deck 13 Flashcards

1
Q

other problem w/ sulfonylureas

A
  • may increase cardiovascular risk

- may shorten time to beta cell burnout

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2
Q

best oral DM drugs

A
  • GLP-1

- help you lose weight,

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3
Q

problem with dropping hyperglycemic patient

A
  • cerebral edema

- GO SLOW

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4
Q

HTN BP goal

A

140/90

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5
Q

People who need tighter BP goals

A

1) people w/ albuminuria or proteinuria – 130/80

2)

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6
Q

chlorthalidone vs. HCTZ

A

chlorthalidone is better - greater BP reduction, longer acting, no electrolyte imbalances.

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7
Q

when to use ARB over ACEI

A

gout patient. ARBs have uricosuric activity

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8
Q

major cause of resistant HTN

A

Hyperaldosteronism

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9
Q

Last med you add on to person maxed out on HTN meds

A
  • mineralocorticoids (spironolactone)
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10
Q

Absolute contraindications to ECT?

A

None

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11
Q

causes of 2ndary HTN

A

CKD, OSA, primary hyperaldosteronism

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12
Q

testing for primary hyperaldosteronism

A

morning plasma aldosterone/renin ratio

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13
Q

high risk setting for kids for CAP

A

day care

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14
Q

Urine burning how to clarify…

A
  • ask if urethral, sometimes patient say stomach is burning
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15
Q

CAP treatment in kids

A

Oral high-dose amoxicillin (90 mg/kg/day) w/ close outpatient followup

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16
Q

solid foods introduced

A

4-6 months

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17
Q

Midshaft posteromedial tibial stress fractures management

A

Air stirrup leg brace (aircast)

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18
Q

initial screening test for late-onset male hypogonadism

A

serum total testosterone (free testosterone is very expensive)

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19
Q

CENTOR criteria

A

….

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20
Q

someone with a strep throat and *runny nose or cough

A

NOT STREP

21
Q

Low TSH level with person on levothyroxine…

A

Indicates over replacement. Reduce dosage slightly and repeat TSH level in 2-3 months.

22
Q

Imaging to look for students in urinary tract

A

CT pyelogram or US

23
Q

what generally rules out UTI

A

no pyuria

24
Q

sharp, severe heel pain is probably

A

plantar fasciitis

25
Q

plantar fasciitis

A
  • pain on plantar surface of heel, worse after prolonged sitting or getting out of bed in morning (first step phenomenon)
  • self-resolving
26
Q

1st line for plantar fasciitis

A

OTC heel inserts

27
Q

Most accurate test for ACL teaer

A

Lachman test, followed by anterior drawer test

28
Q

mcmurray test tests for

A

meniscal tears

29
Q

how do you know if MGUS has progressed to multiple myeloma?

A
  • Presence of end-organ impairment in the presence of M protein, monoclonal plasma cells, or both (hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, or skeletal lesions).
  • 1% annual risk of progression.
30
Q

femoral neuropathy

A
  • mononeuropathy common with DM2
  • decreased sensation to pinprick and light touch over anterior thigh + reduced motor strength on hip flexion/knee extension.
31
Q

diabetic polyneuropathy presentation

A

Symmetric, distal

32
Q

meralgia parenthetic

A
  • can be secondary to DM but numbness/paresesthia with no motor dysfunction.
33
Q

iliofemoral atherosclerosis

A
  • relatively common complication of DM

- intermittent claudication involving one or both calf muscles.

34
Q

other impt exam component of hypothyroidism

A

achilles reflex. (delayed relaxation phase)

35
Q

hallmark biochemical feature of referring syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia

36
Q

pharyngeal and laryngeal SE’s of inhaled corticosteroids

A
  • sore throat, coughing on inhalation, weak or hoarse voice, oral candidiasis
37
Q

management of hoarseness that does not resolve

A
  • laryngoscopy (if doesn’t resolve within 3 months)
38
Q

common false positives in

A

Codeine often comes up as morphine because morphine is a metabolite of codeine

39
Q

dizziness differential

A
  1. vertigo
  2. near syncope
  3. disequilibrium
  4. light headedness (high correlation with anxiety)
40
Q

initial management of hypercalcemia of malignancy

A
  • get pt euvolemic

- fluid replacement with NS to correct volume depletion that is always present + enhance renal calcium excretion

41
Q

brown to black leopard spotting of colonic mucosa?

A

Melanosis coli - benign condition resulting from abuse of laxatives.

42
Q

murmurs that increase with valsalva

A

HOCM + MVP

decreases venous return to heart, thereby decreasing CO

43
Q

best test for diagnosis of COPD

A

spirometry

44
Q

Patients who need CRC screening at age 40

A

1) 1 first degree relative diagnosed with CRC or adenomatous polyps before age 60
2) at least 2 second degree relatives with CRC cancer

45
Q

preferred screening for patients at high risk of CRC

A

colonoscopy

46
Q

drugs that cause pleurisy

A

Hydralazine (lupus-induced)
procainamide
quinidine
amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate

47
Q

Drug to convert patient to normal rhythm from WPW rhythm

A

Procainamide

Amiodarone

48
Q

relationship between calorie consumption and weight

A

not a direct relation between daily calorie consumption and weight. An adult male consuming an extra 100 calories a day above his caloric need will not continue to gain weight indefinitely; rather, his weight will increase to a certain point and then become constant. Fat must be fed, and maintaining the newly created tissue requires an increase in caloric expenditure. An extra 100 calories a day will result in a weight gain of approximately 5 kg, which will then be maintained.