoholism. What nutrient may be deficient when AANB is elevated?

  1. ) B2
  2. ) B6
  3. ) Iron
  4. ) B3
A

2.) B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What nutrients are required for the creation of connective tissue components Hydroxyproline (HPro) and Hydroxylysine (HLys)?

  1. ) Vitamin A, Iron
  2. ) Vitamin A, Copper
  3. ) Vitamin C, Copper
  4. ) Vitamin C, Iron
A

4.) Vitamin C, Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: ADMA (asymmetric dimethylarginine) activates nitric oxide synthesis and angiogenesis.

A

A: False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Match the appropriate detox function with the specific nutrient:

  1. ) toxic metal binding & antioxidant protection
  2. ) hepatic conjugation substrates
  3. ) glutathione regeneration
  4. ) methyl donors
  5. ) lead protection
  6. ) stimulate Phase I and Phase II detox
vitamin C
Calcium 
glycine, sulfate
Cruciferous 
Met, SAMe 
NAC, Se, Mn, Cu, Zn
A
  1. ) vitamin C
  2. ) glycine, sulfate
  3. ) NAC, Se, Mn, Cu, Zn
  4. ) Met, SAMe
  5. ) Calcium
  6. ) Cruciferous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

High levels of suberate, adipate and ethylmalonate can be reduced with vitamin ________, which is utilized by the flavoprotein enzyme Fatty Aycl-CoA Dehydrogenase.

A

A: B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Precoproporphyrin may elevate when __________ blocks the last step of UROD, leading to the accumulation of pentacarboxyporphyrinogen, which gets converted by CPOX to precoproporphyrin.

  1. ) Mercury
  2. ) Lead
  3. ) Arsenic
  4. ) Cadmium
A

1.) Mercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Deficiency of the mineral, ___________, can lead to decreased incorporation of cystine into protein, allowing sulfate to spill into the urine.

  1. ) Zinc
  2. ) Copper
  3. ) Selenium
  4. ) Iron
A

1.) Zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Elevation of the kynurenin pathway constituent 3-hydroxykynurenin leads to its side conversion into xanthurenate, which spills into the urine and can indicate insufficiency of vitamin ___________.

  1. ) B6
  2. ) B5
  3. ) B3
  4. ) B2
A

1.) B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Alanine aminotransferase converts alpha-ketoglutarate into glutamate and alanine into:

  1. ) Pyruvate
  2. ) Aspartate
  3. ) Oxaloacetate
  4. ) Glutamate
A

1.) Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The Bohr effect explains that a decrease in the amount of oxygen associated with hemoglobin (Hb) due to a reduced affinity of oxygen for Hb is the result of:

  1. ) Increased pC02 and increased pH
  2. ) Increased pCO2 and decreased pH
  3. ) Decreased pC02 and decreased pH
  4. ) Decreased pC02 and increased pH
A

2.) Increased pCO2 and decreased pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

There are two major types of sulfotransferases. One type is membrane-bound in the golgi apparatus and sulfates GAGs and glycoproteins, while the other is located in the __________ and conjugates steroids, catecholamines, T4, bile acids, and xenobiotics.

  1. ) cytosol
  2. ) nucleus
  3. ) smooth ER
  4. ) mitochondria
A

1.) cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Histidine is converted to histamine via histadine decarboxylase. What cofactor is required for this reaction?

  1. ) Flavoprotein
  2. ) Nicotinamide
  3. ) Pantothenic acid
  4. ) Pyridoxal-5-phosphate
A

4.) Pyridoxal-5-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

NH3 is ___(a)___ and acts to help buffer __(b)__ environments.

  1. ) (a) mildly basic, (b) acidic
  2. ) (a) mildly basic, (b) basic
  3. ) (a) mildly acidic, (b) basic
  4. ) (a) mildly adicic, (b) acidic
A

1.) (a) mildly basic, (b) acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

BCAA are converted to alpha-ketoacids via BCAA transaminase. This enzyme requires the cofactor:

  1. ) B3
  2. ) B6
  3. ) B5
  4. ) B2
A

2.) B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Both Methionine Synthase (MS) and Betaine Homocysteine Methyltransferase (BHMT) can convert homocysteine to methionine with the assistance of what mineral?

  1. ) Zn++
  2. ) Fe++
  3. ) Cu++
  4. ) Mg++
A

1.) Zn++

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Asparagine (from asparagus) can be converted into aspartate. Aspartate is in a unique position to enter the TCA cycle through its conversion into the TCA cycle intermediate, __________________, via the enzyme AST (SGOT) and cofactor vitamin B6.

  1. ) Citrate
  2. ) Oxaloacetate
  3. ) Pyruvate
  4. ) Malate
A

2.) Oxaloacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

High ammonia levels from urea cycle dysfunction can lead to the accumulation of _ (a) . Treatment with (b) , may help the urea cycle function better and decrease urinary (a) levels.

  1. ) (a) Orotate, (b) Arginine, Mg++
  2. ) (a) Pyroglutamate, (b) NAC
  3. ) (a) Glucarate, (b) Arginine, Mn++
  4. ) (a) Sulfate, (b) NAC
A

1.) (a) Orotate, (b) Arginine, Mg++

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the four conditionally essential amino acids?

  1. ) Arg, Gln, Gly, Ser
  2. ) Arg, Glu, Gly, Tau
  3. ) Arg, Glu, Gly, Ser
  4. ) Arg, Gln, Gly, Tau
A

4.) Arg, Gln, Gly, Tau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An expected MCV for pernicious anemia would be
A. Below normal.
B. Normal.
C. Above normal.

A

C. Above normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
What is the most likely explanation for a low level of tryptophan in a blood specimen?
A. Toxicity from chemicals.
B. Inadequate stomach acid.
C. Steroid use.
D. Vitamin B6 deficiency.
A

B. Inadequate stomach acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
The best assessment of glomerular filtration rate is
A) urine pH
B) examination of urinary sediment
C) serum creatinine
D) urine nitrites
A

C) serum creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cirrhosis of the liver can cause an increased APTT because
A. Cirrhosis causes an increased production of heparin.
B. Cirrhosis causes decreased absorption of vitamin K.
C. Cirrhosis causes decreased platelet production.
D. Cirrhosis causes decreased production of coagulation factors.

A

D. Cirrhosis causes decreased production of coagulation factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A well-known biological marker for verifying reported protein intake is
A. Analysis of nitrogen in hair
B. Analysis of sulfur in a 24-hour urine specimen.
C. Analysis of nitrogen in a 24-hour urine specimen.
D. Analysis of sulfur in hair.

A

C. Analysis of nitrogen in a 24-hour urine specimen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anemia is a symptom of ________ poisoning.
A. Mercury.
B. Lead.
C. Cadmium.

A

B. Lead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
When Phase I and Phase II liver detoxification pathways are actively working to rid the body of toxins, the most likely observation would be
A. High urinary orotate.
B. Low urinary orotate.
C. High urinary glucarate.
D. Low urinary glucarate.
A

high urinary glucarate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
Protein \_\_\_\_\_ calcium reabsorption and phosphorus \_\_\_\_\_ calcium reabsorption.
A. Decreases, decreases
B. Decreases, increases
C. Increases, increases
D. Increases, decreases
A

B. Decreases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cold pressed oils are generally thought to be non-addictive foods according to Dr. Ifland.
A. True
B. False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
Your vegetarian client comes to you for help with what food to eat for her fatigue. What nutrient deficiencies do you suspect? (select all that apply)
A. Zinc
B. Magnesium
C. Vitamin B12
D. Iron
A

A. Zinc
C. Vitamin B12
D. Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
Walter Willet suggests:
A. That every adult female should be on calcium supplementation
B. Taking a multi vitamin for insurance
C. Avoiding grains
D. Avoiding legumes
A

B. Taking a multi vitamin for insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q 
According to Leon Rappoport in his book, How we Eat, what is specifically the first and second criteria for people when choosing food?
A. Peer pressure and pleasure
B. Behavior and pleasure
C. Health and culture
D. Pleasure then health
A

D. Pleasure then health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q 
It is recommended that women with gestational diabetes aim for a range of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ % fat calories during pregnancy
A. 10-20%
B. 20-30%
C. 30-40%
D. 40-50%
E 60%
A

30-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q 
Which of the following nutrient intakes is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A. inadequate calcium intake
B. heavy alcohol consumption
C. low body weight
D. increased iron intake
A

D. increased iron intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q 
What is the daily intake of alliin associated with successful lipid-lowering in most clinical studies using garlic powder?
A) About 3-6 mg
B) Over 20 mg
C) About 6-10 mg
D) About 10-20 mg
A

C) About 6-10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the proposed active constituent or licensed standardized extract?
Feverfew

A

Parthenolide

66
Q

Match the botanical term with the mechanism of action associated with it in the treatment of digestive tract dysfunction:

  1. ) Bitter
  2. ) Cholegogue
  3. ) Carminative

Choices:
A.) Relieve bloating and fullness by facilitating gas expulsion
B.) Stimulate gastric secretions
C.) Promote bile production and emptying of the gallbladder

A
  1. ) Stimulate gastric secretions
  2. ) Promote bile production and emptying of the gallbladder
  3. ) Relieve bloating and fullness by facilitating gas expulsion
67
Q

What is the specific part used for pain in?

Feverfew

68
Q

All of the following mechanisms, except one, have been identified for nettle extracts. Which one is NOT a mechanism for nettle extracts?
A.) Inhibit prostatic aromatase
B.) Anti-inflammatory effects
C.) Reduce blood prolactin levels
D.) Inhibition of 5-alpha reductase enzyme

A

C.) Reduce blood prolactin levels

69
Q

Match the botanical medicine with the health condition for which it has promising or good evidence as a therapeutic intervention:

  1. ) Bromelain
  2. ) Aloe vera
  3. ) Tea tree oil
  4. ) Witch hazel
  5. ) Evening primrose oil
Choices:
A.) Hemorrhoidal disease
B.) Psoriasis and genital herpes
C.) Post-operative or post-traumatic swelling, especially of the nose and paranasal sinuses
D.) Atopic eczema
E.) Cutaneous fungal infections
A
  1. ) Post-operative or post-traumatic swelling, especially of the nose and paranasal sinuses
  2. ) Psoriasis and genital herpes
  3. ) Cutaneous fungal infections
  4. ) Hemorrhoidal disease
  5. ) Atopic eczema
70
Q

How does hawthorne extract differ pharmacologically from cardiac glycosides such as digitalis?
A.) Hawthorne is negatively inotropic yet proarrhythmic
B.) Hawthorne is negatively inotropic yet antiarrhythmic
C.) Hawthorne is positively inotropic yet antiarrhythmic
D.) Hawthorne is positively inotropic yet proarrhythmic

A

C.) Hawthorne is positively inotropic yet antiarrhythmic

71
Q

Which two preparations of Echinacea were approved by German Commission E?
A.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. pallida
B.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. purpurea
C.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. purpurea
D.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. pallida

72
Q

All of the following mechanisms, except one, have been demonstrated for saw palmetto extracts. Which one has NOT been demonstrated for saw palmetto extracts?
A.) Anti-inflammatory effects
B.) Inhibition of 5-alpha reductase enzyme
C.) Reduce blood prolactin levels
D.) Inhibit prostatic aromatase

A

D.) Inhibit prostatic aromatase

73
Q

What is the proposed active constituent or licensed standardized extract?
Willow bark

74
Q

Match the substances with their mechanism of action:

  1. ) Saccharomyces boulardii
  2. ) Psyllium husk
  3. ) Sorbitol
  4. ) Senna pods and leaves
  5. ) Buckthorn bark
  6. ) Aloe latex

Choices:
A.) Osmotic laxative
B.) Bulk-forming laxative
C.) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa
D.) Antagonize pathogens and stimulate enteric immune system

A
  1. ) Antagonize pathogens and stimulate enteric immune system
  2. ) Bulk-forming laxative
  3. ) Osmotic laxative
  4. ) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa
  5. ) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa
  6. ) Anthranoid stimulation of intestinal mucosa
75
Q 
What part of the milk thistle plant is the typical source from which silymarin is extracted?
A.) Above ground parts
B.) Root
C.) Seed
D.) Leaf
76
Q

While human trials of patients with cirrhosis of the liver have found silymarin treatment provides supportive benefits, improved survival rates have never been demonstrated.
A.) True
B.) False

77
Q

Match the liquid dosage form with the appropriate description:

  1. ) Common preparation using alcohol or alcohol+water to produce extracts of a wide variety of herbs and herb combinations
  2. ) Especially useful for giving botanical medicines to children
  3. ) Alcohol-free preparation that would be expected to contain only lipid-soluble components
  4. ) A solution of a volatile substance in alcohol or alcohol+water
  5. ) Made from fresh plant parts and contain water-soluble components
Choices:
A) Plant juices
B.) Syrups
C.) Medicinal spirits
D.) Tinctures
E.) Medicinal oils
A
  1. ) Tinctures
  2. ) Syrups
  3. ) Medicinal oils
  4. ) Medicinal spirits
  5. ) Plant juices
78
Q 
Which of the following is a urinary organic acid that becomes elevated as a result of Coenzyme Q10 deficiency?
A.) Vanilmandelate
B.) Succinate
C.) Pyroglutamate
D.) D-Lactate
A

B.) Succinate

79
Q 
What is the principal form of circulating fatty acids in the fasting state?
A.) LDL
B.) Chylomicrons
C.) HDL
D.) Free fatty acids
80
Q 
Concurrent elevations of urinary L-lactate and pyruvatehave been shown to respond favorably to which vitamin supplementation?
A.) Lipoic acid
B.) Ascorbic acid
C.) Pantothenic acid
D.) Folic acid
A

A.) Lipoic acid

81
Q

Which laboratory finding tells you that a patient has an increased risk of kidney stone recurrence?
A.) Low urinary citrate
B.) Low urinary zinc
C.) Low urinary taurine
D.) Low urinary 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

A

A.) Low urinary citrate

82
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a process that is dependent on the availability of arginine?
A.) Porphyrin synthesis
B.) Nitric oxide production
C.) Urea production
D.) Protein synthesis
A

A.) Porphyrin synthesis

83
Q 
Tyrosine is the precursor amino acid in the biosynthesis of which compound?
A.) Dopamine
B.) Serotonin
C.) GABA
D.) Melatonin
A

A.) Dopamine

84
Q

Why is oral challenging with DMSA used prior to toxic element testing of urine?
A.) To establish a baseline level before test specimen collection
B.) To normalize for hemoglobin in urine
C.) To demonstrate metallothionein loading status
D.) To increase instrumental sensitivity for mass spectrometric assay

85
Q

A.) Release of bound zinc from food complexes that are denatured by gastric acid
Which phrase describes the first step in the assimilation of ingested dietary zinc?
A.) Release of bound zinc from food complexes that are denatured by gastric acid
B.) Binding of free zinc to metal ion transporters in enterocyte brush borders
C.) Transfer of ionic zinc to zinc fingers
D.) Metallothionein loading with zinc

A

A.) Release of bound zinc from food complexes that are denatured by gastric acid

86
Q 
Finding elevated urinary alpha-ketoisocaproate and alpha-ketoisovalerate is an indication of what essential nutrient deficiency?
A.) Coenzyme Q10
B.) Vitamin B1
C.) Vitamin B6
D.) Vitamin D
A

B.) Vitamin B1

87
Q

Among reports in the medical literature, which is the most commonly used specimen for arsenic exposure screening?A.) Urine
B.) Serum
C.) Whole blood
D.) Hair

88
Q

Which laboratory abnormality would be the most ominous as a risk factor for a chronic pain patient who has a tendency to overdose her acetaminophen?
A.) Low plasma methionine
B.) Low serum vitamin D
C.) Elevated urinary hydroxymethyglutarate
D.) Elevated erythrocyte copper

A

A.) Low plasma methionine

89
Q 
Which vitamin sits near the center of the cellular redox potential spectrum?
A.) Vitamin A
B.) Pantothenic acid
C.) Vitamin D
D.) Vitamin C
A

D.) Vitamin C

90
Q 
Elevated levels of which of the following fatty acids indicates general PUFA deficiency?
A.) Mead
B.) Alpha linolenic acid
C.) Stearic acid
D.) Oleic acid
91
Q 
When a patient is found to have high levels of LA and GLA, but a low level of DGLA on a plasma fatty acid profile, what specific nutrientintervention is suggested? p 292
A.) Zinc
B.) Iron
C.) Primrose oil
D.) Fish oil
92
Q 
Accumulation of which compound tends to produce reductive stress?
A.) BH4
B.) NADH
C.) NAD
D.) GSH
93
Q 
Which of the following compounds is NOT a tricarboxylic acid?
A.) Succinate
B.) cis-Aconitate
C.) Citrate
D.) Isocitrate
A

A.) Succinate

94
Q

If a patient is found to be homozygous for SNP that causes lowered activity of the enzyme required for conversion of dopamine to epinephrine, what laboratory report abnormality would show metabolic confirmation of the effect?
A.) Low urinary vanilmandelic acid
B.) High urinary vanilmandelic acid
C.) High urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
D.) Low urinary pyroglutamic acid

A

A.) Low urinary vanilmandelic acid

95
Q 
Which of the following is a urinary organic acid that becomes elevated in a patient due to massive intestinal overgrowth of Lactobacillus acidophillus?
A.) D-Lactate
B.) D-Arabinitol
C.) L-Lactate
D.) D-Glucarate
96
Q

Which two preparations of Echinacea were approved by German Commission E?
A.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. pallida
B.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. purpurea
C.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. purpurea
D.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. pallida

A

A.) Alcohol extracts of the root of E. pallida

C.) Expressed juices of the aerial parts of E. purpurea

97
Q

Vitamin B6 functions importantly in all of the following EXCEPT _____.

a. synthesis of niacin
b. synthesis of fatty acids
c. transamination of amino acids
d. glycogen breakdown Vitamin B6 functions importantly in all of the following EXCEPT _____.
a. synthesis of niacin
b. synthesis of fatty acids
c. transamination of amino acids
d. glycogen breakdown

98
Q

Bile salts are synthesized from cholesterol in the _____.

a. canaliculi
b. common bile duct
c. hepatocytes
d. gallbladder

A

c. hepatocytes

99
Q

Which hormone, stimulated by increased blood pressure stretching the heart, functions to inhibit sodium reabsorption to promote sodium excretion?

a. angiotensin II
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
c. aldosterone
d. vasopressin

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

100
Q

The action of vitamin K is the post-translational synthesis of blood clotting factors occurs:

a. in the liver
b. in the small intestine
c. in the bone marrow
d. in the blood

A

a. in the liver

101
Q

For which vitamin is the tolerable upper intake level set because of increased tendency for bleeding?

a. A
b. E
c. K
d. D

102
Q

What is a symptom of a vitamin D toxicity?

a. rickets
b. hypocalcemia
c. hypercalcemia
d. osteoporosis

A

c. hypercalcemia

103
Q

Which of the following peptides stimulates appetite?

a. bombesin
b. leptin
c. cholecystokinin
d. ghrelin

A

d. ghrelin

104
Q

Dietary intake of which mineral correlates positively with blood pressure?

a. potassium
b. magnesium
c. calcium
d. sodium

105
Q

Water accounts for what percentage of the body weight in normal adult?

a. 40%
b. 20%
c. 60%
d. 80%

106
Q

In the enzyme methionine synthase, vitamin B12 acts by accepting a _____ group from _____ and donating this group to _____ to form methionine.

a. carbon, serine, glycine
b. methyl, 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, homocysteine
c. methyl, formiminoglutamic acid, succinyl-CoA
d. carbon, methionine, folate

A

c. methyl, formiminoglutamic acid, succinyl-CoA

107
Q

Which vitamin enhances copper transfer and reduction?

a. biotin
b. ß-carotene
c. ascorbic acid
d. niacin

A

c. ascorbic acid

108
Q

The total bile acid pool in the human body is 2.5 to 5 g. What percentage of bile is reabsorbed in the ileum?

a. 65%
b. 90%
c. 10%
d. 30%

109
Q

The following vitamins/ minerals are required for heme synthesis:

a. folate, B12, and iron
b. B6, zinc, and iron
c. copper, zinc, and folate
d. vitamin E, vitamin C, and iron

A

b. B6, zinc, and iron

110
Q

Which ultratrace element, in pharmacological quantities, mimics the action of insulin?

a. silicon
b. boron
c. vanadium
d. nickel

A

c. vanadium

111
Q

Which of the following is needed for the visual cycle?

a. 11-cis retinal
b. 9-cis retinoic acid
c. cryptoxanthin
d. lycopene

A

a. 11-cis retinal

112
Q

Folate in foods can only be absorbed in the monoglutamate form; therefore, digestive enzymes called _____ are important for folate nutriture.

a. lipases
b. legumes
c. hydrolases
d. conjugases

A

conjugases

113
Q 
10 fold
Anaerobic bacteria populate the gut in \_\_\_\_\_ greater quantities than aerobic bacteria
a. 2 fold
b. 10 fold
c. 100 fold
d. 5 fold
114
Q

What cells found in oxyntic glands in the body of the stomach secrete pepsinogens?

a. parietal cells
b. chief cells
c. enteroendocrine cells
d. neck cells

A

b. chief cells

115
Q

Because vitamin B6 is involved in heme synthesis, a deficiency symptom is

a. seizures
b. hypochromic, microcytic anemia
c. hyperhomocysteinemia
d. impaired calcium metabolism

A

c. hyperhomocysteinemia

116
Q

What genetic disorder causes copper toxicity?

a. Wilson’s disease
b. hemochromatosis
c. Menkes disease
d. Keshan disease

A

a. Wilson’s disease

117
Q

To absorb folate consumed from green, leafy vegetables, _____.

a. glutamic acid molecules must be added
b. glutamic acid molecules must be removed
c. glutamate must be transaminated to form alpha-ketoglutarate
d. phosphate groups must be removed by the action of alkaline phosphatase

A

glutamic acid molecules must be removed

118
Q

Which ultratrace element was used as a preservative for meat, fish, and dairy products in the early 1900s, considered dangerous for humans in the 1920s, and then deemed essential starting in the 1980s?

a. boron
b. vanadium
c. arsenic
d. cobalt

119
Q

Two hormones that stimulate glycogenolysis in the muscle and liver, respectively, are _____.

a. insulin and epinephrine
b. cortisol and epinephrine
c. epinephrine and glucagon
d. glucagon and insulin

A

c. epinephrine and glucagon

120
Q

Research has shown that supplements of which mineral are associated with significant reductions in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure, especially in individuals with hypertension?

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. calcium
d. magnesium

121
Q

What percentage of blood volume is circulated through the kidney’s

a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 100%

122
Q

Which vitamin is said to be essential for reproductive processes and immune system function?

a. D
b. A
c. K
d. E

123
Q

Which mineral is part of the green chlorophyll pigment in green leafy vegetables?

a. potassium
b. magnesium
c. sulfur
d. sodium

A

b. magnesium

124
Q

Vitamin C’s actual participation in biochemical reactions usually involves its antioxidant ability. Choose the description of this activity.

a. Accepts an electron from the quinone form of vitamin E
b. Accepts an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor
c. Donates an electron or electrons to oxidize a mineral cofactor
d. Donates an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor

A

Donates an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor

125
Q

The primary physiological role of which mineral is as a constituent in the thyroid hormones?

a. chromium
b. fluorine
c. selenium
d. iodine

126
Q
127
Q

Bile is most important for the digestion and absorption of _____.

a. proteins
b. vitamins
c. fats
d. carbohydrates

128
Q

Within the lamina propria, lying just below the epithelium, is the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which

a. initiates peristalsis
b. contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms
c. controls secretions from the mucosal glands
d. secretes mucus, hormones and digestive juices into the lumen

A

contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms.

129
Q

Which of the following minerals is second only to calcium in abundance in the human body?

a. Phosphorous
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
d. Sodium
e. Potassium

A

a. Phosphorous

130
Q

Erythrocyte transketolase activity is an assay to assess the status of:

a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. B6
d. B12

131
Q

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the _____.

a. duodenum
b. colon
c. ileum
d. jejunum

132
Q

Formation of retinol from beta-carotene requires the presence of what B vitamin?

a. ascorbic acid
b. folic acid
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. niacin

133
Q

The major role of gastrin in the GI tract is that of _____.

a. stimulation
b. transport
c. inhibition
d. no effect

A

a. stimulation

134
Q

Which of the following dietary components impedes copper absorption?

a. phosphate
b. ascorbate
c. citrate
d. gluconate

A

b. ascorbate

135
Q

The RDA for vitamin C for adult men is _____ and the UL is _____.

a. 200 mg, 2000 mg
b. 75 mg, 500 mg
c. 100 mg, 500 mg
d. 90 mg, 2000 mg

A

d. 90 mg, 2000 mg

136
Q

The parietal cells secrete _____.

a. hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
b. zymogens and hydrochloric acid
c. intrinsic factor and gastrin
d. gastrin and zymogens

A

a. hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

137
Q

If a patient is a smoker, exercises, and takes PUFA’s, it would be a good idea for this individual to supplement with _____ to avoid lipid peroxidation?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E

A

d. Vitamin E

138
Q

Which of the following is considered a major mineral in the body?

a. iron
b. selenium
c. sodium
d. iodine

139
Q

The chief cells secrete _______.

a. mucus
b. zymogens
c. hydrochloric acid
d. gastrin

A

d. gastrin

140
Q

Which symptom of a vitamin A deficiency is most likely responsible for deficiency-related deaths?

a. severe infections
b. functions as a teratogen
c. keratinization of the cornea
d. poor cellular differentiation and growth

A

a. severe infections

141
Q

What percentage of the glomerular filtrate volume is excreted as urine each day?

a. 50%
b. 1%
c. 25%
d. 100%

142
Q

RANKL is located on the osteoclast?

a. True
b. False

143
Q

Due to a lack of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase, which tissue capable of glycogenesis cannot contribute to blood glucose levels between meals?

a. brain
b. kidney
c. muscle
d. liver

144
Q

_____ is secreted in response to low plasma calcium concentrations and acts on the kidney to increase synthesis of _____, which promotes renal reabsorption of calcium.

a. Calcitriol, calmodulin
b. Parathyroid hormone, calcitriol
c. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin
d. Calcitonin, calcitriol

A

b. Parathyroid hormone, calcitriol

145
Q

It’s a good thing that milk is fortified with vitamin D so that we can consume the RDA if we drink the recommended number of glasses of milk each day. The DRI for 9-69 year olds is 600 IU (15 mg). This equals _____ cups of milk.

a. four
b. three
c. two
d. six

146
Q

Iron content of the average Western diet is estimated to be about:

a. 18 g /day
b. 5 to 7 mg iron per 1,000 kcal
c. 1 to 4 mg iron per 1,000 kcal
d. 8 to 15 mg/day

A

b. 5 to 7 mg iron per 1,000 kcal

147
Q

Albumin carries zinc and copper in the portal circulation to all tissues in the body.

a. True
b. False

148
Q

Pepcid, a drug that is classified as a H2 receptor antagonist, acts by _____.

a. inhibiting the binding of histamine to the parietal cells
b. inhibiting the release of acetylcholine by the vagus nerve
c. inhibiting the secretion of hydrogen ions by the parietal cells
d. inhibiting the binding of gastrin to the parietal cells

A

a. inhibiting the binding of histamine to the parietal cells

149
Q

All of the following are involved in satiety and suppression of food intake EXCEPT _____.

a. corticotropin-releasing hormone
b. cholecystokinin
c. leptin
d. neuropeptide Y

A

d. neuropeptide Y

150
Q

Acid-base balance refers to:

a. the control of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids
b. the concentration of the bicarbonate ion in the red blood cells
c. homeostasis
d. the ratio of acidic and basic foods consumed each day

A

a. the control of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids

151
Q

During which period of the life cycle does peak bone mass occur?

a. 50 years and above
b. 0-10 years
c. 10-25 years
d. 30-40 years

A

d. 30-40 years

152
Q

Zinc is important for taste perception as a component of _____.

a. Gustin
b. Alcohol Dehydrogenase
c. Carbonic Anhydrase
d. Thionein

153
Q

Which of the following reflects long-term folate status?

a. serum folate
b. serum methylmalonic acid
c. homocysteine concentration in blood
d. red blood cell folate

A

d. red blood cell folate

154
Q

The hormone whose major action is to alkalize intestinal contents by stimulating secretion of bicarbonate from the pancreas and by inhibiting gastric acid secretion and gastric emptying is _____.

a. cholecystokinin
b. secretin
c. gastrin
d. GRP

A

b. secretin

155
Q

Methionine is used to synthesize S-adenosylmethionine (SAM). Why is this important?

a. so that methyl groups are available
b. so that 5-methyl THF is formed
c. so that fatty acids with an odd-numbered chain can be metabolized
d. so that dUMP is catalyzed to dTMP

156
Q

Which mineral is known to influence nickel absorption?

a. chloride
b. iron
c. sodium
d. iodine

157
Q

Which of the mechanisms responsible for absorption of nutrients into the epithelial cell of the villus requires energy?

a. diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion
c. glucagon
d. active transport

A

d. active transport

158
Q

The addition to the diet of which food will alleviate the problem of endemic goiter?

a. broccoli
b. cassava
c. cabbage
d. iodized salt

A

d. iodized salt

159
Q

Of the 3 short-chain fatty acids created by gut bacteria, which one is the preferred energy source for colonic epithelial cells?

a. acetic acid
b. propionic acid
c. butyric acid
d. oleic acid

A

butyric acid

160
Q

The volume of a normal stomach ranges from 50 mL (~2 oz) when empty to _____ when full.

a. 1.5 L (~ 6 cups)
b. 750 mL (~3 cups)
c. 250 mL (~1 cup)
d. 100 mL (~4 oz)

A

1.5L (~6 cups)

COMP EXAM 2022 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions