deck 17 Flashcards

1
Q

antidepressant that can induce modest weight loss

A

bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

preventive measures paid for by medicare

A

pneumococcal vaccine, influenza vaccine, annual mammography, and a Papanicolaou test every 3 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

conditions that produce a reactive lymphocytosis

A
  • viral infections

- EBV, mono, CMV, HSV, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

movement type that increases pine from spinal stenosis

A

Extension that increases lumbar lordosis decreases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal, thereby compressing the spinal cord further. Walking downhill can cause this. Spinal flexion that decreases lordosis has the opposite effect, and will usually improve the pain, as will sitting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

med contraindicated in cirrhotics

A

NSAIDS (can increase risk of bleeding by further impairing platelet function. ALSO decrease blood flow to the kidneys and can increase risk of renal failure in cirrhotics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ASPIRIN is NOT AN NSAID

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NSAIDS affect on the heart?

A
  • can increase CV morbidity, worsen HF, increase BP, and increase ischemia/MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

best test for psychogenic seizures

A

vEEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

rosacea management

A

Management includes avoidance of precipitating factors and use of sunscreen. Oral metronidazole, doxycycline, or tetracycline also can be used, especially if there are ocular symptoms. These are often ineffective for the flushing, so low-dose clonidine or a nonselective β-blocker may be added.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

prognostic factor that suggests no recovery in post-MI comatose patient

A

myoclonic status epilepticus at 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 conditions that account for 90% of hypercalcemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia labs

A
  • moderate hypercalcemia + low urinary calcium excretion

- PTH can be normal or mildly elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

drugs that can cause SJS

A
  • Allopurinol
  • antibiotics, antiepileptics, and NSAIDs. Of these, antibiotics are the most common alleged cause of
    Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

acute adult asthma exacerbation albuterol method

A

MDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

conversion aphonia

A

voice hoarseness/lose of voice after stressful event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PFTs with vocal cord dysfunction

A
  • Normal expiratory portion but a flattened inspiratory phase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

posterior tibial tendonopathy presentation

A

Pain + swelling posterior to medial malleolus + no injury + pain with inversion and plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

posterior tibial tendonopathy management

A

immobilization in a cast boot for 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hiccups lasting more than a couple days management

A
  • work up cause –>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

feature of diverticular bleeding and angiodysplasia

A

PAINLESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ischemic colitis presentation

A

abdominal pain + CV RF’s + bloody diarrhea

22
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia management

A

D/C heparin + start non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or desirudin

23
Q

lichen planus presentation

A

pruritic + symmetrically distributed papular lesions + violaceous flat-topped papules

24
Q

lichen planus treatment

A

high-potency topical corticosteroids (clobetasol)

25
Q

hip impingement presentation

A

Gradually worsening anterolateral hip joint pain + sharply accentuated when pivoting laterally on affected hip or moving from a seated to standing positon. + pain with internal rotation.

26
Q

OTC med commonly associated with serotonin syndrome

A

dextromethorphan

27
Q

lab to order to rule out adrenal insufficiency

A

morning serum cortisol

28
Q

PMR criteria for diagnosis

A
  • bilateral shoulder or hip stiffness and aching for at least 1 month
  • ESR should be over 40
29
Q

first line for fatty liver disease

A

healthy diet, weight loss, exercise

30
Q

med to reduce secretions that causes least CNS effects

A

glycopyrrolate

31
Q

clinical relevance of frequent PVCs

A

linked to acute MI + sudden death

32
Q

management of patients with frequent PVC’s + cardiac risk factors

A

CAD evaluation

33
Q

radial head fracture management

A
  • posterior splint + repeat radiograph in 1-2 weeks (ensure alignment)
34
Q

management of post-procedure wound (after skin biopsy)

A
  • petrolatum
  • evidence recommends against use of topical antibiotics (can aggravate open wounds, hindering wound-healing process. also significant risk of developing contact dermatitis).
35
Q

alternative therapy with good evidence for low back pain

A

acupuncture

36
Q

management of sudden sensorineural hearing loss

A

oral corticosteroids

37
Q

other indicator of active infection in hep b

A

elevated ALT

38
Q

management of painful subacute thyroiditis

A

prednisone

39
Q

patient with pyelo and persistent fever/flank pain

A
  • perinephric abscess

- order CT

40
Q

most common feature of IBS

A

abdominal pain (more common that constipation or diarrhea)

41
Q

vertigo with increased due to increased pressure think

A

perilymphatic fistula (between middle and inner ear)

42
Q

female athlete triad

A

amenorhea + osteoporosis + disordered eating

43
Q

diverticulosis management

A
  • increased dietary fiber intake
44
Q

management of v fib after electrical defibrillation and CPR fail…

A

vasopressor (epi or vasopression) then if that fails –> amiodarone

45
Q

gold standard for diagnosis of renal colic/stones

A

CT

46
Q

features of malignant nodules

A

size greater than 10 mm, irregular border, “ground glass” appearance, either no calcification or eccentric calcification, doubling time of 1 month to 1 year

47
Q

management of asymptomatic aortic stenosis

A

watchful waiting

48
Q

genetic component of psoriasis?

A

yet

49
Q

levo management during pregnancy

A

uptitrate

50
Q

caveat about surgery for rotator cuff tears

A
  • has to be done in less than 6 weeks, or muscle atrophy will reduce benefit
  • ## most effective in young, active patients
51
Q

med for all patients with HF due to systolic dysfunction

A

ACEI