Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Family med > deck 30 > Flashcards

deck 30 Flashcards

1
Q

treatment of campylobacter diarrhea

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

abx for salmonella and shigella

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

only NSAID that doesn’t increase risk of MI

A

naproxen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

first line for keloid scars

A

intralesional corticosteroid injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

drugs that can cause a false-positive urine drug screen for opioids

A

Dextromethorphan, diphenhydramine, ibuprofen, and even fluoroquinolones are among the many agents that can cause a false-positive urine drug screen for opioids. Pseudoephedrine can cause a false-positive test for amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how to diagnose cat scratch fever

A

IgG testing for Bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

treatments that have evidence for IBS

A

Exercise, probiotics, antibiotics, antispasmodics, antidepressants, psychological treatments, and peppermint oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

problems with stimulants in adults

A

can aggravate psychosis, tics, or HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

main SE’s of stimulants

A

insomnia, dry mouth, weight loss, headaches, and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antihypertensive that can also slow bone loss in postmenopausal females and reduce incidence of osteoporosis/hip fractures

A

thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

doxylamine

A

first generation antihistamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

doxylamine use

A

(unison) sleep aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

calcium supplement to use for patient on PPI

A

calcium citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rapidly progressing paraparesis and sensory abnormalities in a diabetic patient think…

A

epidural abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to assess RV dysfunction with PE

A

1) echo (EKG can be normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

initial treatment of chronic fatigue syndrome

A

CBT or graded exercise therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hepatorenal syndrome

A
  • renal failure in patients with cirrhosis and elevated pressures in the portal vein system
    (elevated portal vein pressure leads to juxtaglomerular apparatus sensing reduced “effective” blood volume and activating RAAS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

labral tear presentation

A

anterolateral pain, although pain may be deep and poorly localized, and may be associated with instability and a catching sensation

19
Q

posterior shoulder pain

A

often rotator cuff tendinopathy from teres minor or infraspinatus

20
Q

dermatofibroma

A
  • https://www.google.com/search?q=dermatofibroma&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjWvdzfhpDSAhVJiVQKHY6HBQsQ_AUICCgB&biw=1037&bih=653
  • dimple elicited on compression
21
Q

vitals with PE

A

tachycardia, tachypnea, low-grade fever

22
Q

classic findings of PE on ECG

A

prominent S in lead I, Q in lead III, and inverted T in lead III (s1q3t3)

23
Q

PE findings on CXR

A

hampton hump, westermark sign

24
Q

arrhythmia associated with PE

A

atrial fibrillation (caused by atrial strain from increased right atrial pressure)

25
Q

pleural fluid with empyema

A

pH less than 7.2
decreased glucose
WBC less than 50,000

26
Q

parapneumonic effusion

A

pleural effusion resulting from effusion, lung abscess, or bronchiectasis

27
Q

pleural fluid analysis with parapneumonic effusion

A

pH greater than 7.2
decreased to normal glucose
WBC count greater than 50,000

28
Q

pleural fluid criteria called

A

Light criteria

29
Q

pathophys of empyema

A

Most parapneumonic effusions are uncomplicated and resolve with abx. However, if bacteria cross into pleural space, a complicated parapneumonic effusion or empyema may develop.

30
Q

what will CXR show with empyema?

A

loculation

31
Q

management of COPD exacerbation

A

Oxygen
inhaled bronchodilators
systemic glucocorticoids
antibiotics if greater than 2 cardinal symptoms
oseltamivir if evidence of influenza
NPPV if ventilatory failure
tracheal intubation if NPPV failed or contraindicated

32
Q

duration of abx for COPD exacerbation

A

3-7 days

33
Q

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure significance

A

measure of pulmonary artery pressure, which is a surrogate for R atrial pressure (because of large compliance of pulmonary circulation)

34
Q

use of pulmonary wedge pressure

A
  • Gold standard for determining the cause of acute pulmonary edema
  • elevated also suggests LV failure
35
Q

clinical features of pulmonary contusion

A
  • usually happens within 24 hours of blunt thoracic trauma
  • tachypnea + tachycardia + hypoxia
  • pulmonary contusion leads to idntraalveolar hemorrhage
36
Q

diagnosis of pulmonary contusion

A
  • rales or decreased breath sounds

- CT or CXR with patchy, alveolar infiltrate not restricted by anatomical borders

37
Q

pulmonary hygiene

A

nebulizer treatment + chest physiotherapy

38
Q

why does an exudative pleural effusion happen with pulmonary infection?

A

Cytokines released during inflammation or infection increase capillary permeability, resulting in translocation of cells and fluid from the vasculature into the pericapillary space, which aids in immune response but can also result in exudative pleural effusion

39
Q

criteria for initiating long term oxygen therapy in patients with COPD

A

1) resting arterial oxygen tension less than 55 mm Hg or pulse ox less than 88% on RA
2) PaO2 less than 59 mm Hg or SaO2 less than 89% in patients with for pulmonate, evidence of RH failure or hematocrit greater than 55%

40
Q

how to determine dose of supplemental oxygen for people on long term oxyen

A

titrate to 90% on RA during normal walking

41
Q

scoring system for PE risk

A

Wells score

42
Q

Test of choice for clinically stable patients in whom PE is likely

A

CT angiography

43
Q

algorithm for suspected PE

A

stabilize patient with O2 and IV fluids –> evaluate for contraindications to anticoagulation –> if no, then assess clinical suspicion of PE with modified wells –> consider anticoagulation if moderate to severe distress –> obtain diagnostic test and start, continue, or stop anticoagulation

Family med (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions