CSCS Flashcards
The length-tension relationship of muscle is based on the following fact:
As muscle lengthens, the tension changes and is highest at the middle length.
All of the following sections of the sarcomere shorten during a concentric muscle action EXCEPT the A-band distance between Z-lines H-zone I-band
A-band
All of these factors contribute to venous return EXCEPT the muscle pump the respiratory pump vasoconstriction venoconstriction
vasoconstriction
This ion, stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, is released into the sarcoplasm to signal the beginning of the contraction process:
calcium
Which of the following will increase the dissociation between hemoglobin and oxygen? high partial pressure of oxygen increased pH increased temperature low partial pressure of CO2
increased temperature
All else being equal, this type of muscle fiber arrangement will be associated with higher forces:
bipennate
Internal rotation of the hip takes place in this plane:
transverse
The joint involving the femur and tibia is an example of this type of joint:
synovial
Josephine performs a biceps curl, lifting a weight from the extended arm position up to full flexion of the elbow. This movement provides an illustration of this type of lever system:
third-class
You meet up with your friend Heidi in the weight room. You haven’t seen her since she’d injured her leg during track practice. You observe that she’s performing progressive loading exercises with her injured leg. From this observation, you realize that she’s probably in this phase of healing:
remodeling
The primary substrate for a 50-meter sprint is
creatine phosphate
The general recommendation for dietary fat is
30% of total calories
At the beginning of aerobic exercise, before reaching steady state, an individual will be in this state:
oxygen deficit
The hormone used illegally by some athletes to enhance red blood cell production in the body is
erythropoietin
In order to lose 10 pounds, an individual will have to have a deficit of this many calories:
35,000 kilocalories
All of the following are examples of training adaptations for aerobic exercise EXCEPT increased blood volume increased capillary density increased heart rate at a given rate of exercise increased oxygen extraction at a given rate of exercise increased stroke volume at a given rate of exercise
increased heart rate at a given rate of exercise
All of the following are signs of overtraining EXCEPT decreased muscle glycogen decreased performance increased maximal oxygen uptake increased muscle soreness increased submaximal heart rate
increased maximal oxygen uptake
During maximal intensity activities (>90% of maximum) which fibers will be recruited?
Type I, Type IIa, and Type Iib
Which principle of training is based on the idea that one should target the sport-related energy pathways and muscle groups?
specificity
Exercise results in an increase in this system’s activity:
Sympathetic
Adaptations in all of the following contribute to increases in VO2max with endurance training EXCEPT heart rate stroke volume mitochondrial density capillary density
Heart rate
Which of the following is NOT a training goal for an aerobic endurance athlete?
increase VO2submax
An application of the principle of overload for an aerobic endurance athlete would be to have the athlete train
above lactate threshold
Toni wants to increase the speed at the end of her endurance running performance. The best training method for achieving this goal is
Repetition
Sally spent her Spring break training in the heat in Florida. She pushed herself more than usual and refused to take off any days. On three days she doubled her workout by running her program in the morning and again in the evening. When she returned from break, she found that her resting heart rate was higher than normal. This increase in heart rate was likely due to this:
Overtraining syndrome
Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise for optimizing sport-specific muscular strength for well-trained athletes? assistance exercises core exercises structural exercises
Core exercises
An individual’s 1RM can be assessed in all of the following exercises EXCEPT Bicep curl Knee ext Shoulder press Calf raise
Shoulder press
This training goal requires the longest recovery time between sets:
Muscular strength and power
Which of the following statements is true about training to optimize muscular hypertrophy? It should be high volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods. It should be moderate volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods. It should be low volume with a high-intensity load and short rest periods. It should be low volume with a high-intensity load and long rest periods.
It should be high volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods.
Ian is training his quadriceps muscles for muscular endurance. The strength and conditioning coach has prescribed three sets of leg presses. What is the optimum amount of time between sets to help achieve his training goal?
30 seconds
Have athletes perform this type of recovery between 800 meter sprints for the quickest reduction in lactic acid.
Active recovery
To increase the runner’s stride frequency during the maximum speed of sprinting, use this type of training resisted sprinting assisted sprinting inverted sprinting converged sprinting
Assisted sprinting
Jake wants to begin a plyometrics training program, but his coach has advised him that in order to begin upper-body plyometric exercises, he must be able to bench press a minimum weight to be considered ready. Based on his personal information (height 6’2”, weight 190 lbs., 22 years of age), what is the minimum weight that Jake must bench press in order to be considered ready for upper-body plyometrics training? 95 lbs. 190 lbs. 285 lbs. 380 lbs.
285 lbs
The ability to perform a quick change in direction of a movement such as that observed during a movement involving the stretch-shortening cycle is called contractility effort distribution reaction time reactive ability
reactive ability
Paula has several years of experience with resistance and plyometric training. Based on her training, what is the suggested plyometric training volume? 80 to 100 100 to 120 120 to 140 140 to 200
120 to 140
For most resistance training exercises, the athlete should be instructed to
Exhale through the sticking point
The correct order of the movement phases used in a power clean is beginning position, catch, first pull, scoop, second pull beginning position, first pull, catch, second pull, scoop beginning position, first pull, scoop, second pull, catch beginning position, first pull, second pull, scoop, catch beginning position, scoop, first pull, second pull, catch
beginning position, first pull, scoop, second pull, catch
Andrea finds that her athletes’ performance on the push-up test and the YMCA bench press test is not similar, even though both tests are designed to assess muscular endurance of the upper body. These tests appear to lack this type of validity. concurrent validity construct validity content validity convergent validity
concurrent validity
Barbara read a research article that reported the Jackson & Pollock skinfold equation provided body composition estimates that were consistent with results from underwater weighing, a method considered the “gold standard” for body composition analysis. What type of validity does the Jackson-Pollock equation have based on this study?
convergent validity
Of the options listed below, which test would be most appropriate to use to test the general strength necessary for a football offensive lineman? the 1 RM leg extension the 1.5-mile run the 1RM bench press skinfold measures
1 RM bench
Which of the following tests will provide the most pertinent information about an athlete who is trying out as a spiker on the volleyball team? the 1RM back squat the 1RM bench press the line drill the vertical jump
Vertical jump
Which description best fits a test of anaerobic capacity? The movement is at low speed but requires one maximum exertion by the muscle. The movement is fast and requires maximum effort for about 1 second. The movement requires maximal effort for a duration of between 30 and 90 seconds. None of the above.
The movement requires maximal effort for a duration of between 30 and 90 seconds.
Bundles of Muscle Fibers
Fasciculi
outer most layer of connective tissue that encloses the entire muscle
Epimysium
Tissue covering the outside of fiber bundles
perimysium
connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber
endomysium
the cell membrane of a muscle cell
sarcolemma
other name for motor end plate
neuromuscular junction
a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
motor unit
thick filaments
myosin
of myosin molecules in a myosin filament
~200
thin filaments of two strands in a double helix that interact with myosin
actin
of actin filaments that surround each myosin filament
6
of of myosin filaments that surround each actin filament
3
The band that corresponds with the alignment of myosin filaments
A-band
band that contains the actin filaments
I-band
Area in the center of the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present
H-zone
tubules surrounding each myofibril
sarcoplasmic reticulum
area in the middle of the i band that appears as a thin black line
z-line
in a stretched muscle, the I bands and h-zone _____________. and there is _______force potential due to the reduced cross bridge alignment
elongate; low
troponin is situated along ________ filaments
actin
a protein that has a high affinity for calcium ions.
troponin
protein that runs along the actin filament in the groove of the double helix.
tropomyosin
fusing of high frequency muscles twitches
tetanus
kinesthesis
position of body parts with respect to gravity
modified muscle fibers that are part of a muscle spindle that run parallel to the normal, or extrafusal fibers.
intrafusal fibers
example of a muscle spindle test
knee jerk test
example of GTO reflex
PNF stretches
reduced muscle size and strength
sarcopenia
loss of function in older sedentary individuals is seen most prevalent in which muscles?
weight bearing extensors (lower limb and trunk extensors)
what area of the body does the right side of the heart pump blood?
through the lungs
what parts of the body does the left side of the heart pump blood to?
everywhere but the lungs.
each heart pump has two chambers _______and _______
atrium and ventricles
other name for the AV valves
tricuspid and mitral ( bicuspid) valves
ventricular contraction also known as________.
systole
other name for the semilunar valves
aortic and pulmonary valve
role of semilunar valves
prevent backflow from aorta and pulm arteries into ventricles during relaxation.
ventricular relaxation
diastole
role of the AV valves
prevent blood from flowing from ventricles into atria during contraction.
pacemaker of the heart
SA (sinoatrial node)
heart conduction order AV Bundle AV node left and right bundle branches SA node internodal pathways from SA node to AV
SA node > Internodal path > AV node > AV bundle > left and right branches
Growth hormone
stimulates IGF-1, protein synthesis and metabolism.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Stimulates glucocorticoids in the adrenal cortex
Analgesia
Loss of sense of pain
Beta endorphin
Stimulates analgesic response
Follicle stimulating hormone
Stimluates ovum and sperm production
Luteinizing Hormone
Stimulates ovulation and secretion of sex hormones in ovaries and testes
Prolactin
Stimulates milk production in mammary glands and maintains secretion of progesterone.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Stim. Melanocytes that have dark melanin
Anti diuretic hormone
Increased smooth muscle contraction and reabsorption of water by the kidneys.
Oxytocin
Stim uterine contractions andrelease of milk by mamm glands
Thyroxine
Stimulates oxidative metabolism in mitochondria and cell growth
Calcitonin
Reduces calcium phosphate levels in blood
Parathyroid hormone
Increase blood calcium, decrease blood phosphate, stimulates bone formation
Insulin
Stores glycogen, promotes glucose entry into cells, involved in protein syntheses
Glucagon
Increases blood glucose levels
Glucocorticoids (cortisol, cortisone)
Inhibit amino acid incorporation into proteins, stimulate breakdown of protein to carbs. promote use of fat
Mineralocorticoids
Increase body fluids via sodium potassium metabolism
Insulin like growth factors
Increase protein synthesis in cells
Epinephrine
Increases cardiac output, increases blood sugar and glycogen breakdown and fat metabolism.
Norepinephrine
Like epinephrine
Proenkephalin fragments
Enhance immune cell function, analgesia effects
Estrogens
Female sex characteristics
Progesterone
Female sex characteristics and mammary glands
Testosterone
Stimulates growth, increases protein anabolism, development of male sex characteristics.
Atrial peptide
Regulates sodium, potassium and fluid volume
Renin
Regulates kidney function,permeability and solute concentrations.
Antagonist
A muscle that can slow down or stop the movement.
What does antagonist protect against
Joint hyper extension at end range
Agonist
Prime mover
Muscle that assists indirectly in a movement. Example: scaps shoulder movement.
Synergist
what does the axial skeleton consist of:
skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum
what does the appendicular skeleton consist of?
shoulder, arm, wrist, legs pelvic girdle. (everything else basically)
uniaxial joint example
elbow
biaxial joint example
ankle and wrist
fibrous joint? what is its role and an example of it
allow no movement; sutures of the skull
cartilaginous joints? purpose and role?
allow limited movement; intervertebral disks
multiaxial joint example
shoulders, hips
synovial joints? role and example?
considerable movement, elbow and knee
first class lever. muscle force and resistive force act on __________ sides.
opposite
flat barbell bench coaching technique 3 common errors
- feet on top (5 point body contact) 2. bring bar below nipples on negative 3. spotter using anything other than alternating grip
incline bench barbell coaching tips common error
taking low back and butt off of seat and pushing up with legs ( 5 point contact)
flat bench dumbbell bench technique errors
- feet on top of bench (5 point contact) 2. spotter spotting at forearms- (spotter needs to have hands by forearms)
incline db bench press error
- spotter spots at elbows instead of close to forearms
flat barbell smith bench press errorss
- body adjusted so that the bar falls too high- close to neck level 2. lifter locks out elbows on positives
machine vertical chest press errors
- seat being too low, hands should be aligned with chest at nipple level 2. lifters head comes off seat, (5 point body contact)
single joint chest shoulder transverse adductors prime movers
pectoralis major; anterior deltiod
single joint chest shoulder girdle abductors prime movers
serratus anterior; pectoralis minor
Pec Deck errors
- Seat is too low. shoulders and elbows should be perpendicular to chest in respect to nipples
Flat dumbbell fly errors
- lifter has too much elbow flexion on negatives 2. Spotter needs hands on forearms instead of on elbows
multi joint chest shoulder transverse adductors prime movers are:
pectoralis major; anterior deltoid
multi joint chest shoulder girdle abductors:
serratus anterior; pec minor
multi joint back exercise prime movers: scapular adductors
middle trapezius; rhomboids
shoulder extensors for prime movers for multijoint back exercises:
lats; teres major; posterior deltoid
shoulder adductors:
Lats; teres major
Elbow flexors are:
biceps brachii; brachialis; brachioradialis
Lat pulldown errors
- lifter using bar attached with “s” hook ( should use caribiner hook or D hook) 2. bar is lowered behind the head.
bent over barbell row error
- lifters back is rounded during exercise
shoulder press shoulder abductors:
anterior deltoid; medial deltoid
shoulder girdle abductors:
upper trapezius; serratus anterior
Machine shoulder press error:
Seat is situated too low.
seated barbell shoulder press error
- lifter lowers bar behind head. (should lightly touch clavicles)
Front shoulder db raise error
- the lifter raises dumbbell too high (should be parallel and no higher than the floor 2. lifter raises both DB at same time…other should be at side (stationary)
side dumbbell raise errors
- the lifter raises DB too high 2. lifter externally rotates wrists and elbows at the end range of the positive.
Barbell biceps curl errors
- lifter flexes the shoulders during the upper movement ( no shoulder movement) 2. lifter flexes the elbows too far (elbows should not move forward towards end range)
low pulley biceps curl (machine) error
- lifter rounds back during exercise ( back extended backwards and shoulders up)
machine biceps curl error
1.lifter sets seat too high (thighs should be parallel to floor)
lying barbel triceps extensions error
- elbows flare outwards during the negative (elbows should point towards feet)
seated overhead barbell triceps extension error
- lifter sets arms away from head (arms should be situated next to the ears)
machine triceps pushdown errors
- lifter flexes torso forwards slightly during positive 2. lifter moves upper arms upward and brings elbows away from side of body
wrist flexors:
flexor carpi ulnaris flexor carpi radialis palmaris longus
wrist extensors:
extensor carpi ulnaris extensor carpi radialis extensor carpi longus
torso flexor:
rectus abdominus
bent knee situp errors
- lifters knees are fully extended 2. lifter curls torso up until it is perpendicular with ground (upper back should come off ground only until elbow point to thighs)
bench assisted ab crunch error
1.lifter raises butt on negative (butt stays on floor whole time)
prime movers for hip extensors
hamstrings; glutes
knee extensors prime movers for quadriceps group
quads
ankle plantar flexors prime movers
soleus ; gastrocnemius
three parts of the snatch
- first pull 2. scoop phase 3. second pull (power phase) 4. catch
snatch errors
- bar is too far away from the lifter throughout the range 2. lifter jumps outwards instead of upward on triple extension
power clean order
- first pull 2. scoop phase 3. second pull (power phase) 4. catch
power clean errors
- lifter preforms a reverse curl to bring the bar up. 2. lifter drops weight forcefully back down.
hang clean error
lifter begins pull in too-erect position. needs to be slightly bent over.
Push press/ push jerk error
- jumping too high
front squat errors
- lifter hold bar with elbows pointed towards ground. 2. the lifter takes the heels off the floor on the negative
back squat error
- lifter lets trunk fall forward
Hack Squat errors
- lifter goes lower than parallel on negative 2. lifter raises hips and butt off pad on positves
Leg press (hip sled) error
- lifter bows their knees inward during the range
Step up errors
- lifter pushes off with the trailing leg during lift. 2. lifter only steps foot partially onto box 3. lifter incorrectly steps off of box with same leg (should use same trailing leg)
barbell forward lunges error
- lifter takes too short of a step, letting knee extend over foot
Good morning errors
- lifters knees are fully extended and locked out. 2. lifters back is rounded and neck flexes over trunk
cori cycle involves converting __________ to _________ _____.
pyruvate ; lactic acid
Krebs cycle involves shuttling of pyruvate into ___________.
mitochondria
Primary source of ATP at rest and during Low intensity
Oxidative (aerobic) system
primary energy system used for moderate to high intensity activities
glycolytic
system used for low intensity activities
oxidative
range of phosphagen energy systems (exercise time and work to rest ratios)
exercise time 5-10 seconds work to rest 1:12-20
range of fast glycolysis exercise time and rest ratio
ex time: 15-30 seconds rest 1:3
range of oxidative system and exercise and work to rest ratios
ex time >3 minutes work rest 1:1
exercise high in volume, muscle groups number and short in rest time increases this hormone level.
cortisol
testosterone is an example of a __________ hormone.
steroid
insulin is an example of a ___________ hormone.
polypeptide
hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary (8)
GH beta endorphin adrenocorticotropic thyroid-stimulating follicle stimulating luteinizing hormone prolactin melanocyte-stimulating
hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (2)
antidiuretic hormone oxytocin
thyroid gland hormones (2)
thyroxine calcitonin
parathyroid gland hormones (1)
parathyroid hormone
pancreas hormones (2)
insulin glucagon
adrenal cortex hormones (2)
glucocorticoids mineralocoritcoids
Liver hormones (1)
insulin like growth factor
adrenal medulla hormones (3)
epinephrine norepinephrine proenkephalin fragments
Ovaries hormones (2)
estrogens progesterone
testes hormone (1)
testosterone
heart hormone (1)
atrial peptide
kidney hormone (1)
Renin
factors that can increase serum testosterone levels in young men (5)
short rests moderate to high volume two or more years of experience heavy resistance (85-90%) large muscle group exercises
diurnal variations are:
normal fluctuations in hormones throughout the day.
another name for growth hormone
somatotropin
in order to elicit more GH, _________ rest times and ________ intensities must be used.
short; high
IGF-1 synthesis takes about ________ hours
8-29
after a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following info to the body EXCEPT amount of physio stress metabolic demands type of physio stress energy expended
energy expended
which of the following hormones enhance muscle tissue growth? GH Coritsol IGF-1 progesterone
Gh and IGF-1
all of the following are functions of GH except increase lipolysis decrease collagen synth increase amino acid transport decrease glucose utilization.
decrease collagen synthesis
which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes? GH Testosterone cortisol IGF-1
testosterone
which of the following hormone levels is higher in women at rest? cortisol insulin testosterone GH
growth hormone
anatomical/practical example of first class lever.
prac- see saw ana- the forearm
anatomical/practical 2nd class lever
wheelbarrow- prac plantar flexion of the foot- ana
fulcrum/force theory for 1st class levers
force is opposite sides of fulcrum
fulcrum/force theory for 2nd class levers
force on same side of fulcrum, muscle force has bigger lever than the resistive force
fulcrum/force theory for 3rd class levers
force on same side of fulcrum, muscle force has a shorter lever than the resistive force
radiate muscle example
deltoid
longitudinal muscle example
rectus abdominus
fusiform muscle example
biceps brachii
multipennate muscle example
deltoid
bipennate muscle example
rectus femoris
unipennate muscle example
tibialis posterior
muscle generates the greatest force at its _________ length.
resting
body size classic formula
load lifted __________ body weight to the 2/3 power.
surface drag results from
the friction of a fluid passing along a surface
form drag results from
the way in which a fluid presses against the front or rear of an object passing through it.
lordotic back meaning
slightly arched
kyphotic back meaning
naturally s shaped slightly rounded back
muscles of the rotator cuff.
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor
sagittal plane:
slices body into left and right planes
frontal plane:
slices body into front and back
transverse plane:
upper and lower body sections
which of the following best describes a knee joint? synovial cartilaginous ball and socket pivot
synovial
which of the following is the definition of power? force x velocity mass x acceleration torque x time force x distance
force x veloctiy
to compare performances of olympic weights lifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athletes: body weight body weight squared lean body weight body weight to the two-thirds power
body weight to the two-thirds power
during a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following? perp. distance from the weight to the body point joint angle movement acceleration movement velocity squared
perp distance / movement acceleration
a vertical jump involved knee hip and should movement primarily in which plane? sagittal perpendicular frontal transverse
sagittal
An athlete is performing concentric isokenetic elbow flexion and extension. which of the following types of levers occur at the elbow during this exercise? 1st 2nd 3rd
1st and 3rd
muscle renegeration
myogenisis
hyperplasia
an increase in the number of actual muscle fibers
osteoblasts:
migrate to bone surface and begin remodeling
trabecular bone
other name for spongy bone
cortical bone
other name for compact bone
which bone responds more rapidly to stimuli trabecular cortical
trabecular
which of the following is layer of connective tissue enveloping a single muscle fiber? endomysium perimysium epimysium myomysium
endomysium
which of the following is the first phase of periodization training? power hypertrophy strength plan
hypertrophy
which of the following lever classes has the fulcrum at one end and the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load? I II III IV
class III
in a myofibril, in cross section ___ actins can interact with each myosin. 2 3 4 6
6
which of the following is an example of a penniform muscle? transverse abdominis abductor longus supraspinatus peroneus terius
transverse abdominis
which of the following is an example of a hinge joint elbow shoulder hip atlas and axis
elbow
which of the following is the correct formula for calculating target heart rate?
% intensity X heart rate reserve + resting heart rate
which of the following is not a characteristic of using growth hornomone? induces precursor cells to differentiate cause secretion of IGF-1 directly stimulates ATP production stimulates protein synthesis
directly stimulates ATP production
how many amino acids must be found in your diet and cannot be manufactured by your own body? 5 7 9 11
9
which of the following is not a byproduct of protein breakdown? Nitrogen Hydrogen Uric Acid Enzymes
enzymes
which of the following is not true about isometric exercise? capable of increasing muscle strength at specific joint angles no corresponding increase at other joint angles always produce spikes in systolic blood pressure could cause life threatening cardiovascular accident
always produces spikes in systolic blood pressure
the threshold stimulus that initiates new bone formation is ______ ________ ________ (MES)
minimal essential strain
Quantity of mineral deposited in a given area of bone.
Bone Mineral Density
hyaline cartilage is found on ___________.
articulating surfaces of bones
fibrous cartilage is tough and found in ___________ and ___________.
intervertebral disks and junctions of tendons.
rate pressure product formula
Heart rate x systolic blood pressure
ventilation equivalent is defined as the ratio of __________.
ratio of air ventilated to oxygen used by the tissues
which of the following muscle fiber types has the GREATEST potential to, when trained in a specific way, CHANGE into a more oxidative aerobic form? IIa IIx IIc
IIx
A weightlifter adds 30 minutes of intense stationary bicycle riding every other day to her resistance training program. which of the following describe the GREATEST effect this addition will have on her performance? power will be compromised power will be enhanced aerobic capacity improvements will be compromised aerobic capacity improvements will be enhanced
power gains will be compromised
A 50 year old female triathlete is concerned about osteoporosis. which of the following exercises is the most beneficial for improving her bone mineral density? front squat leg extension bench press lat pulldown
front squat
which of the following muscle fiber types are “bypassed” as a result of selective recruitment that allows and olympic weightlifter to generate maximum power during the 1RM snatch? I IIa IIx IIc
Type I
which of the following are the most effective stimulants of growth hormone production from resistance training workout? large muscle mass exercises small muscle mass exercises high intensity and volume low intensity and volume
large muscle mass; high intensity and volume
The initial decrease in in muscular strength caused by detraining is due to the undesired changes in which of the following systems? cardiovascular connective muscular nervous
nervous
cardiac output is __________.
amount of blood pumped out by the heart in liters per minute
stroke volume is ___________
the quantity of blood ejected with each heart beat
cardiac output equation is ________ x _________.
stroke volume X heart rate
maximal heart rate equation
220- age in years.
1 MET = how many ml of oxygen per kg body weight per minute?
3.5
fick equation: V02 = ____ X _______
q (cardiac output); a V02 difference.
arteriovenous oxygen difference is ____________
the difference in oxygen content between arterial and venous blood
tidal volume is the total amount of air ______ and ________ with each breath.
inhaled; exhaled
functional unit of the pulmonary system where gas exchange occurs:
alveoli
bradycardia
slow heart rate
what is myoglobin?
a protein that transports oxygen within the cell
Two adaptation that occur at higher altitudes
Hyperventilation Increased cardiac output at rest due to higher heart rate
hyperoxic breathing:
breathing oxygen enriched gas mixtures during rest periods or following exercise
blood doping (mechanism)
running your blood through EPO and then shuttling it back into your body.
A 17 year old high school cross country runner has been training aerobically for 6 months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscle during that time. increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes hyperplasia of type II fibers transformation from type I to Type II fibers hypertrophy of type I fibers
hypertrophy of type I fibers
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the ___________
stroke volume
All of the following normally increase during an aerobic exercise bout EXCEPT end diastolic volume cardiac contractility cardiac output diastolic blood pressure
diastolic blood pressure
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? increased maximal oxygen uptake decreased blood lactate concentration increased running economy decreased capillary density
I, II, III
The mean arterial pressure is defined as the:
average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle
which of the following is an early adaptation to acclimatizing to high altitude? decreased tidal volume decreased respiration rate increased resting cardiac output increased stroke volume
increased resting cardiac output
menarche is _____________.
the onset of initial menstruation in girls
peak height velocity is also known as the ________ __________.
growth spurt
the central shaft of a long bone is known as the __________.
diaphysis
growth cartilage is located in 3 sites in the young adult:
epiphyseal plate, the joint surface, the apophyseal insertions
When males and females are compared relative to muscle cross-sectional area, it appears that the potential for force production is greater in males greater in females equal in males and females dependent upon body weight
equal in males and females
Which of the following is the MOST significant adaptation to chronic resistance training for an older adult? increased cardiovascular fitness improved blood lipid profile increased muscle mass improved flexibility
increased muscle mass
An eight-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six month resistance training program. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this gain? increased # of muscle fibers enhanced cross sectional area greater muscle density improved neuromuscular functioning
improved neuromuscular functioning
Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following locations except diaphysis epiphyseal plate joint surface apophyseal insertion
diaphysis
all of the following are likely outcomes of preadolescent resistance training EXCEPT increased: resistance to injury strength hypertrophy bone density
hypertrophy
the condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called:
osteoporosis
Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when designing a training program for a 68 year old competitive female tennis player? cardiovascular fitness lower body strength balance and agility medical history
medical history
Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and and soccer appear to be at an increased risk for developing injuries to the: back knee wrist neck
knee
state anxiety is anxiety _________.
confined to an instance in time.
trait anxiety is a personality characteristic that makes the person:
perceive situations as threatening
anxiety relating to psychological processes:
cognitive anxiety
anxiety relating to physical symptoms:
somatic anxiety
negative stress also known as ________.
distress
positive stress also known as __________.
eustress
process goals:
goals in which the athlete has control over
outcome goals:
goals in which the athlete has no control over.
successive approximation is __________.
short term goals that progress in difficulty
reciprocal inhibition is the principle that ________________.
a relaxed body will promote a relaxed mind.
somatic desensitization is ____________.
allowing an athlete to replace a fear response to various cues with a relaxation response.
During the closing seconds of a basketball game, an athlete’s team is down by one point and he has been awarded two free throw shots. The player is apprehensive about the outcome of the game. Which of the following best describes the athletes situation? He will not be able to make the free throws He is experiencing state anxiety He is in control of his arousal His anxiety will improve his performance
He is experiencing state anxiety
An olympic wieghtlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise? selective attention somatic anxiety successive approximation dissociation
selective attention
Prior to performing the long jump, an athlete reviews and concentrates on the technique required to jump as far as possible. Which of the following strategies is the athlete using to prepare for the jump? focus on task relevant cues reliance on experience association trait anxiety
focus on task relevant cues
Which of the following is MOST important to achieve the ideal performance state? fear of failure analyzing performance broad focus on the activity and the environment personal control
personal control
An athletes desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of the motive to avoid failure dissociation intrinsic motivation achievement motivation
Intrinsic motivation
For a high school american football team, if any player squats two time his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of positive reinforcement negative reinforcement negative punishment positive punishment
positive reinforcement
How does an athletes optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? it increases it decreases it has no effect it is not related to the activity
it decreases because he has less confidence in himself.
muscle dysmorphia:
reverse anorexia that body builders struggle with where they see themselves as small and weak.
acromegaly is __________.
excess secretion of growth hormone resulting in a disfiguring disease.
The Essential Amino Acids include:
isoleucine, leucine, methione, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan
All of the following are ingredients that qualify as dietary supplements in the US except: EAA’s vitamin c milk iodine
milk
All of the following describe caffeine’s role in improving athletic performance except: increased power production decreased glycogen depletion increased fat oxidation decreased urine production
decreased urine production
Which of the following are most closely linked in a logarithmic relationship? intake of anabolic steroids intake of androstenedione increase lean body mass increase in endogenous androgen production
I and III
Which of the following substances has been shown by multiple research studies to improve strength performance? androstenedione creatine L-carnitine chromium
creatine
Which of the following is the best reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use? hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease it may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production resistance to infectious disease may be impaired it may reduce the ability of blood to carry oxygen.
may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production
Protein recommended intake for males and females per kg body weight:
0.8 g per kg body weight
Daily protein recommendation percentage:
10-15%
protein requirement of aerobic endurance athlete is Higher/Lower than other athlete: (___g/kg body weight)
higher; 1.4g/kg
dietary recommendation of fiber for men and women respectively: (g/day)
38; 25
daily percentage recommendation of carbs: in % and minimal grams # of carbs:
45-65 % ; 50 to 100g
how much fluid per pound of body weight lost should be replaced post workout:
1 pint
Daily calorie needs of light activity level in kcal per pounds for male and female:
17 kcal/pound - male 16 kcal/pound- female
daily calories needs of moderate activity level in kcal/pound for men and women:
19kcal/ pound - male 17 kcal/ pound - female
daily calorie needs in kg/pound of heavy activity male and female
23 kcal/pound- male 20 kcal/pound- female
kcal increase per day in a week needed to support 1 pound of weight gain in average athlete
350-700 kcal above maintenance
extra calories in kcal needed for every one pound of weight gain in athlete:
2500 kcal
the maximal rate of fat loss per week in terms of body fat percentage possible is ______%.
1
daily caloric deficit in kcal needed to lose the standard 1.1 to 2.2 pounds per week
500-1000 kcal.
anorexia nervosa is characterized by ___________.
a self imposed starvation in an effort to achieve weight loss
bulimia nervosa is characterized by _______________.
Consuming a ton of food and puking it up
body mass index calc.
weight (kg)/height (meters)^ 2
underweight BMI class
normal BMI class
18-25
overweight BMI class
25-29
obese BMI class
30-39 (different levels)
Which of the following proteins has an amino acid profile MOST similar to the body’s needs? soy egg wheat rice
egg
Which of the following best explains the requirement for increased protein intake by athletes? decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise increased need for tissue repair restriction of calories to lose weight the quality of protein consumed.
increased need for tissue repair
Which of the following has the greatest influence on an athletes dietary carb requirement? current fat intake body size and fat % type, duration and freq of exercise resting blood sugar levels
type, duration, and freq of exercise
Which of the following best describes dietary fat consumption? should be less that 15% of total kcal for healthy individuals should never be higher than 40% of total kcal its restriction can be harmful to health and performance it is not an essential nutrient
restriction can be harmful to health and performance
Which of the following is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? normal body weight very low dietary fat intake preoccupation with food secretive eating
preoccupation with food
When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should: monitor the athletes daily food intake require frequent weigh ins encourage further assessment by a specialist provide nutritional information.
encourage further assessment by a specialist.
The degree to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure _________.
Validity
___________ validity is the ability of a test to actually measure what it is designed to measure.
Construct validity
________ validity is the appearance to the athletes and others that the test measures what its supposed to measure.
Face Validity
_______ validity is the assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant abilities.
Content Validity
____________ validity is the extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted scores that measure the same ability.
Concurrent Validity
_________ validity is evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the tested and the “gold standard”
Convergent Validity
__________ validity is the extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance.
Predictive Validity
________ validity is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by little correlation.
Discriminant Validity
__________ is a measure of the degree of consistency
reliability
_____ variability is between subjects
intra- subject
________ variability is between different test admins.
Intrarater variability
Correct order of sequencing for test types based on energy systems used: Sprint Anaerobic capacity Muscular Endurance Non Fatiguing Aerobic capacity Agility Maximum Power and Strength
Non-Fat Agil. Power/Strength Sprint Mus. Endurance Anaerobic Capacity Aerobic Capacity
A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? Vertical Jump 1RM bench press 5RM squat 100 M sprint
vertical jump (basketball sport specific ****remember that****)
When measuring maximal strength of an American Football lineman, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? using multiple sets retesting at a different time of day an athletes inexperience with the tested exercise using an established testing protocol
an athletes inexperience with the tested exercise
All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete’s cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT: perform the test in an indoor facility use salt tablets to retain water schedule the test in the morning drink fluids during the test
use salt tablets to retain water
The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? QB DB WR DL
DL (**** 10 m to QB and power to tackle******)
Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? t-test 1RM bench 1RM power clean 1-minute sit up test 3,1,4,2 1,3,2,4 4,2,1,3 2,3,1,4
1,3,2,4
__________ is the ability to stop, start and change direction rapidly.
Agility
_______ is movement distance per unit in time. Quantified as the time taken to cover a fixed distance.
Speed
_________ is the range of motion about a body joint.
Flexibility
____ __________ is the proportions by weight of fat and lean tissue.
Body Composition.
__________ is the science of measurement.
Anthropometry
_________ statistics allows one to draw conclusions about a pop. from info collected in a pop. sample.
Inferential Statistics
Anaerobic Capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting 5 minutes
30-90 seconds
All of the following tests are used to measure maximum muscular power EXCEPT the margaria-kalamen test vertical jump 40 yard sprint 1RM power clean
40 yard sprint
Flexibility of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit and reach test: hamstrings erector spinae lumbar spine hip flexors
I,II,III
Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified? touching the base of cone D shuffling from cone C to cone D crossing the feet from cone B to cone C Running forward from cone A to cone B
crossing the feet from cone B to cone C
Which of the following is the correct arm position when measuring the girth of the upper arm? neutral should with elbow flexed to 90 degrees elbow extended with forearm pronated should abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended elbow flexed to 90 degrees with forearm supinated
shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended
Of the locations measured in the 3-site skin fold protocols, which of the following are only measured on women? thigh supra iliac abdomen triceps
supra iliac; triceps
When compiling results from the volleyball team’s vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? mean median mode variance
median
maximum strength is also known as _____ speed strength.
low
maximum power is also known as ____ speed strength.
high
maximum strength test examples (2)
1 RM bench 1 RM back squat
maximum power test examples (4)
1 RM power clean Standing Long jump Vertical Jump margaria-kalamen
anaerobic capacity example test:
300- yard shuttle
Local muscle Endurance Tests (3):
Sit ups (partial curl ups); pushup test; YMCA bench press test
Aerobic capacity tests (2)
1.5 mile run 12 minute run
Agility tests examples (3):
T-test Hexagon test Pro agility (20 yard shuttle)
T-test reasons for disqualification: (3)
athlete fails to touch any of the bases of the cones; crosses feet instead of shuffling; fails to face forward during the test
hexagon test disqualification:
loses balance lands on the tape changes direction
speed test:
40 yard sprint
power in watts calculation:
P (watts)= (w*h)/t w=newtons h=meters t=seconds
weight in pounds to weight in newtons
1lb * 4.45
height in inches to height in meters:
1 in * .0254
The Bohr effect states that:
higher temperatures can facilitate oxygen release from hemoglobin and myoglobin
_________ flexibility requires no voluntary activity and uses gravity or a partner as external force.
static
_________ flexibility is the ROM during active muscular movements.
dynamic
_________ joints have the greatest ROM
ball and socket joints
_________ joints allow movement in the sagittal and frontal plane
ellipsoidal joint
ellipsoidal joint example
the wrist
_______ joints allow movement primarily in the sagittal plane
hinge
which type of joint has the least ROM? ellipsoidal ball and socket hinge joint
hinge
What is fibrosis?
replacement of muscle fibers with connective tissue
autogenic inhibition is________.
the active contraction of of a muscle immediately before a passive stretch of that same muscle. Tensions built up in the contraction stimulates relaxtion.
reciprocal inhibition is _________.
relaxation occurring in the muscle opposing the muscle experiencing increased tension.
When stimulated during PNF stretching, golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of -stretched muscle by contracting the recip. muscle -recip. muscle by contracting the stretched muscle -reciprocal muscle by its own contraction -stretched muscle by its own contraction
stretched muscle by its own contraction
Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? -dynamic -ballistic -static -passive
static
Dynamic stretching is the MOST similar to which of the following? -sport specific warm-up -general warm-up -low-intensity stretch -static stretch
specific warm up
Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a -relaxation of GTO’s -relaxation of the stretched muscle -contraction of the stretched muscle -contraction of the reciprocal muscle
contraction of the stretched muscle
After performing the hold-relax-with-agonist-contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility? -autogenic inhibition -stretch inhibition -reciprocal inhibition -cross-extensor inhibition A I/III B II/IV C I,II,III D II,III,IV
I and III only
All of the following exercises require a spotter except the flat dumbbell fly overhead triceps extension forward step lunge lat pulldown
lat pulldown
During which of the following exercises should a spotters hands be placed on the athlete’s wrists? bench press incline dumbbell bench press upright row lying barbell triceps extensions
incline dumbbell bench press
Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift? overhand closed pronated allternated
closed/alternated
Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step up exercise? up left, up right, down left, down right up right, up left , down left, down right up left, down left, up right, down right up right, up left, down right, down left
up right, up left, down left, down right
The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is -hip flexion -hip extension -knee flexion -dorsiflexion
hip extension
3 most important attributes to consider during the needs analysis
body and limb movement patterns strength,power,hypertrophy and endurance priorities common injury sites
off season resistance training priority:
hypertrophy and muscular endurance
Pre-season resistance training goals:
Sport specific movements, strength/power
In season resistance training goals
Maintenance of preseason goals
________ exercises are more applicable to the sport movements, and thus more important. assistance core
core
_______ and ________ are considered single primary joints.
glenohumeral spine
example of indirect spine loading:
power clean
Core exercises that emphasize spine loading are also termed _______ exercises.
structural
The best type of exercises for rehabilitation are ________.
assitance
what exercise is most specific and preferred to jumping?
the power clean
When determining a baseball players resistance training program needs, all of the following factors should be considered EXCEPT. programs of other players past medical history training status position on the field
programs of other players
The basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercises are MOST specific to this goal? power clean leg (knee) curl front squat seated calf raise
power clean and front squat
The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team resistance training frequency be altered? increase frequency to improve muscular endurance do not change frequency and add plyometrics decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice design a split routine with three days on and one day off
Decrease frequency
An american football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance? back squat, hip sled, leg curl, power clean power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg curl leg curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled hip sled, power clean, leg curl, back squat
B
What percentage of the 1RM typically allows an individual to perform 6 repetitions with that load? 92 90 85 80
85
Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST? 5 sets of 5 1 set of 5 5 sets of 15 1 set of 15
5 sets of 5
A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using 3 sets of 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will maximize her goal? 3 min 1.5 min 45 sec 30 sec
30 sec
estimated percentage of 1RM when 10 reps are achieved
75%
percentage of 1Rm estimated when 8 reps achieved
80%
percentage of 1RM estimated when 4> reps are achieved
90% and above
typical recommended recovery time in hours after each plyometrics session
48-72 hours
beginning plyometric training volume in points of contact
80-100
advanced plyometric training volume in points of contact
120-140
height that an athlete above 220 lbs should not do depth jumps above:
18 inches
minimum celling height for indoor plyo drills (in feet):
9-13 feet
Minimum landing surface allowed for plyo boxes ( ? X ?)
18 X 24 inches
recommended range for depth jump height in inches:
16-42 inches
All of the following are phases of stretch shortening cycle EXCEPT amortization concentric eccentric isometric
isometric
which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex? GTO’s muscle spindle extrafusal fibers pacinian corpuscle
muscle spindles
Which of the following is a primary component of the series elastic component? tendon muscle fiber actin ligament
tendon
Which of the following is BEST surface on which to perform lower body plyometric drills? trampoline exercise mat asphalt suspended wood floor
suspended wood floor
Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometrics training program? balance strength speed lean body mass
balance strength and speed only
Which of the following types of plyometrics drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense? jumps in place bounds depth jumps box jumps
depth jumps
Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training workout? 1:5 1:2 1:3 1:4
1:5
The ability to achieve high movement velocities is termed _________.
speed
The ability to change movement velocities rapidly is _________.
Agility
The ability to maintain maximal velocities or accelerations is __________.
speed endurance
Ability to repeatedly perform maximal or near maximal efforts in competition specific exercise.
special endurance
mass X acceleration = ________.
force
force X velocity = _________.
power
force X time = _______
impulse
Complex training is defined as _______:
alternating SSC tasks are mixed with heavy resistance exercises within the same session.
________ _________ is a characteristic of explosive strength exhibited in SSC actions that CAN me improved.
Reactive ability
________ _______ is relatively untrainable and correlates poorly with movement action time.
reaction time
Stride ______ is more important in determining final velocity
frequency
Stride ______ is more trainable than stride _______
frequency; length
The flight phase of running includes _______ and ________.
recovery and ground preparation
The support phase of running includes _______ and _______.
eccentric braking and concentric propulsion
hip angle in stagger stance is smaller in: elite subelite
elite
During the push off in sprinting, the rear leg produces ______ force but the front leg must exert force for a _______ period.
greater initial; longer.
An upright sprinting position is usually achieved by around _______ meters.
20 meters
Early flight checkpoints (2):
eccentric hip flexion eccentric knee extension
Mid-flight checkpoints (2)
Concentric hip flexion eccentric knee extension
late flight checkpoints (2)
concentric hip extension eccentric knee flexion
early support checkpoints (3)
concentric hip extension concentric knee flexion eccentric plantarflexion
late support checkpoints (3)
eccentric hip flexion concentric knee extension concentric plantar flexion
_______ _______ is the modification of action sequences upon observation or anticipation of novel or changing conditions.
adaptive ability
_______ is static and dynamic equilibrium
balance
__________ __________ is the coordination of body movements into a given action
combinatory ability
_________ is the accurate economical adjustments of body movements
differentiation
________ is the spatial and temporal control of body movements
orientation
__________ is the quick, well directed response to stimuli
reactiveness
_________ is the observation of dynamic motion patterns
rhythm
general agility tasks target _______:
the development of one or more basic coordinative abilities
_____ skills have programmed assignments and predictable environments.
Closed
______ skills have non programmed assignments and unstable environments
open skills
Sprint RESISTANCE works on: Stride ______ includes gravity-______ running Examples are:
stride length gravity resisted examples: harness, shute, sled, uphill, upstairs
Sprint ASSISTANCE works on: gravity-_____ running Improving stride _____. Working on achieving an _______ effect Examples:
gravity assisted running improving running stride frequency working on achieving an overspeed effect examples: harness and stretch cord downhill sprint
Long response plyometrics such as a _____ jump, transfer directly to _______ and _______ performance.
Squat; start; acceleration
Short response plyometrics such as a ______ jump, transfer to ______ .
depth jump; maximum velocity running.
Supramaximal competitive trial methods involve intensity ______ than competition and duration ______ than competition.
higher; less
Maximal competitive trial methods are done at intensity ______ competition at a duration _______ competition.
equal to; equal to.
Sub-maximal competitive trial methods use intensity _______ than competition and a duration ______ than competition.
less; longer
Intermediate training stage is from years _ to_ and incorporates training to _____.
5-6; training to train
Advanced training stage is from years _ to _ and emphasizes training to _______.
7-8; training to compete
The ability to maintain maximal velocity for longer than 6 seconds is referred to as which of the following types of endurance? special speed strength cardiovascular
Speed
Which of the following is the most influential factor to determine a sprinters maximum velocity? reaction time stride length leg length stride frequency
stride frequency
During the ground support phase of linear sprinting, which of the following muscles are responsible for storing and recovering elastic energy? gastroc hamstrings quads anter tibialis
gastroc and quads
All of the following actions during the ground support phase contribute to optimal stride length and frequency EXCEPT: -minimizing horizontal braking force -contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity -maximizing backward velocity of the leg -limiting the range of motion at the ankle
contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity
An athlete just completed a training cycle that focused on speed training. When applying the sequenced training strategy, which of the following training goals or exercise modes is the MOST appropriate to choose or prioritize for the NEXT training cycle? agility plyometrics SSC strength
strength
Which of the following describe how maximal backward sprinting is different from maximal forward sprinting? shorter stride length greater stride frequency longer ground support time earlier application of peak GRFs I,II,III,IV
I,II,III only
Which of the following elements of agility technical skills requires spatial and temporal control of body movements? differentiation rhythm balance orientation
orientation
