Domain II, Topic C, Planning and Intervention Flashcards

1
Q

_________ ____________ is a purposely planned action designed with the intent of changing a behavior, risk factor or condition, for an individual, group, or community. These _____________ influence the etiology or effects of a diagnosis. It is based on the nutrition diagnosis and provides the bases upon which outcomes are measured and evaluated.

A

Nutrition Intervention, Intervention

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2
Q

Four categories of Nutrition Intervention: ____ Delivery; _________, __________, ___________ of ____ with _____ __________

A

Food Delivery, Education, Counseling, Coordination of Care with Other Providers

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3
Q

________: prioritizing nutrition diagnoses, consult EAL and other practice guidelines, determine patient focused outcomes for each diagnosis, confer with caregivers, define time and frequency of care, identify resources needed

A

Planning

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4
Q

______________: Action phase involves communication of the care plan and carrying out the plan

A

Implementation

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5
Q

________ - _____ _________ ________ (EAL Evidence Analysis Library): systematically reviewed scientific evidence used in making food and nutrition pracice decision; integrate best available evidence with professional expertise practice decisions; integrate best available evidence with professional expertise and client values to improve outcome

A

Evidence Based Dietetics Practice

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6
Q

_______ Prevention Programs: reduced exposure to a promoter of disease (early screening for risk factors like diabetes). Health Promotion.

A

Primary

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7
Q

_________ Prevention Programs: Recruiting those with elevated risk factors into treatment program (setting up an employee’s gym). Risk Reduction.

A

Secondary

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8
Q

________ Prevention Programs: As disease progresses, intervention to reduce severity, manage complications, rehabilitation efforts

A

Tertiary

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9
Q

_______ _____ __________ (FTC) : Internet, TV, radio; bogus weight loss claims

A

Federal Trade Commission

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10
Q

________ _______ _______ ______ _____ (NCAHF)

A

National Council Against Health Fraud

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11
Q

When evaluating information in health claims, ask questions based on the CARS checklist:
C__________: check credential of author
A_______: info is current, factual and comprehensive
R_____________: is into fair, balanced and consistent
S______: is supporting documentation cited for scientific statements

A

Credibility, Accuracy, Reasonableness, Support

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12
Q

_______ ________ _______ ______ (POMR)

A

Problem Oriented Medical Record

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13
Q

_______ ________ ________ (PES)

A

Problem, Etiology, Symptoms

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14
Q

______ __________ ____ (SAP)

A

Screen, Assessment, Plan

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15
Q

______ _______ _________ _______ ________ (ADIME)

A

Assess, Diagnose, Intervene, Monitor, Evaluate

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16
Q

______ ________ ___________ and ______________ ___
Permanent legal document; entries written in black pen or typed; complete, clear, concise, objective, legible, accurate; sign, date all entries; entered at the time of actual date, time of entry and the date and time it should have been recorded

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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17
Q

___________ on HIPAA documents;

  • Never use white out, thick markers, or remove an original and replace it with a copy
  • At time an entry is in progress: draw single line through error, then enter the correction, initial date
  • Omitted nformation: Beside original entry: “see addendum,” enter date and initial. Write the addendum in chart sequence, identify it as an addendum and reference the original entry. Sign.
  • Correction performed some time after entry: correct minor errors (spelling, one word) with singl line drawn through, make correction, date, time, sign
A

Corrections

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18
Q

_________ plan begins on Day 1 of hospital stay

-_________ note includes summary of nutrition therapies and outcomes

A

Discharge

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19
Q

All _______ information is confidential

A

Patient

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20
Q

GI Disorder _____

  • Eroded Mucosal lesion
  • Treatment: Antacids, antibiotics to eradicate heliobacter pylori bacteria
  • Drug therapy: Cietidine, Ranitidine (H2 blocker); prevents binding of histamine to receptor, decreses acid secretion
  • diet: as tolerated, well balanced, avoid late night snacks
  • omit: cayenne and black pepper, large amounts of chili powder, avoid excess caffeine and alcohol
A

Ulcer

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21
Q

GI Disorder ______ ______

  • Protrusion of portion of the stomach above the diaphragm into the chest
  • small, bland feedings; avoid late night snacks, caffeine, chili powder, black pepper
A

Hiatal Hernia

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22
Q

GI Disorder _______ ________

  • Follows a gastrectomy (Billroth I, II)
  • Cramps, rapid pulse, weakness, perspiration, dizziness
  • When rapidly hydrolyzed carbohydrate enters the jejunum, water is drawn in to achieve osmotic balance. This causes a rapid decrease in the vascular fluid compartment and a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance. Blood pressure drops and signs of cardiac insufficiency appear. About two hours later, the CHO is digested and absorbed rapidly. Blood sugar rises, stimulating an overproduction of insulin, causing a drop in blood sugar below fasting. This is reactive or alimentary hypoglycemia.
  • Gastric Surgery
A

Dumping Syndrome

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23
Q

________ _ (Gastroduodenostomy) attaches the remaining stomach to the duodenum

A

Billroth I

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24
Q

________ __ (Gastrojejunostomy) attaches the remaining stomach to the jejunum. When food bypasses the duodenum, the secretion of secretin and pancreozymin by the duodenum is reduced. These hormones normally stimulate the pancreas, so there is now little pancreatic secretion. Calcium (most rapid absorption in duodenum) and iron absorption (requires acid) are adversely affected

A

Billroth II

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25
Q

______ can be caused by both ___ or ______ deficiency

A

Anemia, B12, Folate

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26
Q

___ deficiency is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor and bacteria overgrowth in loop of intestine being bypassed interfere with ___ absorption (pernicious anemia diagnosed using the Schilling test)

A

B12, B12

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27
Q

______ deficiency: Needs B12 for transport inside the cell; also from poor ______ intake and low serum iron (cofactor in ______ metabolism)

A

Folate, folate, folate

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28
Q

After _______ _______: Frequent small, dry feedings, fluids before or after meals (to slow passage), restrict hypertonic concentrated sweets, give 50-60% complex CHO, protein at each meal, moderate fat, B12 injections may be needed. Lactose may be poorly tolerated due to rapid transport.

A

Gastric Surgery

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29
Q

_____________ is delayed gastric emptying can be caused by surgery, diabetes, viral infections, obstructions

  • Moderate to severe hyperglycemia: detrimental effects on gastric nerves
  • prokinetics (erythromycin, metoclopramide) increase stomach contractility
  • Small, frequent meals; pureed foods, avoid high fiber, avoid high fat (liquid fat may be better tolerated)
  • Bezoar formation may be due to undigested food or medications; treatment includes enzyme or endoscopic therapy
A

Gastroparesis

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30
Q

________ _____ (bacterial, viral, parasitic infection)

  • chronic GI disease, intestinal lesions, may also affect stomach
  • diarrhea, malnutrition, deficiencies of B12 and folate due to decreased HCL and intrinsic factor
  • antibiotics, high calories, high protein, IM B12 and oral folate supplements
A

Tropical Sprue

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31
Q

___ - ________ _____, ______ Disease, ______ - _______ Enteropathy

  • Gluten refers to storage proteins (prolamins: gliadin in wheat, secalin in rye, hordein in barley, avenin in oats)
  • Reaction to gliadin: affects jejunum and ileum (proximal intestine)
  • Malabsorption (leads to loss of fat - soluble vitamins), macrocytic anemia, weight loss diarrhea, steatorrhea, iron deficiency anemia
  • Needs gluten restricted diet: NO wheat, rye, oats, barley, bran, graham, malt, bulgur, couscous, durum, orzo, thickening agents
  • OK: corn, potato, rice, soybean, tapioca, arrowroot, carob bean, guar gum, flax
A

Non - tropiical sprue, Celiac disease, gluten induced enteropathy

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32
Q

___________ sometimes due to an atonic colon (weakened muscles)
-high fluid, high fiber diet, exercise

A

Constipation

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33
Q

______________ is the presence of diveticula

  • Small mucosal sacs that protrude through the intestinal wall due to structural weakness. Related to constipation and lifelong intra - colonic pressures
  • High fiber diet: increases volume and weight of residue, provides rapid transit
A

diverticulosis

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34
Q

______________: When diverticula become inflamed as a result of food and residue accumulation and bacterial action
-Clear liquids, low residue or elemental, gradual return to high fiber

A

Diveticulitis

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35
Q

_____ provides indigestible bulk, promotes intestinal function
-Dietary _____: Non - digestible CHOs and lignin, binds water, increases fecal bulk; found in legumes, wheat bran, fruits, vegetables, whole grains

A

Fiber, fiber

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36
Q

___ bran and _______ fibers decrease serum cholesterol by binding bile acids converting more cholesterol into bile

A

Oat, soluble

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37
Q

_______ fibers (pectins, gums) delay gastric emptying, absorb water, form soft gel in small intestine; this slows passage and delays or inhibits absorption of glucose and cholesterol; fruits vegetables, legumes, oats, barley, carrots, apples, citrus fruits, strawberries, bananas

A

Soluble

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38
Q

AI of Fiber: __g M, __g F

A

38, 25

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39
Q

A ____ fiber may increase the need for Ca, Mg, P, Cu, Se, Zn Fe

A

high

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40
Q

A ___ fiber diet may lead to ____________

A

low, constipation

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41
Q

_________: inflammation of stomach; anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
-diet: clear liquids, advance as tolerated, avoid gastric irritants

A

Gastritis

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42
Q

____________ ____ _______ (IBD)

  • Regional Enteritis (Chron’s disease)
  • Chronic Ulcerative Colitis (UC)
A

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

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43
Q

________ ________ (Chron’s Disease: Affects terminal ileum; weight loss, anorexia, diarrhea

  • B12 deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia
  • Iron deficiency anemia due to blood loss, decreased absorption
A

Regional Enteritis

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44
Q

_______ __________ _______ (UC)

  • Ulcerative disease of the colon, begins in rectum
  • Chronic bloody diarrhea, weight loss, anorexia, electrolyte (Na,K), disturbance, dehydration, anemia, fever, negative nitrogen balance
A

Chronic Ulcerative Colitis

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45
Q

Treatment for ____________ _____ _______

  • Maintaoin fluid and electrolyte balance; antidiarrheal agent (sulfasalazine)
  • Acute Chron’s flare ups: bowel rest, parenteral nutrition or minimal residue
  • Acute UC: elemental diet may be needed to minimize fecal volume
  • Energy needs according to current BMI, limit fat only if steatorrhea; water soluble and fat soluble vitamin; iron, folate; assess Ca, Mg, Zn; MCT oil, watch lactose, frequent feedings. High fat may improve energy balance
  • Once ____________ _____ _______ is under control, high fiber to stimulate peristalsis
A

Inflammatory Bowel Disease, Inflammatory Bowel Disease

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46
Q

_________ _____ ________ (IBS)

  • Chronic abdominal discomfort, altered intestinal motility, bloating
  • Goals: adequate nutrient intake, tailor patter to specific GI issues
  • Avoid large meals, excess caffeine, alcohol, sugars
  • Use food diary to track intake, emotions, environment, symptoms
  • identify food allergies and hypersensitivites
  • work with client to alleviate stress during eating
A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

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47
Q

_______ ___________ due to _______ deficiency
-Normally _______ splits _______ into glucose and galactose. In its absence _______ remains intact, exerting hyperosmolar pressure. Water is drawn into the intestine to dilute the load causing distension, cramps, and diarrhea. Bacteria then ferment the undigested lactose, releasing carbon dioxide gas.

A

Lactose intolerance, lactase, lactase, lactose, lactase

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48
Q

_______ __________ can be detected with a hydrogen breath test
-hydrogen is produced by colonic bacteria on lactose, absorbed into the bloodstream and exhaled in 60 - 90 minutes

A

Lactose Intolerance

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49
Q

In a _______ ________ test an oral dose of _______ is given after a fast. If intolerant, blood glucose will rise < 25mg/dL above fasting (flat curve) If tolerant, the rise would be above 25 mg/dL (normal curve)

A

Lactose intolerance, lactose

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50
Q

On a _______ free diet, calcium and riboflavin supplements are recommended; yogurt and small amounts of aged cheese may be tolerated; lactate and lactalbumin are OK

A

lactose

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51
Q

_____ diarrhea in infants requires aggressive and immediate rehydration; replace fluids and electrolytes lost in stool (WHO recommends glucose electrolyte solution)
-as effective as parenteral rehydration and much cheaper; ingredients easily attainable; reintroduce oral intake within 24 hours

A

Acute

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52
Q

In _______ nonspecifc diarrhea in infants:

  • Consider ratio of fat to CHO calories, volume of ingested liquids
  • Some are inadvertently placed on a low fat diet or consume too many fluids or too many calories
  • give 40% calories as fat, balance with limited fluids; restrict or dilute fruit juices with high osmolar loads (apple, grape)
A

Chronic

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53
Q

In _____ diarrhea:

  • remove the cause; bowel rest; replace lost fluids and electrolytes, especially those high in sodium and potassium
  • when diarrhea stops, begin with low fiber foods, followed by protein foods, fat need not be limited
  • avoid lactose at first
  • foods or supplements that contain prebiotic components (pectin, fructose, oats, banana flakes) which favor friendly bacteria
  • probiotics: sources of bacteria used to reestablish bacterial gut flora
A

Adult

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54
Q

__________ (consequence of malabsorption

  • normal stool fat 2 - 5 g; > 7 g is indicative of malabsorption
  • determine cause and treat
  • high protein, high complex CHO, fat as tolerated, vitamin (especially fat soluble), minerals, MCT (rapidly hydrolyzed in GI tract)
A

Steatorrhea`

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55
Q

_____ _____ ________ (SBS)

  • Consequences associated with significant restricions of the small intestine
  • malabsorption,, malnutrition, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, weight loss
  • severity reflects length and location of resection, age of patient, health of remaining tract. Loss of ileum (especially distal 11/3), loss of ileocecal valve, loss of colon are of particular concern; most digestion takes place in the first 100 cm of the intestine (in duodenum and upper jejunum) what remains - small amounts of sugar, starches, fiber, lipids
A

Short Bowel Syndrome

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56
Q

_____ _________ significant resections that produce major complications
-distal: absorption of B12, intrinsic factor, bile salts
-_____ normally absorbs major portion of fluid in GI tract
-Patients have above average needs for water to compensate for excessive losses in stool. Drink at least 1 liter more than their ostomy output
-If _____ cannot recycle bile salts; lipids are not emulsified, leads to malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins; malabsorbed fats combine with Ca, Zn, Mg, leading to soaps;
Colonic absorption of oxalate increases; renal oxalate stones
-Increased fluid and electrolyte secretion; increased colonic motility

A

Ileal resection, ileum, ileum,

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57
Q

Loss of _____: water and electrolyte loss, loss of salvage absorption of CHO and other nutrients

A

colon

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58
Q

Nutritional care after SBS

1) _________ nutrition initially to restore and maintain nutrient status
2) _______ - start early to stimulate growth, increase over time; continuous drip
3) May take weeks or months to transition to food
4) _______ - normal balance of CHO, protein, fat; avoid lactose, oxalates, large amounts of concentrated sweets; vitamin, mineral supplements
5) _____ - limit fat, use MCT (does not require bile salts, needs less intestinal surface area), supplement fat - soluble vitamins, Ca, Mg, Zn, parenteral B12, followed by monthly injections

A

Parenteral, enteral, jejunal, ileal

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59
Q

Functions of the _____ - stores and releases blood, filters toxic elements, metabolizes and stores nutrients, regulates fluid and electrolyte balance

A

Liver

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60
Q

______ profile - list of major enzymes found in organs and tissues; enzyme levels in blood are elevated when tissue damage causes them to leak into circulation

A

Enzyme

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61
Q

________ ___________ (ALP) 30 - 120 U/L

  • Increases with liver disease
  • Decreases with scurvy
A

Alkaline phosphatase

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62
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (LDH) 
Increased with:
-Hepatitis
-Myocardial Infarction
-Muscle Malignancies
A

Lactic Acid Dehydrogenase

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63
Q

_________ _____ __________ (AST, SGOT) 0 - 35 U/L

  • Increased with hepatitis
  • Decreased with uncontrolled diabetes with acidosis
A

Alanine Aminotransferase

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64
Q

In _____ disease, enzyme levels are elevated. SGOT is decreased in uncontrolled diabetes

A

Liver

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65
Q

Symptoms of _____ _____ hepatitis

-Inflammation, necrosis, jaundice, anorexia, nausea, fatigue (1) Jaundice occurs when bile ducts are blocked

A

Acute Viral

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66
Q

HAV transmitted through _____ matter - oral transmission (type most directly connected to food)

A

fecal

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67
Q

HBV ________ transmitted

A

sexually

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68
Q

HCV ____ to ____ contact

A

blood to blood

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69
Q

Nutrition intervention for _____ _____ hepatitis:

  • Increase fluids to prevent dehydration
  • care varies according to symptoms and nutrition status
  • 50 -55% CHO to replenish liver glycogen and spare protein
  • acute hepatitis: 1 - 1.2g protein/kg: cell regeneration, provide lipotropic agents to convert fat into lipoproteins for removal from liver
  • Moderate to liberal fat intake if tolerated; limit fat if steatorrhea
  • Encourage coffee (antioxidant)
  • multivitamin with B complex, C, K, zinc
A

Acute viral

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70
Q

In _________ damaged liver tissue is replaced by bands of connective tissue which divides liver into clumps and reroutes many of the veins and capillaries. Blood flow through the liver is disrupted. Poor food intake leads to deficiencies
-Protein deficiencies lead to ascites, fatty liver, impaired blood clotting

A

Cirrhosis

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71
Q

Normal blood flow runs from the _________, __________, or __________ veins to the ______ vein, to the _____, to the ____ ____

A

abdominal, esophageal, collateral, portal, liver, vena cava

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72
Q

_______ occurs when blood cannot leave the live

A

Ascites

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73
Q

_________ tissue overgrowth blocks blood flow out of liver into the vena cava. The liver expands (can store a liter of blood). When storage capacity has been exceeded, pressure caused by increased blood volume forces fluid to sweat through the liver into the peritoneal cavity. This fluid is almost pure plasma with a high osmolar load, pulling more fluid in to dilute the load, leading to sodium and water retention.
-Low serum albumin may be due to dilution factor

A

Ascites

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74
Q

__________ varices occur when blood can’t enter the liver.

  • Connective tissue overgrowth causes resistance to blood entering from portal vein. The increased pressure forces blood back into collateral veins that offer less resistance. Esophageal, abdominal, collateral veins enlarge.
  • Due to portal hypertension
A

Esophageal

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75
Q

Diet for _________.

  • High protein 0.8 - 1.0 g/kg; in stress at least 1.5 g/kg
  • High calorie 25 - 35 cals/kg estimated dry weight or 1.2 - 1.5 x BEE
  • moderate to low fat 25 - 40% of calories, MCT if needed, less than 40 grams of fat if malabsorption. Fat is prefered fuel in cirrhois. Include omega 3. Decrease LCTs if steatorrhea develops.
  • Low fiber if varices are present, low sodium iif edema or ascites
  • With hyponatremia, fluid restriction of 1 - 1.5 L/day depending on severity, and moderate sodium intake
  • B complex vitamins, C, K Zn, Mg; monitor need for A and D
  • Zinc involved in the conversion of ammonia to urea, increased loss in urine
A

Cirrhosis

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76
Q

_________ liver disease - hepatic steatosis, alcoholic hepatitis, cirrhosis

A

Alcoholic

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77
Q

_____ injury is due to the alcohol and metabolic derangement it causes

A

Liver

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78
Q

_______ is converted into acetaldehyde and excess hydrogen which disrupts liver metabolism

A

alcohol

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79
Q

In alcoholic liver disease, _______ replaces fat as fuel in the Kreb’s cycle, so fat accumulates in liver, leading to fatty liver, and in blood, raising the TG level
Shift in ____/___ ratio inhibits beta-oxidation of fatty acids and promotes TG synthesis

A

Hydrogen, NADH/NAD

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80
Q

_______ causes inflammation of GI tract and interfeeres with absorption of thiamin, B12, vitamin C, and folic acid

A

Alcohol

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81
Q

_______ interferes with vitamin activation

A

Alcohol

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82
Q

Increased need for _ vitamins to metabolize alcohol

A

B

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83
Q

Increased need for _________; excreted after alcohol consumption

A

magnesium

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84
Q

Malnutrition increases _______ destructive effects

A

alcohol’s

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85
Q

_____ and _______ deficiencies are most responsible for malabsorption in alcoholic liver disease

A

Folate and protein

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86
Q

_______ deficiency in Wernicke - Korsakoff

A

Thiamin

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87
Q

_______ _______ (ESLD)

  • liver function decreases to 25% or less
  • liver cannot convert ammonia into uream ammonia accumulates
  • apathy, drowsiness, confusion, coma (PSE - portal systemic encephalopathy)
  • Asterisix (flapping, invoulantary jerking motions) sign of impending coma
A

Hepatic Failure

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88
Q

Nutrition treatment for _______ failure

  • If not comatose: moderate to high levels of protein, increase up to 1 - 1.5 gran protein/kg as tolerated
  • 30 - 35 calories/kg; 30-35% calories as fat with MCT if needed
  • Low sodium if ascites; vitamin/mineral supplementation
A

Hepatic

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89
Q

_______ ________________ Theory is designed for hepatic failure: BCAA levels decrease (used by muscles for energy); AAA (aromatic amino acids) increase because damaged liver is unable to clear them

  • adding BCAA adds calories and protein; may nt reduce symptoms
  • used when standard therapy does not work and when patient does not tolerate standard protein
A

Altered Neurotransmitter Theory

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90
Q

Standard treatment for _______ failure is lactulose (hyperosmotic laxative that removes nitrogen); neomycin (antibiotic that destroys bacterial flora that produce ammonia)

A

lactulose

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91
Q

___ - _________ _____ liver disease

  • Steatosis, more common with BMI greater than 35, type 2 diabetes, metabolic syndrome
  • excess fat buildup in liver unrelated to alcohol consumption
  • Can be managed with lifestyle changes
    1) weight loss (7-10% of starting weight). NO rapid weight loss: greater flux of fatty acids to liver may worsen inflammation and accelerate disease progression
    2) Healthful eating: mediterranean diet, moderate alcohol, avoid sugar sweetened beverages, coffee may help (antioxidant)
    3) Physical activity: at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic activity, plus two strength training session each week
A

Non - alcoholic fatty

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92
Q

___________ disease

  • Cholecystitis - inflammation of the ___________
    1) An infection causes excess water to be absorbed causing cholesterol to precipitate out leading to gallstones - cholelithiasis
A

Gallbladder,gallbladder

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93
Q

Treatment for ___________ disease

1) low fat diet: acute 30 - 45 grams; chronic 25 - 30% of calories
2) cholecystectomy - surgical removal of the gallbladder; bile now secreted from liver directly into intestine
- limit fat intake for several months to allow liver to compensate
- slowly increase fiber to help normalize bowel movements

A

Gallbladder

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94
Q

____________ inflammation with edema, cellular exudate and fat necrosis
-may be due to a blockage or reflux of the ductal system; premature activation of enzymes within pancreas leads to auto-digestion

A

Pancreatitis

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95
Q

_____ - pancreatitis

  • put pancreas at rest, withhld all feeding, maintain hydration (IV)
    1) progress as tolerated to easily digested foods with a low fat content
    2) elemental (predigested) enteral nutrition into jejunum may be tolerated
A

Acute

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96
Q

_______ - pancreatitis

  • Recurrent attacks of epigastric pain of a long duration
    1) PER: Pancreatic enzyme orally with meals and snacks to minimize fat malabsorption from lack of pancreatic lipase. MCTs do not require pancreatic lipase. Add to mixed dishes, jams, jellies
    2) To promote weight gain, give maximum level of fat tolerated without an increase in steatorrhea or pain
    3) If malabsorbing fat soluble vitamins give water soluble forms
    4) Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion may be defective; may need antacids so PERT therapy will work
    5) In severe prolonged cases, parenteral nutrition may be needed
    6) To avoid pain: avoid large meals with fatty foods, alcohol
A

Chronic

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97
Q

______ ________
-Disease of exocine glands: secretion of thick mucus that obstructs glands and ducts; chronic pulmonary diseases, pancreatic enzyme deficiency, high perspiration electrolyte levels, malabsorption

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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98
Q

Nutrition treatment for ______ ________

1) PERT- pancreatic enzyme replacment therapywith meals and snacks
2) High protein, high calorie, unrestriced fat, liberal in salt
- if growing normally and steatorrhea is contolled: calories to cover RDA for age and sex; if fails to grow - BEE x activity factors plus disease
- Protein 15 -20% calories: malabsorption due to pancreatic deficiency
- CHO 45 - 55% total calories
- Liberal fat to compensate for high energy needs - 35-40% of calories
- Additional 2 - 4 grams salt/day in hot weather, with heavy perspiration
- age appropriate doses of water soluble vitamins and minerals
- Supplement water soluble forms of fat soluble vitamin A and E

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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99
Q

______________ disease (CVD), ________ ______ disease (CAD), ________ ____ disease (HD)

A

Cardiovascular, coronary artery, ischemic heart

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100
Q

____________ - systolic >140 or diastolic >90 or both

  • Systolic, contraction, greatest pressure; diastolic, relaxation, least pressure
  • May be primary (essential) or secondary due to another disease
  • classified in stages based on risk of developing coronary heart disease
  • Obesity is a major factor in the cause and treatment
  • Optimal BP with repect to cardiovascular isk is <120/80 mm Hg
A

Hypertension

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101
Q

Management of ____________

  • Thiazide diuretics may induce hypokalemia
  • four modifiable factors in primary prevention and treatment: overweight, high salt intake, alcohol consumption, physical activity
  • salt restriction less than or equal to 2400 mg of Na (6 g salt); decrease weight if needed
  • DASH diet - dietary approach to stop hypertension; whole grains, fruits, vegetables, low fat dairy, poultry, fish, moderate sodium, limit alcohol, decrease sweets, calcium to meet DRI (not supplements)
A

Hypertension

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102
Q

_____________ diet

  • Rich in alpha linoleic acid, high in monounsaturates fats
  • olive, canola, soybean pils, walnuts, almonds, pecan, peanuts, pistachios
  • fish, poultry and egggs rather than beef, breads, fruits, and vegetables in abundance, beans, legumes, yogurt and cheese
  • revetsatrol, in skin of red grapes, may lower blood pressure
A

Mediterranean

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103
Q

_______________: accumulation of lipids; structural and compositional changes in the intimal layer of the large arteries

A

Atherosclerosis

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104
Q

Risks for _______________: Hypertension, obesity, smokin, elevated blood lipids, hereditary

A

Atherosclerosis

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105
Q

_______________ is a form of ________ ______ disease (CAD) where the arteries harden and narrow from the buildup of plaque

A

Athersclerosis, coronary artery disease

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106
Q

________ is a deficiency of blood due to obstruction

A

Ischemia

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107
Q

________________ is characterized by a loss of elasticity of blood vessel walls

A

Arteriosclerosis

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108
Q

_________ __________ reduction of coronary flow to myocardium due to blood clot blocking a narrowed coronary artery

1) angina pectoris - chest pain
2) Heparin - blood clots

A

Myocardial Infarction

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109
Q

___________ includes high TG and low HDL

A

Dyslipidemia

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110
Q

___________ - transports dietary TG from gut to adiose cells; synthesized in intestine from dietary fat; lowest density due to smallest amount off protein

A

Chylomicron

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111
Q

____ (pre-beta)- Transports endogenous TG from liver to adipose cell

A

VLDL

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112
Q

___ (beta) - transports cholesterol from diet and liver to all cells

  • small dense LDL - C associated with increased risk responsive to diet
  • larger buoyant LDL not associated with increased risk
A

LDL

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113
Q

___ (alpha) - reverse cholesterol transport; moves cholesterol from cells to liver excretion

A

HDL

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114
Q

___ (pre - beta to beta) - LDL precursor; found in circulation secondary to catabolism of other lipoproteins

A

IDL

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115
Q

_________ ________ - three or more of the following risk factors are linked to insulin resistance which often increase risk for coronary events

1) elevated blood pressure which often increases risk for coronary events
2) elevated TG greater than or equal to 150 mg/dL
3) fasting serum glucose greater than or equal to 100 mg/dL
4) waist measurement greater than or equal to 102 cm (40”) men; greater than or equal to 88cm (35”) women
5) Low HDL < 40 mg/dL (men), < 50 mg/dL (women)

A

Metabolic syndrome

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116
Q

________ ___________ _________ ________ (NCEP) National heart, lung and blood institute, endorsed by American Heart Association

A

National Cholesterol Education Program

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117
Q

LDL - C < ___ optimal
Total cholesterol < ___ desirable
HDL - C < __ (M) < __ (F); >= __ high

A

100, 200, 40, 50, 60

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118
Q

High ____________ (Hcy) levels are independent risk factors for CHD

A

Homocystine

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119
Q

Normal triglyceride levels

A

150

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120
Q

___________ _________ ______ (TLC) for CVD from Adult Treatment Panel III

  • up to 35% calories from total fat, <7% saturated fat, 5 - 10% PUFA, up to 20% MUFA, <200 mg cholesterol
  • 25 - 30 grams fiber (half soluble)
  • Stanols and sterols inhibit cholesterol absorption (2-3g)
  • Maintain DBW, prevent weight gain
  • Increase physical activity to at least 30 mintes of moderate intensity most days (expend at least 200 calories
A

Therapeutic Lifestyle Change

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121
Q

_____ _________ _____ (ATP) IV: does not focus on specific target levels for LDL, but defines groups for whom lowering LDL would be most beneficial. Recommend a heart healthy lifestyle.

A

Adult Treatment Panel

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122
Q

___ __ therapy recommended for:

  • Patients who have cardiovascular disease
  • Patients with an LDL of 190 mg/dL or higher
  • Patients with Type 2 diabetes who are between 40 and 75 years of age
  • Patients with an estimated 10 year risk of cardiovascular disease of 7.5 percent or higher who are between 40 and 75 years of age
A

ATP IV

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123
Q

Etiology of _____ _______

1) weakened heart fails to maintain adequate output, resulting in diminished blood flow so fluid is held in tissues (edema); dyspnea (shortness of breath)
2) REduced blood flow to kidneys causes secretion of hormones that hold in sodium and fluid leading to weight gain

A

Heart Failure

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124
Q

Treatment for _____ _______:

1) Digitalis increases strength of heart contraction
2) low sodium (2-3 grams), DASH diet, 1-2 L fluid
3) 1.1 - 1.4g protein/kg ABW for normally nourished and malnourished
4) Energy needs: RMR x physical activity factor
5) Evaluate thiamin status (loss with loop diuretics). without thiamin, pyruvate cannot be converted into acetyl CoA for energy, so heart muscle is deprived.
6) DRI for folate, Mg; MV with B12
7) Encourage individualized regular physical activity

A

Heart Failure

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125
Q
Physical activity factors:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1.0 - <1.4
\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ 1.4 - < 1.6
\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1.6 - < 1.9
\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ 1.9 - < 2.5
A

Sedentary, Low Active, Active, Very Active

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126
Q

_______ ________: Unintended weight loss, blood backs up into liver and intestines causing nausesa and decreased appetite Arginine and glutamine may help. Low saturated fat, low cholesterol, low trans fat, <2 grams sodium, high calorie

A

Cardiac Cachexia

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127
Q

Structure of the _______

a) __________ - tuft of capillaries held closely by Bowman’s capsule - produces ultrafiltrate which then passes through tubules. Capsule blocks passage of red blood cells and larg molecules like protein
b) ________ __________ ______ - Major nutrient reabsorption
c) ____ of _____ - water and sodium balance
d) ______ ______ - acid base balance

A

Nephron, glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal tubule

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128
Q

_____ functions:
__________ - red blood cells, protein stay in blood; all else filters through tubules
__________ - 100% glucose, amino acids; 85% water, sodium, potassium
_________ - wastes, urea, excess ketones
_________ - secretes hormones that control blood pressure, blood components; secretes ions that maintain acid - base balance

A

Renal, filtration, absorption, excretion, secretion

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129
Q

________ involved in renal function
a) ___________ (ADH) - from hypothalamus (stored inpituitary)
b) _____ - vasoconstrictor
C) _____________ (EPO)

A

Hormones, vasopressin, renin, erythropoietin

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130
Q

___________ (ADH)

1) exerts pressor effect; elevates blood pressure
2) Increases water reabsorption from distal and collecting tubules
3) SIADH - Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
a) Hyponatremia caused by hemoodilution, treated with fluid restricion

A

Vassopressin

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131
Q

_____ (vasoconstrictor)

1) Secreted by glomerulus when blood volume decreases
2) Stimulates aldosterone to increase sodium absorption and return blood pressure to normal

A

Renin

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132
Q

_______________ (EPO)

1) Produced by kidney; stimulates bone marrow to produce RBC

A

Erythropoietin

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133
Q

Lab tests in _____ disease

a) Decrease glomerular filtration rate, creatinine clearance
b) Increase serum creatinine, BUN
c) BUN:creatinine ratio of >20:1
d) renal solute load

A

Renal

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134
Q

BUN:creatinine ratio of > 20:1 indicates a “___-_____ state” in which BUN reabsorption is increased due to acute kidney damage (may be reversible and may not require dialysis)

A

pre renal

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135
Q

BUN:creatinine ratio of < __:_ suggests reduced BUN reabsorption due to renal damage (may need dialysis)

A

10:1

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136
Q

_____ ______ load - solutes excreted in 1 L urine; daily fixed load of 600 mOsm
1) Mainly measures nitrogen (60%) and electrolytes (sodium)

A

Renal Solute

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137
Q

Manifestation of _____ disease

a) anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin
b) upset in blood pressure
c) decreased activation of vitammin D (kidney produces active form which promotes efficient absorption of calcium by the gut)

A

Renal disease

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138
Q

_____ disorders include:

a) _____ calculi
b) acute _____ _______
c) _________ ________
d) chronic ______ _______
e) ___ _____ _____ _______ (ESRD)
f) chronic _____ _______

A

Renal, renal, kidney injury, nephrotic syndrome, kidney disease, End Stage Renal Disease, renal failure

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139
Q

_____ _______

1) 1.5 - 2 L fluid/day needed to dilute urine
2) calcium oxalate stones
a) Adequate calcium intake to bnd oxalate and a low oxalate (40 - 50 mg) diet
b) More stones are detected in diets deficient in calcium
3) Alkaline ash / acid ash diets
a) Minerals not oxidized in metabolism leave an ash (residue) in urine
b) Can change composition of diet to change pH of ash in urine
c) Now usually done with medication
d) To prevent acidic stones - create an alkaline ash: increase cations (Ca, Na, K, Mg), by adding vegetables, fruits, brown sugar, molasses
e) To prevent alkaline stones - create an acid rich ash: increase anions (Cl, Ph, Su) by adding meat, fish, fowl, eggs, shellfish, cheese, corn, oats, rye

A

Renal calculi (kidney stones)

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140
Q

_____ ______ ______

1) Sudden shutdown with previously adequate cpacity; decreased GFR, inadequate pre - renal perfusion
2) Due to burns, obstruction, severe dehydration
3) Symptons - oliguria (<500 mL urine), azotemia (increased urea in blood)

A

Acute kidney injury

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141
Q

Nutrition treatment for _____ ______ ______:

1) IV glucose, lipids, protein
- 1 - 1.3 g/kg if non catabolic and or initiation of dialysis
2) 25 - 40 cals/kg, BEE x stress factor (1.2 - 1.3) during hypermetabolic conditions. Energy expenditure increases as kidney function declines
3) Low sodium (2-3 grams), replace losses in diuretic phase
4) 8 - 15 mg/kg phosphorus (May need phosphate binders)
5) 2 - 3 grams potassium based on output, serum potassium, dialysis
6) Replace fluid output from previous day pluss 500 mL

A

Acute Kidney injury

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142
Q

_________ ________

1) Defect in capillary basement membrane of glomerulus which permits escape of large amounts of protein into the filtrate moving through the tubules
2) Albuminuria, edema, malnutrition, hyperlipidemia (increased synthesis and lower clearance of VLDL)
3) Abnormalities in iron, copper zinc, calcium related to protein loss

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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143
Q

Nutrition treatment for _________ ________

1) Modest protein restriction: 0.8 - 1 g/kg; 50% from HBV. Excess protein will be catabolized to urea and excreted
2) <30% fat, low saturated fat, 200 mg cholesterol
3) 35 calories /kg/day
4) Modest sodium restriction (2-3 g /day)
5) Calcium 1 - 1.5 g/day, supplement vitamin D
6) May need fluid restriction with edema

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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144
Q

_______ ______ _______

1) anorexia, weakness, weight loss, nausea, vomiting
2) anemia due to deficient production of hormone erythropoiein by kidney

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

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145
Q

_______ ______ _______

1) 25 - 25 kcal / kg or BEE x activity facto. adjust for weight gain or loss
2) <2400 mg/day sodium
3) Protein restricted when GF mL/minute falls
4) Supplement phosphorus
5) Potassium generally not restricted unless serum level is elevated and urine output is < 1 liter per day
6) Fluid generally unrestricted

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

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146
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
Stage 1 GFR >=90
Stage 2 GFR 60 - 89
Stage 3 GFR 30 - 59
Stage 4 GFR 15 - 29
Stage 1-2 0.8-1.4 g protein/kg
Stage 3-4 0.6-0.8 g protein/kg
A

Chronic Kidney Disease

147
Q

_______ ______ _______
Stage 1-2 Supplement Phosphorus to maintain normal serum level
Stage 3-4 800-1000 mg/day or 10-12 mg/g protein

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

148
Q

___ _____ _____ _______ (ESRD)

1) usually associated with a BUN >100 mg/dL and Cr 10-12 mg/dL
2) Retention of nitrogen metabolites - may use Giovanetti diet - 20 grams protein (HBV), increase calories; control edema, prevent deficiencies

A

End Stage Renal Disease

149
Q

____________

a) 1.2 grams protein/kg SBW (standard body weight), at least 50% HBV
b) < 60 years 35 calories/kg
c) >= 60 years or obese 30 - 35 calories/kg
d) >= 1 liter fluid output: 2 - 4 grams sodium and 2 L fluid
e) < 1 liter fluid output: 2 grams sodium and 1 - 1.5 L fluid
f) Anuria: 2 grams sodium and 1 L fluid
g) 40 mg/kg IBW 2-3 grams) potassium
h) Calcium: individualized with maximum 2 grams elemental total
i) 800 - 1000 mg phosphorus or < 17 mg/kg IBW or SBW
j) vitamin C, B6, folate, B12 supplements: DRI for others
k) zinc DRI 8-11 mg/day, individualize for iron and vitamin D

A

Hemodialysis

150
Q

__________ ________
a) 1.2-1.3 grams protein/kg SBW or adjusted BW; >=50% HBV
b) < 60 years of age 35 calories/kg including dialysate
>= 60 years of age 30 - 35 calories/kg
c) 2-3 grams sodium - based on blood pressure and weight
d)Potassium generally unrestricted (usually 2 - 4 grams)
e) =< 2000 mg total elemental calcium including diet and binders
f) 800 - 1000 mg phosphorus or 10 - 15 mg phosphorus / g protein
g) 1 - 3 L fluid depending on output, cardiac status
h) CAPD - continuous ambulatory pertioneal dialysis 4 - 5 x per dat
i) VM as for for hemodialysis except thiamin

A

Peritoneal dialysis

151
Q

_______ ________
Type _ - Insulin deficient, depend on exogenous insulin
Type _ - Insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency (may need insulin)
Risk factor: acanthosis nigricans (gray brown skin pigmentation in skin folds), GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies)

A

Diabetes Mellitus, 1, 2

152
Q

Normal blood glucose __ - 100 mg/dL
Impaired fasting glucose __ - 125
Impaired glucose tolerance ___ - 199

A

70, 100, 140

153
Q
Diabetes Diagnosis
Fasting Plasma glucose >= \_\_\_
Glucose tolerance test >= \_\_\_
Symptoms of diabetes plus casual plasma glucose >= \_\_\_ mg/dL
HgbA1c >= \_\_\_ %
A

126, 200, 200, 6.5

154
Q

____________ (glycated) __________ (HbA1c)

a) measures % of hemoglobin that has glucose attached
b) normal <5.7%; over 65 years

A

Glycosylated Hemoglobin

155
Q

Goals for all diabetics

a) Maintain normal blood glucose (average pre - prandial goal __ - 130; peak post - prandial average < ___)
b) Optimal serum lipid levels: LDL < ___, TG < ___, HDL > __(M) >__ (F)
c) Blood pressure goals systolic < ___, diastolic

A

70, 180, 100, 150, 40, 50, 130 80

156
Q

Strategies for Type _ diabetics

a) With fixed daily doses of insulin, consistency of CHO is recommended
b) Integrate insulin therapy with usual eating habits
c) Monitor blood glucose and adjust insulin doses for amount of food eaten
d) With intensive insulin therapy, adjust pre - meal insulin dosage based on total CHO content of each meal, usin an insulin to CHO ratioe
e) for planned exercise, reduction in insulin dosage may be best choice
f) Endurance athletes: 120 - 18 mg/dL is guideline during activity

A

1

157
Q

Strategies for Type _ diabetes

a) Achieve glucose, lipid and blood pressure goals
b) Weight loss if necessary: improve food choices, space meals, exercise

A

2

158
Q

General nutrition recommendations for _______:

  • Macronutrient distribution based on DRI’s for healthy adults
  • <7% total calories as saturated fat
  • Trans fat intake should be minimized
  • Encourage fiber intake
  • sucrose may be substituted for other CHO
A

Diabetes

159
Q

__________ ________ risk factors include BMI >30 and a history of GDM

A

Gestational diabetes

160
Q

___________ _______

a) at 24 - 28 weeks of gestation, screen with 50 g oral glucose load; glucose >= 140 mg/dL indicates need for further testing
b) 40-45% CHO, 3 small medium sized meals and 2 - 4 snakcs
c) DRI for CHO during pregnancy is 175 g / day
d) 15 - 30g CHO at breakfast (less well tolerated), rest divided evenly
e) increases risk of fetal macrosomia (LGA large for gestational age), fetal hypoglycemia at birth
f) overweight/obese: modest energy restriction to slow weight gain

A

Gestational Diabetes

161
Q

________ _____ compares blood glucose response of a food to a standard glucose load

1) Affected by cookin methods and processing of starch; as particle size decreases, the index increases
2) Foods with low index: legumes, milk, whole grains, fruits, vegetables
3) Glycemic load: weighted average of the glycemic indexes of all foods eaten
4) Use of index as a method fro weight loss or weight maintenance is not currently recommended
5) No significant effect on A1c with a low glycemic diet for longer than 12 weeks

A

Glycemic Index

162
Q

1 serving bread contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

15, 3, 1, 80

163
Q

1 serving of fruit contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

15, 0, 1, 60

164
Q

1 serving of fat free milk contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

12, 8, 0-3, 100

165
Q

1 serving of reduced fat milk contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

12, 8, 5, 120

166
Q

1 serving of Whole milk contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

12, 8, 8, 160

167
Q

1 serving of sweets contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

15, varies, varies, varies

168
Q

1 serving of non starchy vegetables contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

5, 2, 0, 25

169
Q

1 serving of lean meat contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

0, 7, 2, 45

170
Q

1 serving of medium fat meat contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

0, 7, 5, 75

171
Q

1 serving of high fat meat contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

0, 7, 8, 100

172
Q

1 serving plant based proteins contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

varies, 7, varies, varies

173
Q

1 serving of fat contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

0, 0, 5, 45

174
Q

1 serving of alcohol contains __ g CHO, _ g Protein, _ g Fat, __ calories

A

varies, 0, 0, 100

175
Q

Free foods for diabetics contain < __ calories and < _ g CHO per serving

A

20, 5

176
Q

_____________ ________ gives flexibility in food choices
1) one choice from the starch, fruit or milk list - 15 grams CHO and each is a CHO choice; meal plan outlines the number of CHO choices to be selected for meals and snacks

A

Carbohydrate counting

177
Q

Types of _______

1) Bolus (premeal or prandial
2) Basal (background)

A

Insulin

178
Q

_____: Premeal or prandial insulin

a) Rapid acting: aspart (Noovolog), Lispro (Humalog); takes 5 - 15 minutes before eating, usual duration 4 hours
b) short - acting: regular (Humulin R); take 30 - 45 minutes before meal (burst of insulin to cover the meal just about to be eaten). One unit covers 10 - 15 grams CHO; duration 3 - 6 hours

A

Bolus

179
Q

____, background insulin

a) intermediate acting: NPH (Humulin N, Novolin N, ReliOn) onset 2 - 4 hours, duration 10 - 16 hours, cloudy in appearance
b) long acting: Glargine (Lantus), Determir (Levemir) onset 2 - 4 hours, duration 18 - 24 hours

A

Basal

180
Q

Conventional _____ or _____ dose insulin regimen

1) Regular + NPH twice a day
- Pre breakfast - 1/3 reg, 2/3 NPH; pre supper - equal Reg + NPH
2) regular + NPH pre breakfast, regular pre supper, NPH bedtime (to control early AM surge)

A

Split, Mixed

181
Q

_______ _____ __________ (MDI) Basal insulin once or twice daily and rapid acting bolus before meals

A

Multiple Daily Injections

182
Q

__________ _________ _______ ________ (CSII) insulin pump therapy provides steady, measured continuous dose of basal, and a surge (bolus) dose of insulin before meals

A

Continuous Sustained Insulin Infusion

183
Q

____ glucose lowering medication include

1) Insulin secretagogues
2) Biguanides
3) Thiazolidinediones
4) Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
5) Glucagon-like peptide - 1 (GLP - 1) agonist
6) Amylin agonist
7) DPP - 4 Inhibitors
8) SGLT - 2 inhibitors

A

Oral

184
Q

_______ _____________ include sulfonylureas glipizide (glucotrol), meglitinides glinides (prandin)

A

Insulin secretagogues

185
Q

__________ include metformin (glucophage) and suppress hepatic glucose production, as well as increase insulin uptake in muscles

A

Biguanides

186
Q

__________________ (Actos) improve peripheral insulin sensitivity

A

Thiszolidinediones

187
Q

_____ ___________ __________ include acarbose (precose) that inhibit enzymes that digest CHO, delaying absorption

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

188
Q

________ ____ _______ - 1 (GLP - 1) agonists like exenatide (Byetta) enhances insulin secretion, suppresses postprandial glucagon secretion

A

Glucagon - like peptide - 1

189
Q

______ _______ include pramlintide (symlin) and decrease glucagon release, suppresses appetite

A

Amylin agonist

190
Q

___ - 4 __________ include saxagliptin (Onglyza), often used with metformin, reduces glucose released by liver overnight and between meals

A

DPP - 4 Inhibitors

191
Q

____ - 2 __________ include canagliflozin (Invokana), dapagliflozin (Farxiga), empaglyflocxin (Jardiance) target blood glucose lowering action in kidneys, by blocking a protein that returns glucose to the blood after it is filtered through the kidney

A

SGLT - 2 Inhibitors

192
Q

____ __________ is a natural increase in early morning blood glucose and insulin requirements due to increased glucose production in liver after overnight fast
1) increased need for insulin at dawn

A

Dawn Phenomenon

193
Q

Complications of uncontrolled ______

1) Acute ketoacidosis
2) Acute hypoglycemia
3) Neuropathy
4) Retinopathy
5) Nephropathy

A

Diabetes

194
Q

_____ ____________: hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency or excess carbohydrate intake, dehydration due to polyuria, increased pulse, fruity odor of ketones

A

Acute Ketoacidosis

195
Q

_____ ____________: insulin reaction (shock) due to insulin excess or lack of eating, slow pulse, cool, clammy skin, hungry, weak, shakiness, sweating

1) begin with 15 g CHO from glucose tablets, fruit juice (4-6 oz), sugar
2) wait 15 minutes; if still < 70 mg/dL, give another 15 grams
3) Repeat and treat until blood glucose is normal

A

Acute hypoglucemia

196
Q

__________ - peripheral and autonomic; astroparesis

A

neuropathy

197
Q

___________ - leads to blindness

A

retinopathy

198
Q

___________ - leads to decreased kidney function

A

nephropathy

199
Q

________ hypoglycemia occurs when

a) overstimulation of pancreas or increased insulin sensitivity; blood glucose falls below normal 2 - 5 hours after eating (<50 mg/dL)
b) weak trembling, extreme hunger
c) goal is to prevent marked rise in blood glucose that would stimulate more insulin
d) avoid simple sugars, 5 - 6 small meals / day, spread intake of CHO throughou the da, protein at RDA levels

A

Reactive

200
Q

_______ _____ Insufficiency, more commonly known as _________ disease

a) atrophy of adrenal cortex; symptoms due to absence of adrenal hormones
b) decreased cortisol (glycogen depletion, hypoglycemia), aldosterone (sodium loss, potassium retention, dehydration), and androgenic (tissue wasting, weight loss)
c) Dier - high protein, frequent feedings, high salt

A

Adrenal cortex, addison’s

201
Q

_______ disorders include

_____ and ____ thyroidism

A

Thyroid, hyper, hypo

202
Q

_______________ is excess secretion of thyroid hormone

1) elevated T3 and T4
2) Increased BMR leading to weight loss
3) Diet, increase calories

A

Hyperthyroidism

203
Q

______________ is deficiency of thyroid hormone

1) T4 low, T3 low or normal
2) Decreased BMR leading to weight gain
3) Diet - weight reduction

A

Hypothyroidism

204
Q

A ______ is an enlargement of the thyroid gland due to insufficient thyroid hormone

A

goiter

205
Q

An _______ goiter is due to inadequate ______ intake

a) diet - _______ salt; free of goitrogens (contain goitrin which inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormone)

A

endemic, iodine, iodized

206
Q

____ is a disorder of purine metabolism

a) Increased serum uric acid; deposit in joints causing pain, swelling
b) diet - low purine may not be effective; may need weight reduction
c) Mediations (urate eliminant, colchicine) induce loss of nutrients

A

Gout

207
Q

Nutrition therapy for ____ includes: Moderate protein, liberal CHO, low to moderate fat, decrease alcohol, liberal fluid, avoid high purine foods (broth, anchovies, sardines, organ meats, sweetbreads, herring, mackerel)

A

Gout

208
Q

___________ due to missing enzyme that would have converted galactose - 1 - PO4 into glucose - 1 - PO4

1) treated solely by diet - galactose and lactose free
2) NO organ meats, MSG extenders, milk, lactose, galactose, whey, casein, dry milk, curds, calcium or sodium caseinate, dates, bell peppers
3) OKAY soy, hydrolyzed casein, lactate, lactic acid, lactalbumin, pure MSG

A

Galactosemia

209
Q

____ _____ _______

1) Unable to synthesize urea from ammonia resulting in ammonia accumulation
2) Vomiting, lethargy, seizures, coma, anorexia, irritability
3) diet - protein restriction (1.0, 1.5, 2.0 g/kg based on tolerance, age, projected growth rate) to lower ammonia; therapeutic formulas to adjust protein composition to limit ammonia production
4) Example: OTC Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency

A

Urea Cycle Defects

210
Q

_______________ (PKU) etiology

a) missing enzyme - phenylalanine hydroxylase - which would convert phenylalanine into tyrosine; phenylalanine and metabolites accumulate leading to poor intellectual function
b) detected with Guthrie blood test

A

Phenylketonuria

211
Q

_______________ (PKU) diet

a) restrict the substrate phenylalanine (PHE), supplement the product tyrosine (TYR). Tyrosine becomes a conditional amino aci.
b) Low in phenyl alanine, but provide enough to promote normal growth (1. Phenex 1,2, Phenyl - Free 1,2 (low phenylalanine formulas))
c) avoid aspartame

A

Phenylketonuria

212
Q

In _______________ (PKU) the need for phenylalanine decreases with age or infection. Low protein, high CHO intakes may lead to increased dental caries

A

Phenlketonuria

213
Q

________ _______ _______

1) Deficiency of glucose - 6 - phosphate in liver; impairs gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
2) Liver can’t convert glycogen into glucose leading to hypoglycemia
3) Provide a consistent supply of exogenous glucose with raw cornstarch at regular intervals, anda high CHO, low fat diet

A

Glycogen storage disease

214
Q

______________

1) treatable inherited disorder of amino acid metabolism
2) characterized by severe elevations of methionine and homocystine in plasma, and excessive excretion of homocystine in urine
3) associated with low levels of folate, B6, B12
4) Newly diagnosed patients receive increased doses of folate, pyridoxine (B6), B12
5) If they don’t respond: low protein, low methionine diet

A

Homocystinurias

215
Q

_____ _____ _____ _______ (MSUD)

1) Inborn error of metabolism of the BCAAs leucine, isoleucine, valine
2) Poor sucking reflex, anorexia, FTT, irritability, sweet burtn maple syrup odor of sweat and urine
3) Restrict BCAA 45 - 62 mg/day (may use MSUD powder)
4) Provide adequate energy from CHO and fat to spare amino acids
5) Include small amounts of milk to support growth; gelatin may be used
6) avoid eggs, meat, nuts, and other dairy products

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

216
Q

_________ - inflamation of peripheral joints

a) regular well balanced diet with vitamin intake at DRI
b) bed rest, aspirin, reduce overweight to decrease stress
c) normocytic anemia may develop
1) not diet related, inflammation of arthritis prevents reuse of iron
2) “Anti - inflammatory diet” may help osteoarthritis: fresh fruits and vegetables, resembles Mediterranean diet

A

Arthritis

217
Q

________ _____ ____________ (SLE)

a) no specific dietary guidelines, tailor to needs
b) may have dietary deficiencies of iron, folate, calcium, fiber, B12
c) may have anemia but does not correlate with iron intake
d) may show symptoms of celiac disease

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

218
Q

___________ resorb and remove bone; ___________ reform bone

A

osteoclasts, osteoblasts

219
Q

____________ - loss of bone tissue

1) Type 1 postmenopausal (within 15 - 20 years), Type II age associated >70
2) White and Asian women more than black or Hispanic
3) Causes: Malnutrition (especially protein), lack of exercise, decline in estrogen
4) Result is reduction in amount of bone due to defective calcium absorption (deossification)

A

Osteoporosis

220
Q

Treatment for ____________; _______ ___________ _______ (HRT), weight bearing execise, Vitamin D (400 800 mg) and calcium (>= 1200 mg, don’t exceed 500 - 600 mg at one time) supplements, adequate protein, moderate to low sodium, 5 servings of fruit and vegetables

A

Osteoporosis, Hormone Replacement Therapy

221
Q

____________ -adult rickets

1) Vitamin D deficiency - lack of sunlight or diet intake
2) Reduction in bone density - demineralization
3) Vitamin D, calcium supplements

A

Osteomalacia

222
Q

________ - seizures, altered consciousness

A

Epilepsy

223
Q

_______________ phenobarbitaql and phenytoin (Dilantin) intefere with calcium absorption

1) Take 1 mg folate daily with drug
2) may nneed supplements of vitamin D, calcium, thiamin
3) provide phenytoin separate from meals and other supplements
4) Enteral feedings decrease bioavailibility of pheytoin so hold tune feedings >=2 hours

A

Anticonvulsants

224
Q

_________ diet - high fat, very low carbohydrate, _ grams fat : _ gram non fat

1) __% calories from fat, _ g protein /kg, remaining calories from CHO
2) Ketone bodies behave as inhibitory neurotransmitters; mild dehydration
3) Need supplements of Ca D, folate, B6, B12
4) MCTs are more ketogenic, more rapid metabolism and absorption

A

Ketogenic, 4:1, 90, 1

225
Q

________ _____ is non hereditary, brain damage; inadequate control over voluntary muscles leading to spasms

A

Cerebral Palsy

226
Q

In the _______ form of cerebral palsy:

a) difficult, stiff movement; limited activity; obese
1) low calorie, high fluid, high fiber diet

A

Spastic

227
Q

In the ___ - _______ (athetoid) form:
Involuntary worm like movement, constant irregular motions leading to weight loss
1) High calorie, high protein diet; finger foods

A

Non - spastic

228
Q

In a ______ ____ injury

1) Energy needs are 10% below predicted
2) at least 1.5 L fluid per day
3) Pressure ulcers: 30 - 40 cal/kg
a) 1.2 - 1.5 protein/kg in stage I and II; 1.5 - 2g in stages III, IV
b) normal intake of calcium, adequate fluids
c) supplement vitamin C (500 - 1000 mgs with stage III or IV or if deficient)
d) Zn 15 mg (220 mg zinc sulfate) with stages III, IV for 2 - 3 weeks
e) Daily dietary source of vitamin A

A

Spinal Cord

229
Q

_________ _______ ______________ ________ (ADHD)

a) Experimental treatment - feingold diet - no salicylates, artificial colors, artificial flavors. Efficacy not proven: positive result may be due to placebo effect
b) sugar does not cause hyperactivity
c) Provide wholesome foods at regular mealtimes with small servings followed by refills
d) Adderall side effects: lack of appetite, nausea, weight loss
e) If child is underweight, consider high calorie snacks at bedtime

A

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

230
Q

______ ________ _________

Unnecessary food restrictions, possible food aversions, excessive supplementation can place children with ASD at risk

A

Autism Spectrum Disorders

231
Q

__________ _______

a) avoid distractions (no TV during meals); regular consistent mealtimes, encourage self-feeding, offer one course at a time, lower saturated fats, soft calming background music, finger foods may be helpful, avoid dehydration, may need verbal cues to chew and swallow
b) anomia, form of aphasia lost words, unable to recall names of common items

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

232
Q

______

Decrease in total red cell ass due to fewer red blood cells or to smaller cells with less hemoglobin

A

Anemia

233
Q

__________ ___________ ______
Small, pale cells; due to iron deficiency
a) associated with chonic infections, malignancies, renal disease

A

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia

234
Q

__________ _____________ ______
FEW large cells, filled with hemglobin
a) due to deficiency of folate or vitamin B12; Schilling test for pernicious anemia

A

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia

235
Q
In \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ anemia
RBC: may be normal
Hgb: low
Hct: low
MCV: low <80
MCH: low
MCHC: low <31
A

Microcytic, hypochromic

236
Q
In \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ anemia:
RBC: decreased
Hgb: low
Hct: low
MCV: high >95
MCH: high
MCHC: Normal >31
A

Macrocytic

237
Q

To supplement ____ in anemia, some foods high in ____ include: liver, kidney, beef, dried fruits, dried peas and beans, nuts, leafy green vegetables, fortified whole grain products

A

Iron, Iron

238
Q

Typical American diet contains _ mg iron / 1000 calories

A

6

239
Q

Ag - Ab reaction: when _______ enters the body, ________ reacts

A

Antigen, antibody

240
Q

In allergies there is an ______________ E (IgE) mediated reaction to normally harmless food protein

a) common allergens - peanuts, eggs, milk soy, whet, shellfish
b) Cow’s milk protein is the most common single allergen for infants
c) introduce eggs at __ months of age; earliest age of peanut introduction 4 - 6 months of age

A

Immunoglobumin

241
Q

_____ is a genetic predisposition to produce excessive IgE antibodies in response to an allergen

A

Atopy

242
Q

_______ diagnosis include things like diet history, skin tests, elimination diet (omit suspected foods)

A

Allergy

243
Q

___ - ____ blood test is specific in identifying children with milk, egg, fish, and peanut allergies

A

CAP - FEIA

244
Q

______ - double blind, placebo - controlled food challenges, identify food induced symptoms (gold standard for diagnosis)

A

DBPCFC

245
Q

____ (alternative to skin test) serum is mixed with food on paper disk; measures specific IgE antibodies

A

RAST

246
Q

____ is food least likely to cause an allergy

A

Rice

247
Q

____ ___________ (NON - IgE): Abnormal physiologic response, GI, cutaneous, respiratory symptoms, but NO antibody production

A

Food Intolerance

248
Q

_____ and _________ excessive fluid loss may lead to dehydration (hyperglycemia, dry, loose inelastic ski); IV feedings of dextrose and water, then diet high in calories and fluids
-BMR increases 7% for each degree rise in F temp; normal temp 98.6 F

A

Fever and Infection

249
Q

_____
A) Immediate shock period - catabolism; BMR rises 50 - 100%
1) replace fluids and electrolytes lost
2) Recovery period - increase calories (based on burn size)
3) Secondary period - 1.5 - 2 grams protein/kg (1.2 if ____ <10%BSA), high calories
a) vitamin C - wound healing, 500 mg x 2
b) water soluble vitamins 2x RDA, vitamin A 10000 IU
c) vitamin K if on antibiotics
d) zinc for wound healing if zinc deficient, 220 mg zinc sulfate

A

Burn, burn

250
Q

___ and ____ response to injury - hypermetabolic, catabolic response following trauma (accelerated catabolism of lean body mass leading to negative nitrogen balance as protein is catabolized to release glucose for energy)

a) ___ phase: hypovolemia, shock, tissue hypoxia
b) ____ phase: follows fluid resuscitation and return of oxygen transport
c) Results of physiologic trauma: hyperglycemia, hyperinsulinemia, little or no ketosis, increased glucagon

A

Ebb, flow, ebb, flow

251
Q

Hormones involved in __ and ____ response to injury

1) Catecholamines epinephrine, norepinephrine - hepatic glycogenolysis
2) ACTH - releases cortisol which metabolizes amino acids from muscle
3) aldosterone - Renal sodium retention, glucogenesis
4) ADH - renal water absorption
5) Hypovolemia, decreased cardiac output, drop in body temperature
6) Hyperglycemia - epinephrine suppresses insulin, insulin resistance (decreased cell uptake and use)
7) fluid and sodium retention, potassium excretion, loss of nitrogen, sulfur, zinc, phosphorus

A

Ebb and flow

252
Q

__________ disease

1) Protein calorie malnutrition, malabsorption, fluid and electrolyte imbalances
a) altered taste acuity: add flavorings and seasonings
b) meat aversions may require elimination of red meat
c) thrush from oral infection: avoid spicy, acidic, strongly flavored foods
1) Provide bland liquids, soft foods, chilled or frozen foods
d) Throat or neck cancer - use PEG feeding
e) Cancer cachexia (generalized wasting) connected to cytokines and the tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

A

Neoplastic

253
Q

Treatment for __________ disease (cancer)

a) Radiation - loss of taste, xerostomia (dry mouth, so moisten food), esophagitis, diarrhea, malabsorption
1) Mucositis - inflammation of mucosal lining of oropharynx and esophagus
- Avoid fresh, raw, uncooked foods, offer cold and soft food
b) Chemotherapy - chemical reagents which have toxic effects
1) nausea, vomitin, malabsorption, anorexia
2) stomatitis - crack in skin at mouth corners, riboflavin deficiency
3) Methotrexate - anti - folate drug

A

Neoplastic

254
Q

_____________ data in __________ disease (cancer)

a) Interrelationship between host, agent, environment in causing disease
b) some evidence that fruits and vegetables are beneficial in overall cancer prevention (carotenoids, vitamin C)
c) some evidence that exercise in post menopausal women decreases risk of breast disease

A

Epidemiologic, neoplastic

255
Q

________ is malnutrition typified by protein and calorie starvation

1) anthropometric diagnosis, serum albumin normal, no edema
2) severe fat and muscle wasting, starved appearance
3) triceps skinfold, arm and muscle circumference decreased

A

Marasmus

256
Q

__________ malnutrition: protein calorie malnutrition

1) brought on by treatment, hospital, medications

A

Iatrogenic

257
Q

________ _______

a) distorted body image, dramatic weight loss, preoccupation with food and weight gain
b) therapy is multidisciplinary; weight restoration and psychotherapy

A

Anorexia nervosa

258
Q

Treatment for ________ _______

1) Correct electrolyte imbalance
2) Plan with patient, regular mealtimes, varied and moderate intake, gradually reintroduced feared foods
3) Focus on health benefits and life sustaining aspects of food (reason to eat)
4) Re-feeding increases cardiac load - go slowly
5) Recommend initial daily calorie levels range from 1000 - 1600 (30 - 40 cals/kg), but may need to be set 100 - 300 calories above the current level of intake to support adherence

A

Anorexia nervosa

259
Q

_______

  • Gorging and vomiting syndrome, usually close to normal weight
    1) Damage to teeth, throat, esophagus, rectal bleeding, bruised knuckles from purgin with fingers, low potassium and chloride blood levels
A

Bulimia

260
Q

Obesity BMIs
Class I __ - 34.9
Class II 35 - ____
Class III >= __

A

30, 39.9, 40

261
Q

____ calories = to _ lbs body fat

A

3500, 1

262
Q

For obesity weight loss reduce average caloric intake by ___ calories per day

A

500

263
Q

_______ treatment - reduced caloric intake, exercise, behavior modification
1) Realistic weight loss goals: up to 2 lbs per week, up to 10% of baseline BW, or a total of 3% to 5% of baseline weight if cardiovascular risk factors are present

A

Obesity

264
Q

_______ _________ strategies for _______

1) 1200 - 1500 cal/day for women; 1500 - 1800 cal/day for men
2) Energy deficit of approximately 500 - 750 calories / day
3) One of the evidence based diets restricting certain food types (high fat foods, high CHO foods) in order to create an energy deficit by reduced food intake
4) Small food based changes: changes in SSB, sugar sweetened beverages can assist with weight management
5) Meal replacements for weight loss may be recommended if the client has difficulty with portion control

A

Calorie Reduction, Obesity

265
Q

Physical activity recommendations for obesity: ___ to ___ minutes per week for loss; for weight maintenance, ___ to ___ minutes per week

A

150, 420, 200, 300

266
Q

_______ medication approved for long term use (up to 2 years)

1) Orlistat: lipase inhibitor, take with diet 30% cals as fat, vitamin supplements
2) Lorcaserin: aggonist of serotonin, enhances satiety
3) Phentermine / topiramate: Appetite suppressant, releases norepinephrine

A

Obesity

267
Q

_________ __________ interventions: weight maintenance is usually recommended in overweight children 2 - 5 years of age with a multicommponent weight management intervention with active participation of the parent
- Weight loss may be recommended when the child has serious medical conditions

A

Pediatric Obesity

268
Q

The ____ ______ ____ theory is the belief that localized exercise reduces fat stores in the active area - research does NOT support this notion

A

Spot weight loss theory

269
Q

When a dieter reaches a plateau, ___ will drop to reflect the weight loss

A

BMR

270
Q

Bariatric surgery treatment is provided to those with class ___ obesity with a BMI of __ or greater, or a BMI of __ or greater with comorbidities

A

III, 40, 35

271
Q

_______ ______ permanently alters the anatomy of the GI tract
1) Reduces the amount of food that can be eaten at one time and produces early satiety

A

Gastric Bypass

272
Q

____ - __ - _ (RYGB) reconstructs the small intestine to resemble the letter Y

1) Creates a small gastric pouch connected directly to the jejunum
2) Dumping syndrome may develoo
3) Supplemental calcium in divided doses 1200 - 1500 mg, vitamin D 3000 IU, 45 - 60 mg iron taken apart from calcium, chewing of ice may be a sign of iron deficiency
- Greater need for protein
- multivitamin, multimineral supplement with 100% DRI for vitamin K, zinc, thiamine, folic acid, copper, biotin, iron

A

Roux - en -Y

273
Q

______ ___________ (SG)

1) about 80% of stomach removed
2) food pathway not altered
3) vitamin supplementation, monitor iron, calcium, and vitamin D levels

A

Sleeve gastrectomy

274
Q

____________ __________ ______ _______ (LAGB)

1) Small gastric pouch created using a fluid filled inflatable band
2) Adjusted to alter the size of the opening (fully reversible)
3) Restrics total amount of food eaten at one time
4) No surgery - induced malabsorption of nutrient. Deficiencies linked to decreased food intake and decreased food tolerance

A

Laparoscopic Adjustable Gastric Banding

275
Q

______ _____ ________

1) Chromosome 15 deletion
2) Congential disorder, subnormal LBM, supra - normal body fat
3) Ghrelin levels are elevated which stimulates growth hormone secretion, appetite, intake, and fat mass deposition
4) do not sense satiety, decreased energy requirements
5) Obesity at 2 - 3 years of age, hypogonadism, muscle hypotonia, failure to thrive, short stature
6) Best treatment is to control food intake

A

Prader Willi syndrome

276
Q

______ ______ bacterial enzymes ferment CHO deposits on plaque, enzymes produce acids that demineralize surface

A

Dental caries

277
Q

Low __________ potential foods
-High protein, moderate fat, minimal concentration of fermentable CHO, strong buffer; high mineral content (Ca, P), PH >6, stimulates saliva

A

Cariogenic

278
Q

_____ ________ (sorbitol, xylitol, mannitol) do NOT promote tooth decay

A

Sugar alcohols

279
Q

________ can control caries, supplement starting at 6 months of age if level in water supply is < 0.3 ppm
1) Fluorosis (mottled teeth) with excessive fluoride

A

Fluorine

280
Q

________ recommendations

1) Infants (birth - 6 months): oral supplementation NOT recommended. Use ___________ water if available
2) Infants (6 - 12 months) ___________ water; oral supplements ONLY if prescribed
3) Toddler (12 - 24 months) ___________ water, or oral supplements if prescribed
4) Children (2 - 3 years) ___________ water or supplements as recommended, ________ toothpaste (pea-size)

A

Fluoride, fluoridated, fluoridated, fluoridated, fluoridated, fluoride

281
Q

Infant should not sleep with a ______ - ____ ______ _____ _____ (BBTD), _____ _________ ______ (ECC)

A

Bottle, Baby Bottle Tooth Decay, Early Childhood Caries

282
Q

________ - Inflammation of the mouth (associated with riboflavin deficiency)

a) Avoid very hot, very cold foods, spices, sour/tart foods
b) rinse with lukewarm water after meals

A

Stomatitis

283
Q

___________

a) Treat by decreasing gatric acidity, reflux
b) diet - small, low fat, bland, low fiber, weight reduction

A

Esophagitis

284
Q

_________ - disorder of lower esophageal sphincter motility, does not relax upon swallowing

1) Causes dysphagia - difficulty swallowing
2) Start with pureed moist thick foods, progress to thick liquids

A

Achalasia

285
Q

The ________ _________ ____ (NDD): Specifies diet consistency and liquid viscosity

A

National Dysphagia Diet

286
Q

National Dysphagia Diet _
Pureed, moderate to severe
smoothe, pureed, homogenous, cohesive foods. “Pudding - like”. Blended, whipped, mashed. Avoid gelatin, fruited yogurt, hot cereal with lumps and soup with lumps, ice cream

A

1

287
Q

_________ ____________ ______ (NDD2)
Mild to moderate
Moist, soft textured, easily formed into a bolus, moist, tender ground or diced meats, soft cooked vegetables, soft or canned fruits. Soft pancake okay. No bread, rice, cheese cubes

A

Dysphagia Mechanically Altered

288
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (NDD3)
Transition to regular
Avoid very hard, sticky, crunchy foods, hard fruit and raw vegetables, nuts needs, dry bread and cereals
A

Dysphagia Advanced

289
Q

______ Consistency Dysphagia
Spoon thick, Honey like, nectar like
Thin: includes all beverages: water, ice milk, juices, coffee, tea, gelatin

A

Liquid consistency

290
Q

______ - __________ ______ disease (GERD)

1) Avoid eating before bed, soda, caffeine, acidic foods
2) small, low fat meals, liquids empty more rapidly

A

Gastro esophageal reflux disease

291
Q

_________ _______ _____________ (PIH)

a) Progresses from pre-eclampsia to eclampsia
b) Hypertension, edema of face and hands, proteinuria, rapid weight gain after 20th week; may have convulsion
c) More frequently found in women wth lack of prenatal care, poor diets poor prootein and calcium intakes
d) sodium restriction is NOT recommended for prevention or treatment; sodim needed to maintain normal levels of sodium in plasma during large prenatal expansion of tissues and fluid
e) Proposed association between PIH and calcium deficiency

A

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension

292
Q

___________ __________

  • Severe nausea, vomitin, acidosis, weight loss
    a) Bed rest, small amounts of frequent CHO
A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

293
Q

________ ______ __________ ________ (AIDS)

1) Virus debilitates immune system by attacking lymphocytes
2) diarrhea, malabsorption, nausea, vomiting, weight loss
3) Preserve lean body mass, prevent weight loss, prevent HIV wasting

A

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

294
Q

Nutrition therapy for ____

1) Nutrient needs
a) Energy BEE x 1.3 for asymptomatic
b) Protein: asymptomatic 0.8 g/kg, up to 1.2 - 2.0 g/kg if wasted LBM
c) Vitamin/mineral supplements if needed to correct micronutrient deficiencies

A

AIDS

295
Q

Nutrition Therapy for ____

1) Educate about food saftey
2) HIV infected women should be counseled NOT to breast feed
3) HIV employee - keep info confidential, suggest AIDS education program
4) Follow appropriate universal precaution; need not wear gloves, gowns or masks with general care unless respiratory or strict isolation indicated

A

AIDS

296
Q

Nutrition therapy for ____
1) __________/__________ _______ _____________ __________ (NRTI) including Retrovir, Zidovudine can lead to anemia, loss of appetite, low vitamin B12, copper, zinc, carnitine

A

AIDS, Nucleotide/Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

297
Q

Nutrition therapy for ____
Nutritional supplements should not be routinely recommended and herbal supplementation should be discouraged as adjunctive therapy to conventional care. Use of Vitamin C or St. John’s Wort could result in drug resistance. CAM (complementary alternative medicines) are not inert and may have profound consequences

A

AIDS

298
Q

Pediatric ___

a) High protein, high calorie with supplements needed for weight gain
b) Energy needs: general guidelines plus appropriate stress factors
c) Multivitamins/minerals at doses 1 - 2 x RDA or DRI
d) Lactose restriction if intolerant
e) ___ - __________ _____________ ________ (HALS) may develop from therapy
1) High cholesterol, high TG, insulin resistance, changes in body fat distribution
f) Significant loss of lean body mass can be obscured by edema and HALS

A

HIV, HIV - Associated Lipodystophy Syndrome

299
Q

_______ ___________ _________ _______ (COPD)

  • persistent obstruction of airflow
    a) Emphysema - air sacs (alveoli) lose elasticity; thin cachectic, often older
    1) Difficulty exhaling; air pocket walls expand, thin out, collapse
    b) Chronic bronchitis - Excess mucus production, chronic productive cough
    c) symptoms - weight loss, emaciation, anorexia
A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

300
Q

Nutrition Therapy for ____

1) Maintain stable weight - replete but do not overfeed: High calorie, high protein diet (1 - 1.5 g/kg dry weight, 15 - 20% cals), 30-45% as CHO
2) Small, frequent, mini meals and snacks, easy to prepare and eat, nutrient dense supplements (smoothies, meatloaf, muffins with cream cheese, tuna salad, cereal with fruit)

A

COPD

301
Q

_____ ___________ ________ ________ (ARDS)

a) Lungs no longer able to exchange gases, hypermetabolism, increased energy needs; severely underweight
b) Meet basic nutritional requirements, maintain stable weight, facilitate weaning from mechanical ventilation, without exceeding capacity to clear carbon dioxide
c) Provide adequate but not excessive calories; avoid excess non - protein calories
d) Provide enteral formula containing EPA and GLA (gamma - linoleic acid), and enhanced levels of antioxidant vitamins
e) 1.5 - 2.0 protein/kg BW, maintain lean body mass

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

302
Q

Types of Enteral formulas

1) ________ polymeric
2) _________, chemically defined
3) __________

A

Standard polymeric, elemental, specialized

303
Q

________ _______ Enteral Formula

1) Lecithin may be added as an emulsifier
2) Initiated at full strength at a rate of 10 - 40 mL/hour
3) Modular: ix individual components, adds flexibility
4) Blenderized: whole food, large bore tube, thick intact protein, high residue isotonic osmolality is close to that of blood)

A

Standard Polymeric

304
Q

_________, __________ defined Enteral Formulas

1) Used with malabsorption
2) Pre-digested protein or amiino acids, glucoose or sucrose, small fat, vitamins, minerals, electrolytes
3) Absorbed in proximal intestine, low to no residue, don’t need pancreatic enzyme, high osmolality, poor taste
4) Used with compromised GI function, inability to digest and absorb
5) Alitraq, Peptamen, Vivonex

A

Elemental, chemically defined

305
Q

___________ Enteral Formula

1) Nepro, Novasource Renal - renal
2) Nutre, Pulmocare, Respalor: High fat, low CHO - pulmonary
3) Hepatic Aid II, NutriHep - Liver
4) Glucerna, Diabetisource - diabetes
5) The more __________ the formula the greater the cost

A

Specialized, specialized

306
Q

Tube ____ (opening)

1) Based on viscosity of feeding
2) Large #__ - Blenderized whole foods
3) Small #_ - Ready prepared formulas, more comfortable

A

16, 8

307
Q

Guidelines for _______ Access

1) Anticipate length of time needed, risk of aspiration, patient’s anatomy, clinical status, normal or abnormal digestion and absorption
2) Hang time open systems 4 hours, closed system 24 - 48 hours

A

Enteral

308
Q

Short Term ______ access (_ - _ weeks)

1) Nasogastric tube, normal GI function
2) Continuous Drip - constant, steady rate over 16 - 24 hours, usually with a feeding pump (for those with a compromised GI function or who do not tolerate large volume infusion)
3) Cyclic feeding - Delivered by continuous drip at an increased rate over 8 - 16 hours, often overnight, by pump (for under - nourished, especially older, ambulatory, malnourished patients)
4) Intermittent Drip (pump or gravity) - more mobility
5) Nasoduodenal or Nasojejunal if unable to tolerate gastric feedings
6) Transpyloric: passed by pyloric valve in stomach; used in comatose patients or ones with no gag reflex.

A

Enteral, 3 - 4

309
Q

____ Term Enteral feedings (needed for more than _ - _) weeks
a) PEG inserts tube into stomach through abdominal wall

A

Long, 3 -4

310
Q

When checking for ______ tube placement do NOT use blue dye, use x ray confirmation of tube tip location, or aspirate gastric contents

A

enteral

311
Q

_______ _____ recommendations

1) _ mL water / calorie ingested
2) 1cal/mL formulas are 80-86% water
3) 1.5 cals/mL are 76 - 78% water
4) 2 cals/mL formulas are 69–71% water

A

Enteral Water, 1

312
Q

Check _______ __________ every _ hours during the first __ hours. Then decrease to 6 - 8 hours unless patient is critically ill. If the GRV is > 250 after the second check, consider a prmotility agent. If the GRV 500 mL , hold othe feeding and assess tolerance

A

gastric residual volume, 4, 24

313
Q

Adverse effects of ______ nutrition include

1) Lactose intolerance
2) formula hyperosmolality
3) Rapid infusion causing influx of water into gut
4) Bacterial contamination

A

Enteral

314
Q

mL of enteral formula needed per day = ________ needed / cal/mL

A

calories

315
Q

Enteral formula protein content = __ of daily formula x grams of _______ per liter

A

mL, protein

316
Q

Daily fluid need with enteral feeding = % water in formula x daily formula in __

Subtract formula water from total fluid requirements to determine water ______

A

mLs, flushes

317
Q

Enteral feeding administration rate = Total __ of formula /day / 24 hours

A

mL

318
Q

__________ __________ _________ (PPN)

1) Used with small surface veins
2) Indications - post surgery (when enteral feeding is expected to resume within 5 - 7 days), mild to moderate malnutrition, as supplement to enteral

A

Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition

319
Q

__________ __________ Solutions

1) IV dextrose - 3.4 calories / gram
a) To figure calories (mL x % x 3.4)
b) Highest concentration of dextrose used in peripheral nutrition is 10%
2) Protein 3 - 15% amino acid solutions
3) ___________ ___ ________ (IVFE)
a) 10% 1.1 cqalories/mL
b) 20% 2.0 calories/mL
4) Solutions generally limited to 800 - 900 mOsm

A

Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition, Intravenous Fat Emulsion

320
Q

__________ _________ (PN)

1) Infusion of a hypertonic solution delivered through a central venous catheter
2) Used to achieve an anabolic state when patients are unable to eat by mouth and enteral feeding is not possible
3) Subclavian vein minimizes risk of phlebitis
4) Typical Uses: Altered GI function, Impaired Nutrient Utilization

