deck 7 Flashcards

1
Q

common cause of folate deficiency

A

alcohol abuse

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2
Q

Rule for spacing out Pap smears

A

if 3 normal in a row, then can space out to every 3 years

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3
Q

Pap smears for vaccinated patients?

A

no change. not known at this time.

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4
Q

management of persistent stiffness post ankle sprain

A

Physical therapy

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5
Q

most common melanoma type

A

superficial spreading

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6
Q

melanoma that grows quickly and invasive is probably

A

nodular melanoma

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7
Q

most common type of melanoma in AA’s/Asians. Found under finger and toenails

A

acral lentiginous melanoma

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8
Q

definition of microscopic hematuria

A

3 or more RBCs/HPF

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9
Q

gross hematuria workup

A
  • can’t assume it’s exercise-induced (although commonly is)

- UA + culture + imaging of upper urinary tract by CT

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10
Q

management of thyroid cancer detected during pregnancy

A

observe until after pregnancy is complete

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11
Q

TSH/T4/T3 in hyperthyroid state

A

low TSH, High T4/T3

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12
Q

early decels due to…

A

fetal head compression

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13
Q

variable decels due to..

A

cord compression

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14
Q

late decels due to…

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

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15
Q

most common cause of hypercalcemia in the ambulatory patient…

A

hyperparathyroidism

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16
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism is mostly caused by…

A

adenoma (benign tumor) of parathyroid glands

17
Q

hypercalcemia workup

A

measure PTH –> 24 hour urinary calcium excretion (differentiates between primary hyperparathyroidism and familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia)

18
Q

hypercalcemic patient with suppressed PTH suggests…

A

malignancy until proven otherwise (suggests that some process is causing calcium to be released from bone or absorbed from the gut despite suppressed PTH. This happens when tumors produce a hormone that mimics the active site of the PTH molecule, particularly in respect to the bone and renal effects, but that have no counter regulatory mechanism for suppression when calcium levels rise).

19
Q

leading cause of severe vision loss in the lederly

A

age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

20
Q

efficacy of CPR

A

15%

21
Q

caveat about sputum

A

color of sputum is not diagnostic of presence of a bacterial infection

22
Q

most common presentation of acute bronchitis

A

cough productive of purulent sputum

23
Q

pneumonia features

A
  • prolonged fever

- signs of consolidation on pulmonary exam

24
Q

when to investigate pneumonia vs. bronchitis

A

abnormal vitals + findings suggestive of pulmonary consolidation

25
Q

inflammation/infection of nasal mucosa

A

rhinosinusitis

26
Q

strep throat findings

A
  • abrupt onset of sore throat and fever
  • tonsillar and/or palatal petechiae
  • tendeer cervical adenopathy
  • absence of cough
27
Q

mono vs. GAS

A

mono –> retrocervical or generalized adenopathy + HSM

28
Q

trismus

A

pain with chewing

29
Q

rapid strep test vs. throat culture

A

rapid strep more specific but less sensitive than throat culture

30
Q

natural course of otitis media

A
  • most cases resolve spontaneously
31
Q

indications for treatment of otitis media

A
  • prolonged, recurrent, or severe symptoms
32
Q

frequency and complications of otitis media?

A
  • uncommon

- mastoiditis, bacterial meningitis, brain abscess, subdural empyema

33
Q

tonsillopharyngeal exudate does not differentiate viral and bacterial pathology

A

okay

34
Q

step up therapy for asthma

A

SABA –> add low-dose ICS –» low-dose ICS + LABA –> medium dose ICS + LABA –> high-dose ICS + LABA AND consider omalizumab for patients who have allergies –> high-dose ICS + LABA + oral corticosteroid

35
Q

aspirin for primary prevention

A

36
Q

PPSV indication

A

1) adults 65 years of age or older
2) smokers
3) adults with serious long-term health problems