Disease of the Bone Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoporosis is a disorder affecting the skeletal system characterised by

A

loss of bone mass.

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2
Q

Bone mineral density decreases with age

A

true

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3
Q

World Health Organisation define osteoporosis as

A

presence of bone mineral density (BMD) of less than 2.5 standard deviations (SD) below the young adult mean density.

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4
Q

Around?% of post-menopausal women will suffer an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

A

Around 50% of post-menopausal women will suffer an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

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5
Q

The major risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender.

A

true

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6
Q

Guidelines recommend using a screening tool such as

A

FRAX or QFracture to assess the 10-year risk of a patient developing a fragility fracture. A patient who has sustained a fragility fracture (e.g. following a Colles’ wrist fracture) should also be assessed for osteoporosis.

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7
Q

To assess the actual bone mineral density what is used?

A

dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used. The DEXA scan looks at the hip and lumbar spine. If either have a T score of < -2.5 then treatment is recommended.

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8
Q

The first-line treatment for osteoporosis is

A

oral bisphosphonate such as alendronate. Other treatments are available but the vast majority of patients are managed with this therapy.

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9
Q

Osteoporosis the first list we should order the following bloods as a minimum for all patients:

A
full blood count
urea and electrolytes
liver function tests
bone profile
CRP
thyroid function tests
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10
Q

risk factors that are used by major risk assessment tools such as FRAX:

A
history of glucocorticoid use
rheumatoid arthritis
alcohol excess
history of parental hip fracture
low body mass index
current smoking
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11
Q

Medications that may worsen osteoporosis (other than glucocorticoids):

A
SSRIs
antiepileptics
proton pump inhibitors
glitazones
long term heparin therapy
aromatase inhibitors e.g. anastrozole
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12
Q

In terms of body systems - what can be a risk for osteoporosis

A

endocrine disorders: hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism (e.g. Turner’s, testosterone deficiency), growth hormone deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, diabetes mellitus
multiple myeloma, lymphoma
gastrointestinal disorders: inflammatory bowel disease, malabsorption (e.g. Coeliac’s), gastrectomy, liver disease
chronic kidney disease
osteogenesis imperfecta, homocystinuria

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13
Q

Which ethnicity higher risk OP

A

Caucasians and Asians

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14
Q

If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture further investigations may be warranted. NOGG recommend testing for the following reasons:

A

exclude diseases that mimic osteoporosis (e.g. osteomalacia, myeloma);
identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors;
assess the risk of subsequent fractures;
select the most appropriate form of treatment

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15
Q

The risk of osteoporosis is thought to rise significantly once a patient is taking the equivalent of

A

prednisolone 7.5mg a day for 3 or more months

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16
Q

if it likely that the patient will have to take steroids for at least 3 months then we should start bone protection straight away, rather than waiting until 3 months has elapsed.

A

true

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17
Q

a patient with newly diagnosed polymyalgia rheumatica. As it is very likely they will be on a significant dose of prednisolone for greater than 3 months what should be commenced immediately.

A

bone protection

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18
Q

Management of patients at risk of corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis

The RCP guidelines essentially divide patients into two groups:

A
  1. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who’ve previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection.
  2. Patients under the age of 65 years should be offered a bone density scan, with further management dependent
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19
Q

Management of patients at risk of corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis &
Patients under the age of 65 years
bone scan results & management???

A

Greater than 0: Reassure
Between 0 and -1.5: Repeat bone density scan in 1-3 years
Less than -1.5: Offer bone protection

The first-line treatment is alendronate. Patients should also be calcium and vitamin D replete.

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20
Q

Osteoporosis: assessing risk

all women aged ? years and all men aged ? years should be assessed

A

all women aged >= 65 years and all men aged >= 75 years should be assessed

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21
Q

Osteoporosis: assessing risk when should younger patients be assessed?

A

previous fragility fracture, history of falls, family history of hip fracture
current use or frequent recent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid
low body mass index (BMI) (less than 18.5 kg/m²)
smoking
alcohol intake of more than 14 units per week for women and more than 14 units per week for men.

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22
Q

NICE recommend using a clinical prediction tool such as ? to assess a patients 10 year risk of developing a fracture

A

FRAX or QFracture

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23
Q

Describe FRAX

A

estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture

valid for patients aged 40-90 years

based on international data so use not limited to UK patients

assesses the following factors: age, sex, weight, height, previous fracture, parental fracture, current smoking, glucocorticoids, rheumatoid arthritis, secondary osteoporosis, alcohol intake
bone mineral density (BMD) is optional, but clearly improves the accuracy of the results.

NICE recommend arranging a DEXA scan if FRAX (without BMD) shows an intermediate result

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24
Q

Describe Qfracture

A

estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture
developed in 2009 based on UK primary care dataset
can be used for patients aged 30-99 years (this is stated on the QFracture website, but other sources give a figure of 30-85 years)
includes a larger group of risk factors e.g. cardiovascular disease, history of falls, chronic liver disease, rheumatoid arthritis, type 2 diabetes and tricyclic antidepressants

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25
Q

There are some situations where NICE recommend arranging BMD assessment (i.e. a DEXA scan) rather than using one of the clinical prediction tools for assessing osteoporosis risk
these are?

A

before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density (for example, sex hormone deprivation for treatment for breast or prostate cancer).

in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor

, such as history of multiple fragility fracture, major osteoporotic fracture, or current or recent use of high-dose oral or high-dose systemic glucocorticoids (more than 7.5 mg prednisolone or equivalent per day for 3 months or longer).

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26
Q

If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement the results (10-year risk of a fragility fracture) will be given and categorised automatically into one of the following:

A

low risk: reassure and give lifestyle advice
intermediate risk: offer BMD test
high risk: offer bone protection treatment

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27
Q

If the FRAX assessment was done witha bone mineral density (BMD) measurement the results (10-year risk of a fragility fracture) will be given and categorised automatically into one of the following:

A

reassure
consider treatment
strongly recommend treatment

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28
Q

If you use QFracture instead patients are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate or high risk. Instead the ‘raw data’ relating to the 10-year risk of any sustaining an osteoporotic fracture. This data then needs to be interpreted alongside either local or national guidelines, taking into account certain factors such as the patient’s age.

A

true

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29
Q

NICE recommend that we recalculate a patient’s risk (i.e. repeat the FRAX/QFracture):

A

if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years, or
when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors

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30
Q

Describe DEXA scan - what does each score mean

A

T score: based on bone mass of young reference population
T score of -1.0 means bone mass of one standard deviation below that of young reference population
Z score is adjusted for age, gender and ethnic factors

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31
Q

Describe T score results

A

> -1.0 = normal
-1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia
< -2.5 = osteoporosis

32
Q

In women aged 75 years or older, a DEXA scan may not be required ‘if

A

the responsible clinician considers it to be clinically inappropriate or unfeasible’

33
Q

treatment is indicated following osteoporotic fragility fractures in postmenopausal women who are confirmed to have osteoporosis

A

true

34
Q

What should be offered to all women undergoing osteoporisis tx

A

vitamin D and calcium supplementation

unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete

35
Q

around ?% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate

why?

A

around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems

36
Q

Patients who cannot tolerate alendronate - what next

A

These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate

37
Q

Patients who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates - what next

A

strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates

38
Q

treatment cut-off tables have been produced in the latest guidelines for patients who do not tolerate alendronate

These take into account

A

patients age, theire T-score and the number of risk factors they have from the following list:
parental history of hip fracture
alcohol intake of 4 or more units per day
rheumatoid arthritis

39
Q

the T-score criteria for risedronate or etidronate are more/less than the others implying that these are the second line drugs

A

less

40
Q

if alendronate, risedronate or etidronate cannot be taken then strontium ranelate or raloxifene may be given based on quite strict T-scores

A

true

41
Q

alendronate, risedronate may be superior to etidronate in preventing

A

hip fractures

42
Q

What is raloxifene?

Side effects?

A

selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
may worsen menopausal symptoms
increased risk of thromboembolic events

43
Q

raloxifene can cause breast cancer

A

false

may decrease risk of breast cancer

44
Q

What is Strontium ranelate?

Side effects?

A

‘dual action bone agent’ - increases deposition of new bone by osteoblasts (promotes differentiation of pre-osteoblast to osteoblast) and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts

due to these concerns the European Medicines Agency in 2014 said it should only be used by people for whom there are no other treatments for osteoporosis
increased risk of cardiovascular events: any history of cardiovascular disease or significant risk of cardiovascular disease is a contraindication
increased risk of thromboembolic events: a Drug Safety Update in 2012 recommended it is not used in patients with a history of venous thromboembolism
may cause serious skin reactions such as Stevens Johnson syndrome

45
Q

Bisphosphonates are

A

analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.

46
Q

Bisphosphonates clinical uses?

A

prevention and treatment of osteoporosis
hypercalcaemia
Paget’s disease
pain from bone metatases

47
Q

Bisphosphonates adverse effects?