A

Parenteral Nutrition

321
Q

Note for patients on __________ Nutrition

1) Moderately to severely malnoursihed patients expected to have prolonged periods of GI dysfunction
2) Critically ill hemodynamically stable with paralytic ileus, acute GI bleeds, bowel obstruction
3) Only malnourished cancer patients on therapy who are anticipated to be unable to ingest and absorb adequate nutrients for a period of 7 - 4 days
4) Peritonitis, fistulas
5) Critical care patients if hypermetabolism is expected to last for more than 5 days and enteral support is not possible

A

Parenteral Nutrition

322
Q

A ____________ ________ _______ ________ (PICC) is a catheter used for short or moderate term infusion

A

Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter

323
Q

A _______ ______ ________ (CVC) is a long term central access catheter through the cephalic, subclavian or internal jugular vein into the superior vena cava

A

Central Venous Catheter

324
Q

One primary concern with __________ nutrition is the translocation of bacteria; not feeding through gut allow wall to break down, bacteria move out causing sepsis

A

Parenteral

325
Q

___ __________ ________ ______ (GALT) occurs in some cases of parenteral nutrition or bowel rest. The gut provides 50% of total body immunity. 70 - 80% of toal body immunoglobulin production is secreted across the GI mucosa to defend against pathogenic substances in the GI lumen

A

Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue

326
Q

_________ Protein solution

1) Ratio for anabolism is _ g nitrogen / ___ calories; 1 - 1.5 g protein / kg / day
2) crystalline amino acids _ - __% solution
3) % = number of grams of protein in ___ mL of solution
a) A 3% solution has 3 grams of amino acids / 100 mL

A

Parenteral, 1, 150, 3 - 15, 100

327
Q

__________ Energy Solution

a) __ - __ calories/kg; up to a 70% dextrose solution
1) a __% solution provides ___ g CHO/liter
2) To avoid overfeeding and hyperglycemia, start at =< __ - __ calories /kg
3) Maximum rate of dextrose infusion should not exceed _ to _ mg/kg/minute to prevent hyperglycemia and other complications. Increased blood glucose from excess dextrose increases RQ in ventilated patients and increases infectious complications

A

Parenteral, 35 - 50, 10, 100, 20 - 25, 4 to 5

328
Q

__________ fat solution

a) fat needed for energy to prevent _________ _____ ____ __________ (EFAD)
1) To prevent EFAD give ___ mL of 10% fat emulsion 1 - 2 x week
2) Symptom of EFAD; petechiae (red spots)

A

Parenteral, Essential Fatty Acid Deficiency, 500

329
Q

_____ ________ __________ (TNA) or three in one systems are __________ nutrition solutions that include dextrose, amino acids, and lipids

A

Total Nutrieny Admixures, Parenteral

330
Q

Contraindications for __________ nutrition

1) If alimentary tract can be used
2) If needed only for short time in well nourished
3) During periods of cardiac instabillity
4) If risks inherent in process outweigh benefits

A

Parenteral

331
Q

___________ _______

a) Introduce a minimal amount of FULL STRENGTH enteral feeding at a low rate of __ - __ mL/hour to establish GI tolerance
b) Begin tapering when enteral feedings are providing 33 - 50% of their nutrient requirements
c) Decreaase PN as you increase enteral rate by 25 - 30 mL/hour increments every 8 - 24 hurs to maintain prescribed nutrient levels
d) when patient can tolerate about __% of needs by enteral route, DC PN

A

Transitional Feeding, 30 - 40, 60

332
Q

__ - ______ ________ occurs with aggressive administration of nutrition to the malnourished

a) At risk: anorexia, chronic alcoholism, prolonged fasting, unfed 7 - 10 days, significant weight loss, phosphorus - deficient PN
b) Starved cells take up nutrients, potassium and phosphorus shift into intracellular compartments
c) results in hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia and hypomagnesemia
d) overfeeding PN and dextrose > 5mg/kg/min may lead to hyperglycemia

A

Re - feeding syndrome

333
Q

___________ ________ combines evidence based complementary therapies with conventional (allopathis) treatments to address the social, psychological and spiritual aspects of health and illness

A

Integrative Medicine

334
Q

The ________ ______ for _____________ and ___________ _____ (NCCIH) provides yoga, meditation, herbs and botanicals, traditional healing practices

A

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health

335
Q

_____________ and ___________ ________ (CAM) fall into categories like mind - body medicine, alternative medical systems, acupuncture, oriental medicine, lifestyle and disease prevention, biologically based therapies, herbs and orthomolecular medicine, manipulative and body based systems, chiropractic medicine, biofield systems like therapeutic touch, bioelectric magnetics

A

Complementary and Alternative Medicine

336
Q

__________ medicine addresses the whole person, not just the symptoms, and looks at the underlying cause of disease, engaging patient and practitioner in a partnership for therapy

A

Functional

337
Q

________ health views mental, physical and spiritual aspects of life closely connected and equally important with regard to treatment

A

Holistic

338
Q

_______ _________ _______ (DRI)

- Is an umbrella of nutrient guidelines

A

Dietary References Intakes

339
Q

___________ _______ __________ (RDA)

-Goals for healthy individuals to prevent nutritional deficiency diseases, includes gender, age, life phases

A

Recommended Dietary Allowances

340
Q

_________ ________ ____________ (EAR)

- For 50% of population, used in planning meals for healthy people, assesses group nutritional adequacy

A

Estimated Average Requirement

341
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ (AI) 
- Used when insufficient evidence exists for EAR, RDA
A

Adequate Intake

342
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ (UL)
- Tolerable upper level not associated with adverse side effects in most individuals of a healthy person
A

Upper Limits

343
Q

_______ _________ for Americans - Revised every five years

1) Designed to prevent chronic disease, written by USDA and HHS
2) Community nutrition programs use the guidelines when developing

A

Dietary Guidelines

344
Q

2015 - 2020 _______ _________

a) Healthy eating pattern across the lifespan: Vegetables from all sub - groups, fruits (especially whole), grains (half whole grains), fat - free or low fat dairy, variety of proteins, oils
b) Focus on variety, nutrient density, and amount
c) Limit calories from added sugars (<10% of calories) and saturated fats (<10% of calories) and trans fats, and reduce sodium intake (<2300 mg)
d) Shift to healthier food and beverage choices
e) Support healthy eating patterns for all (home, school, work, communities)
f) Adults need 150 minutes of moderate - intensity physical activity each week (include strengthening activities on 2 or more days). Double the activity time for additional an more extensive health benefits

A

Dietary Guidelines

345
Q

_______ ______ _____ (HEI)

  • USDA’s overall measure of diet quality
    1) Measures how well Americans follow the guidelines
    2) 5 food groups, 4 nutrients (fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium), variety
A

Healthy Eating Index

346
Q

_______ ____ Guidance System

1) Shows essential food groups, and offers recommendations on balancing calories, foods to increase and foods to reduce
2) Build a healthy plate: make half your plate fruits and vegetables, make at least half your grains whole, use skin of 1% milk, vary protein choices
3) Cut back on foods high in solid fats, added sugars, salt

A

MyPlate Food

347
Q

_______ ______ ____

  • National Health Program and Disease Prevention
    1) Identified broad goals and specific objectives for improving
    2) Focuses on disease prevention by changing behaviors
    3) Targets healthy diet and healthy weight as critical goals
    4) ____ goals address nutrition and weight, physical activity, heart disease and stroke, diabetes, oral health, cancer, food safety, and health for seniors
    5) Example of objective
    a) Increase the proportion of adults who meet the objectives for physical activity
A

Healthy People 2020

348
Q

A _____ is an award of financial or direct assistance: anyone can apply; usually lasts over a few years

A

Grant

349
Q

_____ ______ from the federal government are given to states or local communities for broad purposes as authorized by legislation. Recipients have great flexibility in distributing funds.

There are five federal block grant areas

1) Maternal and child health
2) Community services
3) Social services
4) Preventative health services
5) Primary care

A

Block Grants

350
Q

___ _____ Major federal level grant; steps to a healthier US focused on community based health initiatives related to obesity. Directs funds to address asthma, obesity and diabetes prevention

A

CDC Steps

351
Q

Steps in program planning

1) Develop a _______ ________ (philosophy) and _____ / _______ statement
2) Set _____
3) Set __________

A

Mission statement, needs/problem statement, goals, objectives

352
Q

Areas to analyze when developing a _______ statement or a ____ / _______ statement
a) what nutrition services can contribute to the health and well being of the community; what population groups will be served; select and rank the most critical issues; what is the present situation; who says it is a problem; what will happen if nothing is done

A

Mission, needs/problem

353
Q

To ___ _____ in program planning

  • Develop a broad direction and a general purpose (increase quality and years of life)
    a) What health problems have nutritional implications
    b) Determine current nutritional high risk groups and the most critical needs
A

Set goals

354
Q

To ___ __________ set specific measurable (tangible actions within a time frame
Example: Increase the number of women who can identify two risk factors for CHD by 25% in one year.
a) More defined than goals; contain specific target dates for completing specifc projects. Include expected results in quantitative and qualitative terms within a given time frame
b) SMART objectives: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, time frame
c) Guidelines for writing
1) Include who what behavior (measurable or action verb), how much, by whom, when, where
2) Action verbs are measurable: Exercise, select, list, identify, count, produce
3) Not an action verb: appreciate, understand

A

Set objectives

355
Q

To _______ a ____ in program planning
- Evaluate alternative strategies (cost/effective analysis): what are all the possible ways to solve the problem, what resources would be needed to do each alternative, which alternatives are the most feasible, who needs to be involved in choosing which way is best

A

Develop a plan

356
Q

In plan development ______ ___________ controls and coordinates activities, indicates how and at what rate dollars are to be expended.

A

Budget Development

357
Q

Consider the following in ______ preparation
-Expenditures of preceding period, present budget, changes in present budget period, expenditures of present period, budget requests for next period

A

budget

358
Q

Phases of the ______ cycle include

  • Prepare requests
  • Evaluate revenue potential
  • Formulate document
  • Send to legislative body
  • Legislative review and authorization
  • Execute the Budget (run the program)
  • Evaluation and review
A

budget

359
Q

Functions of a __________ budget
-Summarizes program activities performed in terms of the cost of specified accomplishments
Ex: what it costs to screen 200 children for anemia

A

Performance

360
Q

Budget _______
Public health departments derive a portion of their income from general revenue (taxes), and federal, local or foundation grants

A

Funding

361
Q

Program ______________ requires administrative support

  • Realistic budget, staff commitment, support of target population
  • Areas include educating, enabling, and developing skills
A

Implementation

362
Q

_________ in program implementation involves :

  • Increasing awareness, knowledge and options
    a) Scientifically sound information explained to client so they understand reasons for changes you are recommending
    b) to reach large numbers: use media, hotlines, point of choice or point of purchase intervention
    c) In health fairs, evaluate nutritional risk using BMI
A

Educating

363
Q

________ in program implementation

  • Reduces barriers that make it easier for people to act
    a) Enabling interventions relate to the 4 “P’s” of marketing
    b) The product should be acceptable, the place accessible, the price reasonable, and the promotion tailored to enable attention and acceptance
A

Enabling

364
Q

_____ ___________ in program implementation works with competencies necessary to make and sustain new eating habits (psychomotor learning)

a) One on one counseling, small group sessions, school fitness programs, worksite cafeteria programs
b) Teaches how to: select appropriate foods, budget for healthful foods, how to obtain Food Stamps if needed, how to develop new eating behaviors

A

Skill development