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CSCS Prep > CSCS > Flashcards

CSCS Flashcards

1
Q

The length-tension relationship of muscle is based on the following fact:

A

As muscle lengthens, the tension changes and is highest at the middle length.

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2
Q

All of the following sections of the sarcomere shorten during a concentric muscle action EXCEPT the A-band distance between Z-lines H-zone I-band

A

A-band

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3
Q

All of these factors contribute to venous return EXCEPT the muscle pump the respiratory pump vasoconstriction venoconstriction

A

vasoconstriction

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4
Q

This ion, stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, is released into the sarcoplasm to signal the beginning of the contraction process:

A

calcium

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5
Q

Which of the following will increase the dissociation between hemoglobin and oxygen? high partial pressure of oxygen increased pH increased temperature low partial pressure of CO2

A

increased temperature

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6
Q

All else being equal, this type of muscle fiber arrangement will be associated with higher forces:

A

bipennate

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7
Q

Internal rotation of the hip takes place in this plane:

A

transverse

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8
Q

The joint involving the femur and tibia is an example of this type of joint:

A

synovial

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9
Q

Josephine performs a biceps curl, lifting a weight from the extended arm position up to full flexion of the elbow. This movement provides an illustration of this type of lever system:

A

third-class

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10
Q

You meet up with your friend Heidi in the weight room. You haven’t seen her since she’d injured her leg during track practice. You observe that she’s performing progressive loading exercises with her injured leg. From this observation, you realize that she’s probably in this phase of healing:

A

remodeling

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11
Q

The primary substrate for a 50-meter sprint is

A

creatine phosphate

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12
Q

The general recommendation for dietary fat is

A

30% of total calories

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13
Q

At the beginning of aerobic exercise, before reaching steady state, an individual will be in this state:

A

oxygen deficit

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14
Q

The hormone used illegally by some athletes to enhance red blood cell production in the body is

A

erythropoietin

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15
Q

In order to lose 10 pounds, an individual will have to have a deficit of this many calories:

A

35,000 kilocalories

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16
Q

All of the following are examples of training adaptations for aerobic exercise EXCEPT increased blood volume increased capillary density increased heart rate at a given rate of exercise increased oxygen extraction at a given rate of exercise increased stroke volume at a given rate of exercise

A

increased heart rate at a given rate of exercise

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17
Q

All of the following are signs of overtraining EXCEPT decreased muscle glycogen decreased performance increased maximal oxygen uptake increased muscle soreness increased submaximal heart rate

A

increased maximal oxygen uptake

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18
Q

During maximal intensity activities (>90% of maximum) which fibers will be recruited?

A

Type I, Type IIa, and Type Iib

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19
Q

Which principle of training is based on the idea that one should target the sport-related energy pathways and muscle groups?

A

specificity

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20
Q

Exercise results in an increase in this system’s activity:

A

Sympathetic

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21
Q

Adaptations in all of the following contribute to increases in VO2max with endurance training EXCEPT heart rate stroke volume mitochondrial density capillary density

A

Heart rate

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a training goal for an aerobic endurance athlete?

A

increase VO2submax

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23
Q

An application of the principle of overload for an aerobic endurance athlete would be to have the athlete train

A

above lactate threshold

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24
Q

Toni wants to increase the speed at the end of her endurance running performance. The best training method for achieving this goal is

A

Repetition

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25
Q

Sally spent her Spring break training in the heat in Florida. She pushed herself more than usual and refused to take off any days. On three days she doubled her workout by running her program in the morning and again in the evening. When she returned from break, she found that her resting heart rate was higher than normal. This increase in heart rate was likely due to this:

A

Overtraining syndrome

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26
Q

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise for optimizing sport-specific muscular strength for well-trained athletes? assistance exercises core exercises structural exercises

A

Core exercises

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27
Q

An individual’s 1RM can be assessed in all of the following exercises EXCEPT Bicep curl Knee ext Shoulder press Calf raise

A

Shoulder press

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28
Q

This training goal requires the longest recovery time between sets:

A

Muscular strength and power

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29
Q

Which of the following statements is true about training to optimize muscular hypertrophy? It should be high volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods. It should be moderate volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods. It should be low volume with a high-intensity load and short rest periods. It should be low volume with a high-intensity load and long rest periods.

A

It should be high volume with a moderate-to-low intensity load and short rest periods.

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30
Q

Ian is training his quadriceps muscles for muscular endurance. The strength and conditioning coach has prescribed three sets of leg presses. What is the optimum amount of time between sets to help achieve his training goal?

A

30 seconds

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31
Q

Have athletes perform this type of recovery between 800 meter sprints for the quickest reduction in lactic acid.

A

Active recovery

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32
Q

To increase the runner’s stride frequency during the maximum speed of sprinting, use this type of training resisted sprinting assisted sprinting inverted sprinting converged sprinting

A

Assisted sprinting

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33
Q

Jake wants to begin a plyometrics training program, but his coach has advised him that in order to begin upper-body plyometric exercises, he must be able to bench press a minimum weight to be considered ready. Based on his personal information (height 6’2”, weight 190 lbs., 22 years of age), what is the minimum weight that Jake must bench press in order to be considered ready for upper-body plyometrics training? 95 lbs. 190 lbs. 285 lbs. 380 lbs.

A

285 lbs

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34
Q

The ability to perform a quick change in direction of a movement such as that observed during a movement involving the stretch-shortening cycle is called contractility effort distribution reaction time reactive ability

A

reactive ability

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35
Q

Paula has several years of experience with resistance and plyometric training. Based on her training, what is the suggested plyometric training volume? 80 to 100 100 to 120 120 to 140 140 to 200

A

120 to 140

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36
Q

For most resistance training exercises, the athlete should be instructed to

A

Exhale through the sticking point

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37
Q

The correct order of the movement phases used in a power clean is beginning position, catch, first pull, scoop, second pull beginning position, first pull, catch, second pull, scoop beginning position, first pull, scoop, second pull, catch beginning position, first pull, second pull, scoop, catch beginning position, scoop, first pull, second pull, catch

A

beginning position, first pull, scoop, second pull, catch

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38
Q

Andrea finds that her athletes’ performance on the push-up test and the YMCA bench press test is not similar, even though both tests are designed to assess muscular endurance of the upper body. These tests appear to lack this type of validity. concurrent validity construct validity content validity convergent validity

A

concurrent validity

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39
Q

Barbara read a research article that reported the Jackson & Pollock skinfold equation provided body composition estimates that were consistent with results from underwater weighing, a method considered the “gold standard” for body composition analysis. What type of validity does the Jackson-Pollock equation have based on this study?

A

convergent validity

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40
Q

Of the options listed below, which test would be most appropriate to use to test the general strength necessary for a football offensive lineman? the 1 RM leg extension the 1.5-mile run the 1RM bench press skinfold measures

A

1 RM bench

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41
Q

Which of the following tests will provide the most pertinent information about an athlete who is trying out as a spiker on the volleyball team? the 1RM back squat the 1RM bench press the line drill the vertical jump

A

Vertical jump

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42
Q

Which description best fits a test of anaerobic capacity? The movement is at low speed but requires one maximum exertion by the muscle. The movement is fast and requires maximum effort for about 1 second. The movement requires maximal effort for a duration of between 30 and 90 seconds. None of the above.

A

The movement requires maximal effort for a duration of between 30 and 90 seconds.

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43
Q

Bundles of Muscle Fibers

A

Fasciculi

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44
Q

outer most layer of connective tissue that encloses the entire muscle

A

Epimysium

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45
Q

Tissue covering the outside of fiber bundles

A

perimysium

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46
Q

connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber

A

endomysium

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47
Q

the cell membrane of a muscle cell

A

sarcolemma

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48
Q

other name for motor end plate

A

neuromuscular junction

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49
Q

a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

A

motor unit

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50
Q

thick filaments

A

myosin

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51
Q

of myosin molecules in a myosin filament

A

~200

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52
Q

thin filaments of two strands in a double helix that interact with myosin

A

actin

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53
Q

of actin filaments that surround each myosin filament

A

6

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54
Q

of of myosin filaments that surround each actin filament

A

3

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55
Q

The band that corresponds with the alignment of myosin filaments

A

A-band

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56
Q

band that contains the actin filaments

A

I-band

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57
Q

Area in the center of the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present

A

H-zone

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58
Q

tubules surrounding each myofibril

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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59
Q

area in the middle of the i band that appears as a thin black line

A

z-line

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60
Q

in a stretched muscle, the I bands and h-zone _____________. and there is _______force potential due to the reduced cross bridge alignment

A

elongate; low

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61
Q

troponin is situated along ________ filaments

A

actin

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62
Q

a protein that has a high affinity for calcium ions.

A

troponin

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63
Q

protein that runs along the actin filament in the groove of the double helix.

A

tropomyosin

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64
Q

fusing of high frequency muscles twitches

A

tetanus

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65
Q

kinesthesis

A

position of body parts with respect to gravity

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66
Q

modified muscle fibers that are part of a muscle spindle that run parallel to the normal, or extrafusal fibers.

A

intrafusal fibers

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67
Q

example of a muscle spindle test

A

knee jerk test

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68
Q

example of GTO reflex

A

PNF stretches

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69
Q

reduced muscle size and strength

A

sarcopenia

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70
Q

loss of function in older sedentary individuals is seen most prevalent in which muscles?

A

weight bearing extensors (lower limb and trunk extensors)

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71
Q

what area of the body does the right side of the heart pump blood?

A

through the lungs

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72
Q

what parts of the body does the left side of the heart pump blood to?

A

everywhere but the lungs.

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73
Q

each heart pump has two chambers _______and _______

A

atrium and ventricles

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74
Q

other name for the AV valves

A

tricuspid and mitral ( bicuspid) valves

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75
Q

ventricular contraction also known as________.

A

systole

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76
Q

other name for the semilunar valves

A

aortic and pulmonary valve

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77
Q

role of semilunar valves

A

prevent backflow from aorta and pulm arteries into ventricles during relaxation.

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78
Q

ventricular relaxation

A

diastole

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79
Q

role of the AV valves

A

prevent blood from flowing from ventricles into atria during contraction.

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80
Q

pacemaker of the heart

A

SA (sinoatrial node)

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81
Q

heart conduction order AV Bundle AV node left and right bundle branches SA node internodal pathways from SA node to AV

A

SA node > Internodal path > AV node > AV bundle > left and right branches

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82
Q

Growth hormone

A

stimulates IGF-1, protein synthesis and metabolism.

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83
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

Stimulates glucocorticoids in the adrenal cortex

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84
Q

Analgesia

A

Loss of sense of pain

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85
Q

Beta endorphin

A

Stimulates analgesic response

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86
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone

A

Stimluates ovum and sperm production

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87
Q

Luteinizing Hormone

A

Stimulates ovulation and secretion of sex hormones in ovaries and testes

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88
Q

Prolactin

A

Stimulates milk production in mammary glands and maintains secretion of progesterone.

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89
Q

Melanocyte stimulating hormone

A

Stim. Melanocytes that have dark melanin

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90
Q

Anti diuretic hormone

A

Increased smooth muscle contraction and reabsorption of water by the kidneys.

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91
Q

Oxytocin

A

Stim uterine contractions andrelease of milk by mamm glands

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92
Q

Thyroxine

A

Stimulates oxidative metabolism in mitochondria and cell growth

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93
Q

Calcitonin

A

Reduces calcium phosphate levels in blood

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94
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

Increase blood calcium, decrease blood phosphate, stimulates bone formation

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95
Q

Insulin

A

Stores glycogen, promotes glucose entry into cells, involved in protein syntheses

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96
Q

Glucagon

A

Increases blood glucose levels

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97
Q

Glucocorticoids (cortisol, cortisone)

A

Inhibit amino acid incorporation into proteins, stimulate breakdown of protein to carbs. promote use of fat

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98
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Increase body fluids via sodium potassium metabolism

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99
Q

Insulin like growth factors

A

Increase protein synthesis in cells

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100
Q

Epinephrine

A

Increases cardiac output, increases blood sugar and glycogen breakdown and fat metabolism.

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101
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Like epinephrine

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102
Q

Proenkephalin fragments

A

Enhance immune cell function, analgesia effects

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103
Q

Estrogens

A

Female sex characteristics

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104
Q

Progesterone

A

Female sex characteristics and mammary glands

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105
Q

Testosterone

A

Stimulates growth, increases protein anabolism, development of male sex characteristics.

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106
Q

Atrial peptide

A

Regulates sodium, potassium and fluid volume

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107
Q

Renin

A

Regulates kidney function,permeability and solute concentrations.

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108
Q

Antagonist

A

A muscle that can slow down or stop the movement.

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109
Q

What does antagonist protect against

A

Joint hyper extension at end range

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110
Q

Agonist

A

Prime mover

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111
Q

Muscle that assists indirectly in a movement. Example: scaps shoulder movement.

A

Synergist

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112
Q

what does the axial skeleton consist of:

A

skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum

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113
Q

what does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

shoulder, arm, wrist, legs pelvic girdle. (everything else basically)

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114
Q

uniaxial joint example

A

elbow

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115
Q

biaxial joint example

A

ankle and wrist

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116
Q

fibrous joint? what is its role and an example of it

A

allow no movement; sutures of the skull

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117
Q

cartilaginous joints? purpose and role?

A

allow limited movement; intervertebral disks

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118
Q

multiaxial joint example

A

shoulders, hips

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119
Q

synovial joints? role and example?

A

considerable movement, elbow and knee

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120
Q

first class lever. muscle force and resistive force act on __________ sides.

A

opposite

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121
Q

flat barbell bench coaching technique 3 common errors

A
  1. feet on top (5 point body contact) 2. bring bar below nipples on negative 3. spotter using anything other than alternating grip
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122
Q

incline bench barbell coaching tips common error

A

taking low back and butt off of seat and pushing up with legs ( 5 point contact)

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123
Q

flat bench dumbbell bench technique errors

A
  1. feet on top of bench (5 point contact) 2. spotter spotting at forearms- (spotter needs to have hands by forearms)
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124
Q

incline db bench press error

A
  1. spotter spots at elbows instead of close to forearms
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125
Q

flat barbell smith bench press errorss

A
  1. body adjusted so that the bar falls too high- close to neck level 2. lifter locks out elbows on positives
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126
Q

machine vertical chest press errors

A
  1. seat being too low, hands should be aligned with chest at nipple level 2. lifters head comes off seat, (5 point body contact)
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127
Q

single joint chest shoulder transverse adductors prime movers

A

pectoralis major; anterior deltiod

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128
Q

single joint chest shoulder girdle abductors prime movers

A

serratus anterior; pectoralis minor

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129
Q

Pec Deck errors

A
  1. Seat is too low. shoulders and elbows should be perpendicular to chest in respect to nipples
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130
Q

Flat dumbbell fly errors

A
  1. lifter has too much elbow flexion on negatives 2. Spotter needs hands on forearms instead of on elbows
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131
Q

multi joint chest shoulder transverse adductors prime movers are:

A

pectoralis major; anterior deltoid

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132
Q

multi joint chest shoulder girdle abductors:

A

serratus anterior; pec minor

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133
Q

multi joint back exercise prime movers: scapular adductors

A

middle trapezius; rhomboids

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134
Q

shoulder extensors for prime movers for multijoint back exercises:

A

lats; teres major; posterior deltoid

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135
Q

shoulder adductors:

A

Lats; teres major

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136
Q

Elbow flexors are:

A

biceps brachii; brachialis; brachioradialis

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137
Q

Lat pulldown errors

A
  1. lifter using bar attached with “s” hook ( should use caribiner hook or D hook) 2. bar is lowered behind the head.
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138
Q

bent over barbell row error

A
  1. lifters back is rounded during exercise
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139
Q

shoulder press shoulder abductors:

A

anterior deltoid; medial deltoid

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140
Q

shoulder girdle abductors:

A

upper trapezius; serratus anterior

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141
Q

Machine shoulder press error:

A

Seat is situated too low.

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142
Q

seated barbell shoulder press error

A
  1. lifter lowers bar behind head. (should lightly touch clavicles)
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143
Q

Front shoulder db raise error

A
  1. the lifter raises dumbbell too high (should be parallel and no higher than the floor 2. lifter raises both DB at same time…other should be at side (stationary)
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144
Q

side dumbbell raise errors

A
  1. the lifter raises DB too high 2. lifter externally rotates wrists and elbows at the end range of the positive.
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145
Q

Barbell biceps curl errors

A
  1. lifter flexes the shoulders during the upper movement ( no shoulder movement) 2. lifter flexes the elbows too far (elbows should not move forward towards end range)
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146
Q

low pulley biceps curl (machine) error

A
  1. lifter rounds back during exercise ( back extended backwards and shoulders up)
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147
Q

machine biceps curl error

A

1.lifter sets seat too high (thighs should be parallel to floor)

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148
Q

lying barbel triceps extensions error

A
  1. elbows flare outwards during the negative (elbows should point towards feet)
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149
Q

seated overhead barbell triceps extension error

A
  1. lifter sets arms away from head (arms should be situated next to the ears)
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150
Q

machine triceps pushdown errors

A
  1. lifter flexes torso forwards slightly during positive 2. lifter moves upper arms upward and brings elbows away from side of body
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151
Q

wrist flexors:

A

flexor carpi ulnaris flexor carpi radialis palmaris longus

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152
Q

wrist extensors:

A

extensor carpi ulnaris extensor carpi radialis extensor carpi longus

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153
Q

torso flexor:

A

rectus abdominus

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154
Q

bent knee situp errors

A
  1. lifters knees are fully extended 2. lifter curls torso up until it is perpendicular with ground (upper back should come off ground only until elbow point to thighs)
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155
Q

bench assisted ab crunch error

A

1.lifter raises butt on negative (butt stays on floor whole time)

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156
Q

prime movers for hip extensors

A

hamstrings; glutes

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157
Q

knee extensors prime movers for quadriceps group

A

quads

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158
Q

ankle plantar flexors prime movers

A

soleus ; gastrocnemius

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159
Q

three parts of the snatch

A
  1. first pull 2. scoop phase 3. second pull (power phase) 4. catch
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160
Q

snatch errors

A
  1. bar is too far away from the lifter throughout the range 2. lifter jumps outwards instead of upward on triple extension
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161
Q

power clean order

A
  1. first pull 2. scoop phase 3. second pull (power phase) 4. catch
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162
Q

power clean errors

A
  1. lifter preforms a reverse curl to bring the bar up. 2. lifter drops weight forcefully back down.
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163
Q

hang clean error

A

lifter begins pull in too-erect position. needs to be slightly bent over.

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164
Q

Push press/ push jerk error

A
  1. jumping too high
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165
Q

front squat errors

A
  1. lifter hold bar with elbows pointed towards ground. 2. the lifter takes the heels off the floor on the negative
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166
Q

back squat error

A
  1. lifter lets trunk fall forward
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167
Q

Hack Squat errors

A
  1. lifter goes lower than parallel on negative 2. lifter raises hips and butt off pad on positves
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168
Q

Leg press (hip sled) error

A
  1. lifter bows their knees inward during the range
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169
Q

Step up errors

A
  1. lifter pushes off with the trailing leg during lift. 2. lifter only steps foot partially onto box 3. lifter incorrectly steps off of box with same leg (should use same trailing leg)
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170
Q

barbell forward lunges error

A
  1. lifter takes too short of a step, letting knee extend over foot
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171
Q

Good morning errors

A
  1. lifters knees are fully extended and locked out. 2. lifters back is rounded and neck flexes over trunk
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172
Q

cori cycle involves converting __________ to _________ _____.

A

pyruvate ; lactic acid

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173
Q

Krebs cycle involves shuttling of pyruvate into ___________.

A

mitochondria

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174
Q

Primary source of ATP at rest and during Low intensity

A

Oxidative (aerobic) system

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175
Q

primary energy system used for moderate to high intensity activities

A

glycolytic

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176
Q

system used for low intensity activities

A

oxidative

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177
Q

range of phosphagen energy systems (exercise time and work to rest ratios)

A

exercise time 5-10 seconds work to rest 1:12-20

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178
Q

range of fast glycolysis exercise time and rest ratio

A

ex time: 15-30 seconds rest 1:3

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179
Q

range of oxidative system and exercise and work to rest ratios

A

ex time >3 minutes work rest 1:1

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180
Q

exercise high in volume, muscle groups number and short in rest time increases this hormone level.

A

cortisol

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181
Q

testosterone is an example of a __________ hormone.

A

steroid

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182
Q

insulin is an example of a ___________ hormone.

A

polypeptide

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183
Q

hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary (8)

A

GH beta endorphin adrenocorticotropic thyroid-stimulating follicle stimulating luteinizing hormone prolactin melanocyte-stimulating

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184
Q

hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (2)

A

antidiuretic hormone oxytocin

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185
Q

thyroid gland hormones (2)

A

thyroxine calcitonin

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186
Q

parathyroid gland hormones (1)

A

parathyroid hormone

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187
Q

pancreas hormones (2)

A

insulin glucagon

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188
Q

adrenal cortex hormones (2)

A

glucocorticoids mineralocoritcoids

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189
Q

Liver hormones (1)

A

insulin like growth factor

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190
Q

adrenal medulla hormones (3)

A

epinephrine norepinephrine proenkephalin fragments

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191
Q

Ovaries hormones (2)

A

estrogens progesterone

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192
Q

testes hormone (1)

A

testosterone

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193
Q

heart hormone (1)

A

atrial peptide

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194
Q

kidney hormone (1)

A

Renin

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195
Q

factors that can increase serum testosterone levels in young men (5)

A

short rests moderate to high volume two or more years of experience heavy resistance (85-90%) large muscle group exercises

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196
Q

diurnal variations are:

A

normal fluctuations in hormones throughout the day.

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197
Q

another name for growth hormone

A

somatotropin

198
Q

in order to elicit more GH, _________ rest times and ________ intensities must be used.

A

short; high

199
Q

IGF-1 synthesis takes about ________ hours

A

8-29

200
Q

after a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following info to the body EXCEPT amount of physio stress metabolic demands type of physio stress energy expended

A

energy expended

201
Q

which of the following hormones enhance muscle tissue growth? GH Coritsol IGF-1 progesterone

A

Gh and IGF-1

202
Q

all of the following are functions of GH except increase lipolysis decrease collagen synth increase amino acid transport decrease glucose utilization.

A

decrease collagen synthesis

203
Q

which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes? GH Testosterone cortisol IGF-1

A

testosterone

204
Q

which of the following hormone levels is higher in women at rest? cortisol insulin testosterone GH

A

growth hormone

205
Q

anatomical/practical example of first class lever.

A

prac- see saw ana- the forearm

206
Q

anatomical/practical 2nd class lever

A

wheelbarrow- prac plantar flexion of the foot- ana

207
Q

fulcrum/force theory for 1st class levers

A

force is opposite sides of fulcrum

208
Q

fulcrum/force theory for 2nd class levers

A

force on same side of fulcrum, muscle force has bigger lever than the resistive force

209
Q

fulcrum/force theory for 3rd class levers

A

force on same side of fulcrum, muscle force has a shorter lever than the resistive force

210
Q

radiate muscle example

A

deltoid

211
Q

longitudinal muscle example

A

rectus abdominus

212
Q

fusiform muscle example

A

biceps brachii

213
Q

multipennate muscle example

A

deltoid

214
Q

bipennate muscle example

A

rectus femoris

215
Q

unipennate muscle example

A

tibialis posterior

216
Q

muscle generates the greatest force at its _________ length.

A

resting

217
Q

body size classic formula

A

load lifted __________ body weight to the 2/3 power.

218
Q

surface drag results from

A

the friction of a fluid passing along a surface

219
Q

form drag results from

A

the way in which a fluid presses against the front or rear of an object passing through it.

220
Q

lordotic back meaning

A

slightly arched

221
Q

kyphotic back meaning

A

naturally s shaped slightly rounded back

222
Q

muscles of the rotator cuff.

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor

223
Q

sagittal plane:

A

slices body into left and right planes

224
Q

frontal plane:

A

slices body into front and back

225
Q

transverse plane:

A

upper and lower body sections

226
Q

which of the following best describes a knee joint? synovial cartilaginous ball and socket pivot

A

synovial

227
Q

which of the following is the definition of power? force x velocity mass x acceleration torque x time force x distance

A

force x veloctiy

228
Q

to compare performances of olympic weights lifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athletes: body weight body weight squared lean body weight body weight to the two-thirds power

A

body weight to the two-thirds power

229
Q

during a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following? perp. distance from the weight to the body point joint angle movement acceleration movement velocity squared

A

perp distance / movement acceleration

230
Q

a vertical jump involved knee hip and should movement primarily in which plane? sagittal perpendicular frontal transverse

A

sagittal

231
Q

An athlete is performing concentric isokenetic elbow flexion and extension. which of the following types of levers occur at the elbow during this exercise? 1st 2nd 3rd

A

1st and 3rd

232
Q

muscle renegeration

A

myogenisis

233
Q

hyperplasia

A

an increase in the number of actual muscle fibers

234
Q

osteoblasts:

A

migrate to bone surface and begin remodeling

235
Q

trabecular bone

A

other name for spongy bone

236
Q

cortical bone

A

other name for compact bone

237
Q

which bone responds more rapidly to stimuli trabecular cortical

A

trabecular

238
Q

which of the following is layer of connective tissue enveloping a single muscle fiber? endomysium perimysium epimysium myomysium

A

endomysium

239
Q

which of the following is the first phase of periodization training? power hypertrophy strength plan

A

hypertrophy

240
Q

which of the following lever classes has the fulcrum at one end and the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load? I II III IV

A

class III

241
Q

in a myofibril, in cross section ___ actins can interact with each myosin. 2 3 4 6

A

6

242
Q

which of the following is an example of a penniform muscle? transverse abdominis abductor longus supraspinatus peroneus terius

A

transverse abdominis

243
Q

which of the following is an example of a hinge joint elbow shoulder hip atlas and axis

A

elbow

244
Q

which of the following is the correct formula for calculating target heart rate?

A

% intensity X heart rate reserve + resting heart rate

245
Q

which of the following is not a characteristic of using growth hornomone? induces precursor cells to differentiate cause secretion of IGF-1 directly stimulates ATP production stimulates protein synthesis

A

directly stimulates ATP production

246
Q

how many amino acids must be found in your diet and cannot be manufactured by your own body? 5 7 9 11

A

9

247
Q

which of the following is not a byproduct of protein breakdown? Nitrogen Hydrogen Uric Acid Enzymes

A

enzymes

248
Q

which of the following is not true about isometric exercise? capable of increasing muscle strength at specific joint angles no corresponding increase at other joint angles always produce spikes in systolic blood pressure could cause life threatening cardiovascular accident

A

always produces spikes in systolic blood pressure

249
Q

the threshold stimulus that initiates new bone formation is ______ ________ ________ (MES)

A

minimal essential strain

250
Q

Quantity of mineral deposited in a given area of bone.

A

Bone Mineral Density

251
Q

hyaline cartilage is found on ___________.

A

articulating surfaces of bones

252
Q

fibrous cartilage is tough and found in ___________ and ___________.

A

intervertebral disks and junctions of tendons.

253
Q

rate pressure product formula

A

Heart rate x systolic blood pressure

254
Q

ventilation equivalent is defined as the ratio of __________.

A

ratio of air ventilated to oxygen used by the tissues

255
Q

which of the following muscle fiber types has the GREATEST potential to, when trained in a specific way, CHANGE into a more oxidative aerobic form? IIa IIx IIc

A

IIx

256
Q

A weightlifter adds 30 minutes of intense stationary bicycle riding every other day to her resistance training program. which of the following describe the GREATEST effect this addition will have on her performance? power will be compromised power will be enhanced aerobic capacity improvements will be compromised aerobic capacity improvements will be enhanced

A

power gains will be compromised

257
Q

A 50 year old female triathlete is concerned about osteoporosis. which of the following exercises is the most beneficial for improving her bone mineral density? front squat leg extension bench press lat pulldown

A

front squat

258
Q

which of the following muscle fiber types are “bypassed” as a result of selective recruitment that allows and olympic weightlifter to generate maximum power during the 1RM snatch? I IIa IIx IIc

A

Type I

259
Q

which of the following are the most effective stimulants of growth hormone production from resistance training workout? large muscle mass exercises small muscle mass exercises high intensity and volume low intensity and volume

A

large muscle mass; high intensity and volume

260
Q

The initial decrease in in muscular strength caused by detraining is due to the undesired changes in which of the following systems? cardiovascular connective muscular nervous

A

nervous

261
Q

cardiac output is __________.

A

amount of blood pumped out by the heart in liters per minute

262
Q

stroke volume is ___________

A

the quantity of blood ejected with each heart beat

263
Q

cardiac output equation is ________ x _________.

A

stroke volume X heart rate

264
Q

maximal heart rate equation

A

220- age in years.

265
Q

1 MET = how many ml of oxygen per kg body weight per minute?

A

3.5

266
Q

fick equation: V02 = ____ X _______

A

q (cardiac output); a V02 difference.

267
Q

arteriovenous oxygen difference is ____________

A

the difference in oxygen content between arterial and venous blood

268
Q

tidal volume is the total amount of air ______ and ________ with each breath.

A

inhaled; exhaled

269
Q

functional unit of the pulmonary system where gas exchange occurs:

A

alveoli

270
Q

bradycardia

A

slow heart rate

271
Q

what is myoglobin?

A

a protein that transports oxygen within the cell

272
Q

Two adaptation that occur at higher altitudes

A

Hyperventilation Increased cardiac output at rest due to higher heart rate

273
Q

hyperoxic breathing:

A

breathing oxygen enriched gas mixtures during rest periods or following exercise

274
Q

blood doping (mechanism)

A

running your blood through EPO and then shuttling it back into your body.

275
Q

A 17 year old high school cross country runner has been training aerobically for 6 months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscle during that time. increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes hyperplasia of type II fibers transformation from type I to Type II fibers hypertrophy of type I fibers

A

hypertrophy of type I fibers

276
Q

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the ___________

A

stroke volume

277
Q

All of the following normally increase during an aerobic exercise bout EXCEPT end diastolic volume cardiac contractility cardiac output diastolic blood pressure

A

diastolic blood pressure

278
Q

Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? increased maximal oxygen uptake decreased blood lactate concentration increased running economy decreased capillary density

A

I, II, III

279
Q

The mean arterial pressure is defined as the:

A

average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle

280
Q

which of the following is an early adaptation to acclimatizing to high altitude? decreased tidal volume decreased respiration rate increased resting cardiac output increased stroke volume

A

increased resting cardiac output

281
Q

menarche is _____________.

A

the onset of initial menstruation in girls

282
Q

peak height velocity is also known as the ________ __________.

A

growth spurt

283
Q

the central shaft of a long bone is known as the __________.

A

diaphysis

284
Q

growth cartilage is located in 3 sites in the young adult:

A

epiphyseal plate, the joint surface, the apophyseal insertions

285
Q

When males and females are compared relative to muscle cross-sectional area, it appears that the potential for force production is greater in males greater in females equal in males and females dependent upon body weight

A

equal in males and females

286
Q

Which of the following is the MOST significant adaptation to chronic resistance training for an older adult? increased cardiovascular fitness improved blood lipid profile increased muscle mass improved flexibility

A

increased muscle mass

287
Q

An eight-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six month resistance training program. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this gain? increased # of muscle fibers enhanced cross sectional area greater muscle density improved neuromuscular functioning

A

improved neuromuscular functioning

288
Q

Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following locations except diaphysis epiphyseal plate joint surface apophyseal insertion

A

diaphysis

289
Q

all of the following are likely outcomes of preadolescent resistance training EXCEPT increased: resistance to injury strength hypertrophy bone density

A

hypertrophy

290
Q

the condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called:

A

osteoporosis

291
Q

Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when designing a training program for a 68 year old competitive female tennis player? cardiovascular fitness lower body strength balance and agility medical history

A

medical history

292
Q

Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and and soccer appear to be at an increased risk for developing injuries to the: back knee wrist neck

A

knee

293
Q

state anxiety is anxiety _________.

A

confined to an instance in time.

294
Q

trait anxiety is a personality characteristic that makes the person:

A

perceive situations as threatening

295
Q

anxiety relating to psychological processes:

A

cognitive anxiety

296
Q

anxiety relating to physical symptoms:

A

somatic anxiety

297
Q

negative stress also known as ________.

A

distress

298
Q

positive stress also known as __________.

A

eustress

299
Q

process goals:

A

goals in which the athlete has control over

300
Q

outcome goals:

A

goals in which the athlete has no control over.

301
Q

successive approximation is __________.

A

short term goals that progress in difficulty

302
Q

reciprocal inhibition is the principle that ________________.

A

a relaxed body will promote a relaxed mind.

303
Q

somatic desensitization is ____________.

A

allowing an athlete to replace a fear response to various cues with a relaxation response.

304
Q

During the closing seconds of a basketball game, an athlete’s team is down by one point and he has been awarded two free throw shots. The player is apprehensive about the outcome of the game. Which of the following best describes the athletes situation? He will not be able to make the free throws He is experiencing state anxiety He is in control of his arousal His anxiety will improve his performance

A

He is experiencing state anxiety

305
Q

An olympic wieghtlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise? selective attention somatic anxiety successive approximation dissociation

A

selective attention

306
Q

Prior to performing the long jump, an athlete reviews and concentrates on the technique required to jump as far as possible. Which of the following strategies is the athlete using to prepare for the jump? focus on task relevant cues reliance on experience association trait anxiety

A

focus on task relevant cues

307
Q

Which of the following is MOST important to achieve the ideal performance state? fear of failure analyzing performance broad focus on the activity and the environment personal control

A

personal control

308
Q

An athletes desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of the motive to avoid failure dissociation intrinsic motivation achievement motivation

A

Intrinsic motivation

309
Q

For a high school american football team, if any player squats two time his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of positive reinforcement negative reinforcement negative punishment positive punishment

A

positive reinforcement

310
Q

How does an athletes optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? it increases it decreases it has no effect it is not related to the activity

A

it decreases because he has less confidence in himself.

311
Q

muscle dysmorphia:

A

reverse anorexia that body builders struggle with where they see themselves as small and weak.

312
Q

acromegaly is __________.

A

excess secretion of growth hormone resulting in a disfiguring disease.

313
Q

The Essential Amino Acids include:

A

isoleucine, leucine, methione, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan

314
Q

All of the following are ingredients that qualify as dietary supplements in the US except: EAA’s vitamin c milk iodine

A

milk

315
Q

All of the following describe caffeine’s role in improving athletic performance except: increased power production decreased glycogen depletion increased fat oxidation decreased urine production

A

decreased urine production

316
Q

Which of the following are most closely linked in a logarithmic relationship? intake of anabolic steroids intake of androstenedione increase lean body mass increase in endogenous androgen production

A

I and III

317
Q

Which of the following substances has been shown by multiple research studies to improve strength performance? androstenedione creatine L-carnitine chromium

A

creatine

318
Q

Which of the following is the best reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use? hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease it may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production resistance to infectious disease may be impaired it may reduce the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

A

may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production

319
Q

Protein recommended intake for males and females per kg body weight:

A

0.8 g per kg body weight

320
Q

Daily protein recommendation percentage:

A

10-15%

321
Q

protein requirement of aerobic endurance athlete is Higher/Lower than other athlete: (___g/kg body weight)

A

higher; 1.4g/kg

322
Q

dietary recommendation of fiber for men and women respectively: (g/day)

A

38; 25

323
Q

daily percentage recommendation of carbs: in % and minimal grams # of carbs:

A

45-65 % ; 50 to 100g

324
Q

how much fluid per pound of body weight lost should be replaced post workout:

A

1 pint

325
Q

Daily calorie needs of light activity level in kcal per pounds for male and female:

A

17 kcal/pound - male 16 kcal/pound- female

326
Q

daily calories needs of moderate activity level in kcal/pound for men and women:

A

19kcal/ pound - male 17 kcal/ pound - female

327
Q

daily calorie needs in kg/pound of heavy activity male and female

A

23 kcal/pound- male 20 kcal/pound- female

328
Q

kcal increase per day in a week needed to support 1 pound of weight gain in average athlete

A

350-700 kcal above maintenance

329
Q

extra calories in kcal needed for every one pound of weight gain in athlete:

A

2500 kcal

330
Q

the maximal rate of fat loss per week in terms of body fat percentage possible is ______%.

A

1

331
Q

daily caloric deficit in kcal needed to lose the standard 1.1 to 2.2 pounds per week

A

500-1000 kcal.

332
Q

anorexia nervosa is characterized by ___________.

A

a self imposed starvation in an effort to achieve weight loss

333
Q

bulimia nervosa is characterized by _______________.

A

Consuming a ton of food and puking it up

334
Q

body mass index calc.

A

weight (kg)/height (meters)^ 2

335
Q

underweight BMI class

A
336
Q

normal BMI class

A

18-25

337
Q

overweight BMI class

A

25-29

338
Q

obese BMI class

A

30-39 (different levels)

339
Q

Which of the following proteins has an amino acid profile MOST similar to the body’s needs? soy egg wheat rice

A

egg

340
Q

Which of the following best explains the requirement for increased protein intake by athletes? decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise increased need for tissue repair restriction of calories to lose weight the quality of protein consumed.

A

increased need for tissue repair

341
Q

Which of the following has the greatest influence on an athletes dietary carb requirement? current fat intake body size and fat % type, duration and freq of exercise resting blood sugar levels

A

type, duration, and freq of exercise

342
Q

Which of the following best describes dietary fat consumption? should be less that 15% of total kcal for healthy individuals should never be higher than 40% of total kcal its restriction can be harmful to health and performance it is not an essential nutrient

A

restriction can be harmful to health and performance

343
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? normal body weight very low dietary fat intake preoccupation with food secretive eating

A

preoccupation with food

344
Q

When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should: monitor the athletes daily food intake require frequent weigh ins encourage further assessment by a specialist provide nutritional information.

A

encourage further assessment by a specialist.

345
Q

The degree to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure _________.

A

Validity

346
Q

___________ validity is the ability of a test to actually measure what it is designed to measure.

A

Construct validity

347
Q

________ validity is the appearance to the athletes and others that the test measures what its supposed to measure.

A

Face Validity

348
Q

_______ validity is the assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant abilities.

A

Content Validity

349
Q

____________ validity is the extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted scores that measure the same ability.

A

Concurrent Validity

350
Q

_________ validity is evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the tested and the “gold standard”

A

Convergent Validity

351
Q

__________ validity is the extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance.

A

Predictive Validity

352
Q

________ validity is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by little correlation.

A

Discriminant Validity

353
Q

__________ is a measure of the degree of consistency

A

reliability

354
Q

_____ variability is between subjects

A

intra- subject

355
Q

________ variability is between different test admins.

A

Intrarater variability

356
Q

Correct order of sequencing for test types based on energy systems used: Sprint Anaerobic capacity Muscular Endurance Non Fatiguing Aerobic capacity Agility Maximum Power and Strength

A

Non-Fat Agil. Power/Strength Sprint Mus. Endurance Anaerobic Capacity Aerobic Capacity

357
Q

A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? Vertical Jump 1RM bench press 5RM squat 100 M sprint

A

vertical jump (basketball sport specific ****remember that****)

358
Q

When measuring maximal strength of an American Football lineman, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? using multiple sets retesting at a different time of day an athletes inexperience with the tested exercise using an established testing protocol

A

an athletes inexperience with the tested exercise

359
Q

All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete’s cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT: perform the test in an indoor facility use salt tablets to retain water schedule the test in the morning drink fluids during the test

A

use salt tablets to retain water

360
Q

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? QB DB WR DL

A

DL (**** 10 m to QB and power to tackle******)

361
Q

Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? t-test 1RM bench 1RM power clean 1-minute sit up test 3,1,4,2 1,3,2,4 4,2,1,3 2,3,1,4

A

1,3,2,4

362
Q

__________ is the ability to stop, start and change direction rapidly.

A

Agility

363
Q

_______ is movement distance per unit in time. Quantified as the time taken to cover a fixed distance.

A

Speed

364
Q

_________ is the range of motion about a body joint.

A

Flexibility

365
Q

____ __________ is the proportions by weight of fat and lean tissue.

A

Body Composition.