A

oesophageal reactions: oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers (especially alendronate)
osteonecrosis of the jaw
increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate
acute phase response: fever, myalgia and arthralgia may occur following administration
hypocalcaemia: due to reduced calcium efflux from bone. Usually clinically unimportant

48
Q

The BNF suggests the following counselling for patients taking oral bisphosphonates

A

‘Tablets should be swallowed whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing; to be given on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medication); patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking tablet’

49
Q

The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies according to the level of risk. Some authorities recommend stopping bisphosphonates at 5 years if the following apply:

A

patient is < 75-years-old
femoral neck T-score of > -2.5
low risk according to FRAX/NOGG

50
Q

Oral bisphosphonates are still given first-line, with oral alendronate being the first-line treatment. If alendronate is not tolerated then NICE recommend using an alternative bisphosphonate - either risedronate or etidronate. Following this the advice becomes more complicated with the next-line medications only being started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria being met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were recommended as next-line drugs in the NICE criteria but following recent safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate it is likely there will be an increasing role for denosumab.

A

true

51
Q

Bone disorders: lab values

Osteoporosis

A

Calcium Normal
Phosphate Normal
ALP Normal
PTH Normal

52
Q

Bone disorders: lab values

Osteomalacia

A

Calcium Decreased
Phosphate Decreased
ALP Increased
PTH Increased

53
Q
Bone disorders: lab values
Primary hyperparathyroidism (→ osteitis fibrosa cystica)
A

Calcium Increased
Phosphate Decreased
ALP Increased
PTH Increased

54
Q

Bone disorders: lab values

Chronic kidney disease (→ secondary hyperparathyroidism)

A

Calcium Decreased
Phosphate Increased
ALP Increased
PTH Increased

55
Q

Bone disorders: lab values

Paget’s disease

A

Calcium Normal
Phosphate Normal
ALP Increased
PTH Normal

56
Q

Bone disorders: lab values

Osteopetrosis

A

Calcium Normal
Phosphate Normal
ALP Normal
PTH Normal

57
Q

What is osteomalacia

A

normal bony tissue but decreased mineral content

58
Q

Osteomalacia in kids

A

rickets

59
Q

osteomalacia types

A
vitamin D deficiency e.g. malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet
renal failure
drug induced e.g. anticonvulsants
vitamin D resistant; inherited
liver disease, e.g. cirrhosis
60
Q

osteomalacia features

A

rickets: knock-knee, bow leg, features of hypocalcaemia
osteomalacia: bone pain, fractures, muscle tenderness, proximal myopathy

61
Q

osteomalacia ix

A
low 25(OH) vitamin D (in 100% of patients, by definition)
raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients)
low calcium, phosphate (in around 30%)
x-ray: children - cupped, ragged metaphyseal surfaces; adults - translucent bands (Looser's zones or pseudofractures)
62
Q

Osteomalacia tx

A

calcium with vitamin D tablets

63
Q

Paget’s disease is

A

disease of increased but uncontrolled bone turnover. It is thought to be primarily a disorder of osteoclasts, with excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity

64
Q

Bones most affected in Paget’s

A

The skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities are most commonly affected.

65
Q

Paget’s disease is common and symptomatic in all patients

A

false

Paget’s disease is common (UK prevalence 5%) but symptomatic in only 1 in 20 patients

66
Q

Paget’s disease risk factors

A

increasing age
male sex
northern latitude
family history

67
Q

Pagets only ?% of patients are symptomatic

A

5%

68
Q

the stereotypical presentation of pagets

A
an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP
classical, untreated features: bowing of tibia, bossing of skull
bone pain (e.g. pelvis, lumbar spine, femur)
69
Q

pagets skull x ray

A

thickened vault, osteoporosis circumscripta

70
Q

Pagets bloods

A

raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) - calcium* and phosphate are typically normal
other markers of bone turnover include: procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline

71
Q

Pagets Indications for treatment

A

bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, periarticular Paget’s

72
Q

Pagets tx

A

bisphosphonate (either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate)

calcitonin is less commonly used now

73
Q

Pagets complications

A
deafness (cranial nerve entrapment)
bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years)
fractures
skull thickening
high-output cardiac failure
74
Q

What is Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta (more commonly known as brittle bone disease) is a group of disorders of collagen metabolism resulting in bone fragility and fractures. The most common, and milder, form of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1

75
Q

Inheritance pattern of Osteogenesis imperfecta

Pathophysiology?

A

autosomal dominant

abnormality in type 1 collagen due to decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides

76
Q

Sx Osteogenesis imperfecta

A
presents in childhood
fractures following minor trauma
blue sclera
deafness secondary to otosclerosis
dental imperfections are common
77
Q

Ix Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone and ALP results are usually normal in osteogenesis imperfecta