Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Family med > deck 8 > Flashcards

deck 8 Flashcards

1
Q

USPSTF aspirin primary prevention recommendation

A

Low-dose recommended for individuals 50-59 who have a 10% or greater 10 year CVD risk + are not at increased risk for bleeding + life expectancy of 10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Interpreting PPD

A

1) 5 or more induration positive in HIV, recent contact w/ TB, imaging evidence of prior TB, organ transplant, immunosuppressed for other reason
2) 10 or more positive if recent immigrant from high prevalence country, injection drug use, employee of high risk setting, lab personnel, children under 4, exposed to adults in high-risk categories
3) 15 or more for normal people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

rapid effusion post knee injury suggests…

A

ACL or tibial fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

indications for arthrocentesis

A

1) unexplained mono arthritis
2) suspected infection
3) unexplained effusion
4) suspected crystal-induced arthritis
5) suspected hemarthrosis
6) symptomatic relief from large painful effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

most common cause of knee pain in people younger than 45

A

patellofemoral syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

patellofemoral syndrome presentation

A

1) peripatellar pain

2) exacerbated by overuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

confirming patellofemoral syndrome

A

compress patella against femur and move it up and down along groove, reproducing pain or crepitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

patellofemoral syndrome treatment

A

NSAIDS

minimize high-impact activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pre patellar bursitis presentation

A

1) anterior knee pain

2) swelling anterior to the patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ottawa knee rules for obtaining knee radiograph

A

Get film if 1 or more is satisfied…

1) Age >55 years
2) isolated tenderness of the patella
3) tenderness at the head of the fibula
4) inability to flex knee to 90 degrees
5) inability to bear weight immediately after injury or in the ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of ACL injury

A

twisting resulting in valgus stress

hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MOA of PCL injury

A

trauma to flexed knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

arthroscopic surgery for non-OA related knee pain?

A

Not been shown to improve outcomes as compared with medicine + physical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rotator cuff tendonitis presentation

A
  • Lateral shoulder pain aggravated by reaching, raising the arm overhead, or lying on the side.
  • Subacromial pain to palpation and with passive/resisted abduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

rotator cuff tear presentation

A
  • Shouldr weakness, loss of function, tendonitis symptoms, and nocturnal pain.
  • similar to tendonitis exam + weakness with abduction and external rotation
  • positive drop arm test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Exam finding specific for rotator cuff tear

A
  • Inability to lower the affected arm smoothly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

bicipital tendonitis/rupture presentation

A

Anterior shoulder pain with lifting, overhead reaching, and flexion; reduced pain after rupture. Bicipital groove tenderness and pain with resisted elbow flexion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adhesive capsulitis

A

Progressive decrease in range of motion, more from stiffness than from pain.
Loss of external rotation and abduction (unable to scratch lower back or fully lift arm straight overhead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AC syndromers

A
  • anterior shoulder pain and deformity, usually from trauma or overuse.
  • localized joint tenderness and deformity (osteophytes, separation); pain with adduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Glenohumeral arthritis

A
  • gradual onset of anterior pain and stiffness.

- anterior joint-line tenderness, decreased range of motion, and crepitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

shoulder asymmetry suggests

A

dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

radiography for shoulder pain?

A

limited usefulness. primary indication is rotator cuff tear (MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

initial management of shoulder tenditis or bursitis

A
  • 2-week trial of an NSAID + rest
  • if no improvement with 4-6 weeks, PT, subacrominal glucocorticoid injection or (rarely) surgery
  • no response to conservative therapy in 6-12 weeks, then consultation with rheumatologist or orthopedist
24
Q

other exam findings in asthma

A
  • chest hyper expansion, prolonged expiratory phase, nasal mucosal thickening, nasal polyps, rhinitis manifested by cobblestoning of the oropharynx
25
Q

CXR for asthma?

A
  • may be needed to exclude other diagnoses but is not recommended as a routine test in the initial evaluation of asthma.
26
Q

how to differentiate COPD vs. asthma in patients w/ smoking history

A
  • DLCO (diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide)

- normal or increased in asthma, and decreased in COPD

27
Q

bronchiectasis vs. asthma

A

think bronchiectasis if heavy sputum production and blood, or crackles + wheezing and peribronchial thickening on CXR

28
Q

mgmt of asthma attack

A
  • short course of systemic glucocorticoids + SABA

- can also give an anticholinergic to enhance bronchidaltor effect of SABA

29
Q

how to monitor asthma attack severity

A

spirometry and/or Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR)

30
Q

interpreting PEFR

A
  • 40-69% = moderate

- < 40% = severe

31
Q

drug asthmatics often have a bad response to

A

bronchoconstriction after taking NSAIDS

- beta-blockers

32
Q

treatment of mild persistent asthma

A
  • low-dose inhaled GC
33
Q

treatment of moderate persistent asthma

A
  • 1 or 2 long-term controllers (low dose inhaled GC + LABA)
34
Q

indication for omalizumab

A
  • reduces exacerbations in patients with severe persistent asthma who have evidence of allergies.
35
Q

complications of poorly controlled asthma during pregnancy

A
  • low birth weight, preeclampsia, premature labor, increased infant mortality
36
Q

mgmt of acute severe asthma exacerbations during pregnancy

A

oral GCs

37
Q

mgmt of exercise induced asthma

A

use SABA 15-30 minutes before start of exercise

38
Q

what to tell obese patient with asthma?

A

lose weight

39
Q

sunscreen and melanoma

A

no clear association

40
Q

melanoma RFs

A
  • much higher in men
41
Q

concerning melanoma diameter

A

6 mm

42
Q

melanoma mgmt

A

wide margin excision biopsy + adjuvant interferon for node positive or very deep

43
Q

Flu vs. URI

A
  • sudden onset of high fever (greater than 102) + sever myalgia + headache.
  • severity of symptoms associated with high fever + myalgia suggest influenza
44
Q

sinusitis features

A
  • purulent nasal discharge
  • UNILATERAL sinus pain/tendenress
  • maxillary toothache
  • poor response to decongestants
  • worsening illness after initial improvement
45
Q

mono presentation

A
  • 1-2 week prodrome of fatigue, malaise, and myalgia followed by adenopathy + sore throat + fever + HSM + lymphocytosis
46
Q

features of ear suggesting ear ache

A

red, opaque, bulging, or retracted

47
Q

symptomatic measures for URIs

A

1) heated vapor (steam from a hot shower)
2) increase fluids
3) salt water gargles
4) relieve congestion with pseudophed or phenylephrine

48
Q

rhinorrhea + sneezing symptomatic management

A

antihistamine or intranasal ipratropium

49
Q

cough + wheezing management

A

inhaled beta-agonist

50
Q

HA, myalgia, malaise management

A

NSAID or acetaminophen

51
Q

codeine and over the counter antitussives evidence?

A

not shown to improve cough with URIs

52
Q

group a strep throat vs. non group a strep throat

A
  • INDISTINGUISHABLE.

- must use clinical prediction tool (Centor score)

53
Q

rapid strep test vs. culture

A

comparable sensitivity and specificity

54
Q

treatment of choice for strep throat

A

10 day course of penicillin

55
Q

viral vs. bacterial sinusitis

A

bacterial more likely to be accompanied by facial pain, purulent nasal discharge, and long symptom duration

56
Q

symptomatic therapy of rhinosinusitis

A

None proven, but often prescribed

  • intranasal steroids to reduce inflammation
  • mucolytic agents (guaifenesin) to reduce viscosity of nasal secretions
  • topical decongestants to reduce mucosal inflammation and improve drainage
57
Q

management of adults with AOM

A

Amoxicillin

Family med (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions