Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Family med > deck 31 > Flashcards

deck 31 Flashcards

1
Q

pathophys of acute massive PE

A

abrupt increase in RA pressure –> decreased venous return to LA –> decreased CO + hypotension + obstructive shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

acute HIV infection

A

mononucleosis like syndrome consisting of fever + night sweats + lymphadenopathy + arthralgias + diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

indications for antimicrobial prophylaxis for tick bites

A

1) adult tick or nymphal exodus scapularis
2) tick attached for longer than 36 hours or engorged
3) prophylaxis started within 3 days of tick removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

other meds that can cause hearing loss

A

aspirin + loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

indications for hep c screening

A

1) injection drugs
2) needlestick
3) blood transfusion before 1992

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

chlamydia on testing

A

Culture-negative

won’t show up as bacteria on UA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common valvular abnormality detected in patients with infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve disease (usually MVP w/ coexisting mitral regurgitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

nasal polyps associated with

A

chronic rhino sinusitis
asthma
aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

nasal polyp presentation

A

bilateral nasal obstruction + nasal discharge + anosmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)

A
  • asthma, chronic rhino sinusitis with nasal polyposis and bronchospasm or nasal congestion following ingestion of aspirin or NSAIDS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

malignant (necrotizing) otitis externa (MOE)

A

severe infection of external auditory canal and base of skull usually caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • usually happens in old people with bad diabetes
  • presents with severe pain + purulent drainage with a sense of fullness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

abx with good pseudomonal coverage

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common cause of hearing loss in AIDS patients

A
  • serous otitis media (presence of middle ear effusion without signs of infection)
    (lymphadenopathy or lymphomas cause auditory tube dysfunction)
  • leads to conductive hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

treatment for syphilis patient with penicillin allergy

A

doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

problem with monospot

A

25% false-negative rate during first week of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

common complaint with presbycusis

A

difficulty hearing in crowded or noisy environments

- high-pitched noises or voices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

heamophilus ducreyi presentation

A

papule that progresses to an ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

labs in endocarditis

A

normocytic anemia + high ESR

RF can be positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

diagnosis of histoplasma

A

urine or serum antigen assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vaccines for patients with chronic liver disease

A

hep A,B, PPSV23, Tdap

21
Q

potential complication of upper GI endoscopy

A

aspiration pneumonia due to anaerobes

22
Q

other vibrio vulnificus infection

A

Often cause wound infections that can be mild, but may develop rapid-onset, severe necrotizing fasciitis with hemorrhagic bulls lesions and septic shock. Patients with liver disease are at high risk.

23
Q

treatment of choice for pregnant and lactating patients with early localized lyme disease

A

amoxicillin (can’t give CTX because it’s only IV and would require hospitalization and exposure to other microbes)

24
Q

pyelo usually caused by…

A

e coli

25
Q

treatment of uncomplicated pyelo

A

fluoroquinolone

26
Q

definition of complicated UTI

A

diabetes, urinary obstruction/hardware, renal failure, immunosuppression, hospital-acquired

27
Q

treatment of complicated pyelo

A

IV fluoroquinolone, aminoglycoside, extended spectrum beta-lactam/cephalosporin

28
Q

preferred initial treatment for uncomplicated BPH

A

alpha-1 blockers (5-alpha-reductase inhibitors have a much slower onset)

29
Q

diagnosis of testicular mass

A

painless hard mass in testicle + US suggesting cancer

30
Q

management of testicular mass

A

radical orchiectomy (kill first, investigate later) + also remove cord

31
Q

acute urinary retention pathophys

A
  • obstruction, neurogenic bladder, or detrusor muscle under activity in elderly (most often obstruction due to BPH or prostate cancer) leads to acute inability to void.
32
Q

achilles tendon reflex caveat

A

can be decrease or even absent with age, so can be normal in many elderly patients

33
Q

major concerning drugs that can interact with sildenafil

A

nitrates or alpha-blockers

34
Q

most important RF for bladder cancer

A

smoking

35
Q

BPH and hematuria?

A

BPH can cause hematuria

36
Q

other RF’s for bladder cancer

A
  • painters, metal workers
  • chronic cystitis
  • cyclophosphamide
  • pelvic radiation exposure
37
Q

other features of prostatitis

A

urgency, hesitancy
hematospermia, pain w/ ejaculation
usually no history of UTI

38
Q

urine culture w/ prostatitis and UA

A

sterile and negative

39
Q

prostate tenderness with prostatits

A

none or mild

40
Q

treatment of chronic prostatits

A
  • fluorquinolones
  • alpha blockers
  • 5-alpha-reducatase inhibitors (finasteride)
41
Q

1st line for patients with ED 2/2 cardiovascular disease

A

PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil)

42
Q

testing for patients with BPH and lower urinary tract symptoms (frequency, nocturia, hesitancy)

A

UA to rule out hematuria and infection

PSA (unless predicted life expectancy is less than 10 years)

43
Q

leydig cell tumor features

A
  • increased estrogen production
  • most common type of testicular sex cord stroll tumors
  • principle source of testosterone and are capable of estrogen production due to increased aromatase expression
44
Q

torus palatinus etiology

A

congenital

45
Q

physical exam findings suggesting allergic rhinitis

A

1) allergic shiners (infraorbital edema and darkening)
2) dennie-morgan lines (prominent lines on lower eyelids)
3) allergic salute (transverse nasal crease)
4) pale, bluish, enlarged turbinates
5) pharyngeal cobblestoning
6) “allergic facies” (high-arched palate, open-mouth breathing)

46
Q

pharyngeal cobblestoning suggests either…

A

asthma or allergic rhinitis

47
Q

typical history with TMJ disorder

A

nocturnal teeth grinding

48
Q

initial treatment of TMJ disorder

A

nighttime bite guard, surgical intervention sometimes necessary

Family med (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions