Daily Questions for BWS Flashcards
TD 92
What are the six elements of a call for fire?
- Observer Identification I
- Warning Order W
- Target Location L
- Target Description D
- Method of Engagement M
- Method Fire and Control M
TD 92
How are the six elements organized when transmitted?
- Observer ID and Warning Order
- Target Location
- Target Description, method of engagement, and method of fire and control
TD 92
What are the 5 types of artillery mission?
- Adjust Fire
- Fire for effect
- Suppress
- Immediate suppression
- Immediate smoke
TD 92
Of the six elements of a call for fire, which are not mandatory for transmission?
-Method of engagement and Method of fire and control (last two)
TD 92
Spot Report:
S- Size of Unit A- -Activity L- Location T- Time W- Type of Fires to engage with
+ The appropriate example
TD 92
In reference to ARTILLERY, what is considered danger close and what manual provides additional risk estimate distances?
- 600m
- and ATP 3-09.32
TD 92
In reference to call for fire, what are the elements in a Message to Observer?
- Unit to fire
- Adjusting unit
- Changes or additions to CFF
- Number of rounds in FFE
- TGT number
- Additional information
TD 92
What are your actions IAW the ATM Task 2042 Perform Action on Contact?
First crewmember to spot will announce contact, type and location. P* continue to focus outside, fly the aircraft, avoid obstacles, transition to appropriate terrain flight profile as well as flight direction.
P will remain focused on target/objective/threat and assist with avoidance.
Crew will submit spot report as required.
TD 92
What is the Warning associated when performing Actions on Contact?
Avoid steep right turns below 45 KIAS close to the ground to maintain sufficient lateral recovery ability.
TD 93
Artillery engagement where observer is certain the target location is accurate:
Fire For Effect (FFE)
TD 93
What is the standard method of fire control
Fire when ready
TD 93
What is the purpose of the FDC transmitting the term SHOT?
It is to inform the observer that the firing unit has fired.
TD 93
What is the purpose of the FDC transmitting the term SPLASH?
It is to let the observer know that the round will impact within 5 seconds.
TD 93
List the methods of target location in order of preference.
- Grid coordinate using precision imagery with
- mensuration tools
- Laser grid
- Laser polar
- Grid coordinates using map spot
- Polar plot
- Shift from a known point
TD 93
When selecting terrain flight mode to use for each segment of the mission planning sequence what general planning guidance should be use?
METT-TC
TD 93
What are the selection criteria for a combat position?
NORMA
TD 93
What are the elements of a target handover?
A - Alert and TGT description T - Target location M - Method of Attack E - Execution P - Post Attack Actions
TD 93
If a situation requires immediate engagement/suppression from your wingman then the following info is required:
- Target description
- Direction from the A/C being engaged (azimuth or clock position)
- Range from A/C being engaged
TD 94
During low level flight in AO Vanguard you notice out the left door a group of soldiers engaging you with RPGs. They are 400 m and 9 o’clock from your position. What is your immediate contact report?
You, this is Mustang 46, group of soldiers engaging me with RPG fire to my 9 o’clock, 400m, current time, breaking contact, over.
TD 94
What are the standards for TASK 2169 Perform Aerial Observation
D - Detect
I - Identify
L - Locate
R - Report
TD 94
What are the visual cues used when performing aerial observation?
M - Movement C - Color L - Light O - Obvious sighting S - Smoke and Dust S - Shadows and Shapes T - Trails T - Texture
TD 94
What are the three ways to unmask?
- In Flight
- Laterally
- Vertically
TD 94
What are the tactical considerations when dealing with LZ/PZ/HA selection?
- Mission
- Security
- location
TD 94
What are the names and rotor disk distance for formation flight separation?
Tight = 2 rotor disk distance Close = 3-5 rotor disk distance Loose = 6-10 rotor disk distance Extended = more than 10
TD 94
When is reconnaissance performed?
It is performed whenever required to enhance the commander’s situational awareness and support the decision making processes by providing accurate and timely information about the enemy and the AO.
TD 94
What are the fundamentals of reconnaissance?
G - Gain and maintain contact O - Orient on the recon objective R - Report rapidly and accurately R - Retain freedom of maneuver D - Develop the situation rapidly D - Do not keep recon forces in reserve E - Ensure continuous reconnaissance
TD 94
What are the four methods of reconnaissance?
- Dismounted
- Mounted
- Aerial (manned/unmanned)
- Recon by fire
TD 94
What are the four forms of reconnaissance?
- Zone
- Area
- Route
- Aerial Surveillance
TD 95
What are the fundamentals of security?
M - Maintain Enemy Contact
O - Orient on the protected force
P - Provide reaction time and maneuver space
P - Provide early and accurate warning
P - Perform continuous recon
TD 95
What is the purpose of security operations?
Prevent the enemy from determining friendly locations, strengths, and weaknesses.
TD 95
What are the forms of security operations?
Screen – troop defensive
Guard – Squadron engage the enemy
Cover – ACR Self-contained
Area – protect forces, facility, routes, key terrain
Local – prevent or interdict enemy efforts to observe or engage friendlies
TD 95
What is the purpose of guard force?
To protect the main body by fighting to gain time while also observing and reporting information and preventing enemy observation and direct fire against the main body.
TD 95
What are the types of guard operations?
- Stationary Guard
- Advanced Guard
- Stationary Force
- Moving Force - Flank Guard
- Stationary Force
- Moving Force - Rear Guard
TD 95
What are the major elements of the search and attack?
- Find the enemy
- Fix the enemy
- Destroy the enemy
TD 96
What are two primary missions of an Air Assault company?
Conduct air assault and movement operations – to extend the tactical reach of the maneuver commander, negate effects of terrain, seize key nodes, achieve surprise, and isolate or dislocate enemy forces.
TD 96
What aviation mission involves the movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain?
Air assault mission - movement of assault forces using the firepower, mobility, and total integration of helicopter assets to engage and destroy enemy forces or seize and hold key terrain.
TD 96
Who is responsible for all aviation operations while receiving and executing the Air Assault Task Force Commander’s guidance and intent?
Air Mission Commander (AMC)
TD 96
What are the five stages of the reverse planning sequence?
- Ground Tactical Plan (GTP)
- Landing Plan
- Air Movement Plan
- Loading Plan
- Staging Plan
TD 96
What is the overall unit load that makes on complete turn out to and/or back from the area of operation?
A LIFT (Serials and Chalks)
TD 97
In accordance with ATP 3-04.1 what are the four offensive tasks conducted by Army Aviation?
- Movement to Contact
- Attack
- Exploitation
- Pursuit
TD 97
The criteria that specifies the conditions in which the aviation security element can engage or break contact with the enemy is known as what?
Engagement/Disengagement criteria (as per the Commander’s security guidance)