366
Q

__________ is the science of measurement.

A

Anthropometry

367
Q

_________ statistics allows one to draw conclusions about a pop. from info collected in a pop. sample.

A

Inferential Statistics

368
Q

Anaerobic Capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting 5 minutes

A

30-90 seconds

369
Q

All of the following tests are used to measure maximum muscular power EXCEPT the margaria-kalamen test vertical jump 40 yard sprint 1RM power clean

A

40 yard sprint

370
Q

Flexibility of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit and reach test: hamstrings erector spinae lumbar spine hip flexors

A

I,II,III

371
Q

Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified? touching the base of cone D shuffling from cone C to cone D crossing the feet from cone B to cone C Running forward from cone A to cone B

A

crossing the feet from cone B to cone C

372
Q

Which of the following is the correct arm position when measuring the girth of the upper arm? neutral should with elbow flexed to 90 degrees elbow extended with forearm pronated should abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended elbow flexed to 90 degrees with forearm supinated

A

shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended

373
Q

Of the locations measured in the 3-site skin fold protocols, which of the following are only measured on women? thigh supra iliac abdomen triceps

A

supra iliac; triceps

374
Q

When compiling results from the volleyball team’s vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? mean median mode variance

A

median

375
Q

maximum strength is also known as _____ speed strength.

A

low

376
Q

maximum power is also known as ____ speed strength.

A

high

377
Q

maximum strength test examples (2)

A

1 RM bench 1 RM back squat

378
Q

maximum power test examples (4)

A

1 RM power clean Standing Long jump Vertical Jump margaria-kalamen

379
Q

anaerobic capacity example test:

A

300- yard shuttle

380
Q

Local muscle Endurance Tests (3):

A

Sit ups (partial curl ups); pushup test; YMCA bench press test

381
Q

Aerobic capacity tests (2)

A

1.5 mile run 12 minute run

382
Q

Agility tests examples (3):

A

T-test Hexagon test Pro agility (20 yard shuttle)

383
Q

T-test reasons for disqualification: (3)

A

athlete fails to touch any of the bases of the cones; crosses feet instead of shuffling; fails to face forward during the test

384
Q

hexagon test disqualification:

A

loses balance lands on the tape changes direction

385
Q

speed test:

A

40 yard sprint

386
Q

power in watts calculation:

A

P (watts)= (w*h)/t w=newtons h=meters t=seconds

387
Q

weight in pounds to weight in newtons

A

1lb * 4.45

388
Q

height in inches to height in meters:

A

1 in * .0254

389
Q

The Bohr effect states that:

A

higher temperatures can facilitate oxygen release from hemoglobin and myoglobin

390
Q

_________ flexibility requires no voluntary activity and uses gravity or a partner as external force.

A

static

391
Q

_________ flexibility is the ROM during active muscular movements.

A

dynamic

392
Q

_________ joints have the greatest ROM

A

ball and socket joints

393
Q

_________ joints allow movement in the sagittal and frontal plane

A

ellipsoidal joint

394
Q

ellipsoidal joint example

A

the wrist

395
Q

_______ joints allow movement primarily in the sagittal plane

A

hinge

396
Q

which type of joint has the least ROM? ellipsoidal ball and socket hinge joint

A

hinge

397
Q

What is fibrosis?

A

replacement of muscle fibers with connective tissue

398
Q

autogenic inhibition is________.

A

the active contraction of of a muscle immediately before a passive stretch of that same muscle. Tensions built up in the contraction stimulates relaxtion.

399
Q

reciprocal inhibition is _________.

A

relaxation occurring in the muscle opposing the muscle experiencing increased tension.

400
Q

When stimulated during PNF stretching, golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of -stretched muscle by contracting the recip. muscle -recip. muscle by contracting the stretched muscle -reciprocal muscle by its own contraction -stretched muscle by its own contraction

A

stretched muscle by its own contraction

401
Q

Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? -dynamic -ballistic -static -passive

A

static

402
Q

Dynamic stretching is the MOST similar to which of the following? -sport specific warm-up -general warm-up -low-intensity stretch -static stretch

A

specific warm up

403
Q

Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a -relaxation of GTO’s -relaxation of the stretched muscle -contraction of the stretched muscle -contraction of the reciprocal muscle

A

contraction of the stretched muscle

404
Q

After performing the hold-relax-with-agonist-contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility? -autogenic inhibition -stretch inhibition -reciprocal inhibition -cross-extensor inhibition A I/III B II/IV C I,II,III D II,III,IV

A

I and III only

405
Q

All of the following exercises require a spotter except the flat dumbbell fly overhead triceps extension forward step lunge lat pulldown

A

lat pulldown

406
Q

During which of the following exercises should a spotters hands be placed on the athlete’s wrists? bench press incline dumbbell bench press upright row lying barbell triceps extensions

A

incline dumbbell bench press

407
Q

Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift? overhand closed pronated allternated

A

closed/alternated

408
Q

Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step up exercise? up left, up right, down left, down right up right, up left , down left, down right up left, down left, up right, down right up right, up left, down right, down left

A

up right, up left, down left, down right

409
Q

The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is -hip flexion -hip extension -knee flexion -dorsiflexion

A

hip extension

410
Q

3 most important attributes to consider during the needs analysis

A

body and limb movement patterns strength,power,hypertrophy and endurance priorities common injury sites

411
Q

off season resistance training priority:

A

hypertrophy and muscular endurance

412
Q

Pre-season resistance training goals:

A

Sport specific movements, strength/power

413
Q

In season resistance training goals

A

Maintenance of preseason goals

414
Q

________ exercises are more applicable to the sport movements, and thus more important. assistance core

A

core

415
Q

_______ and ________ are considered single primary joints.

A

glenohumeral spine

416
Q

example of indirect spine loading:

A

power clean

417
Q

Core exercises that emphasize spine loading are also termed _______ exercises.

A

structural

418
Q

The best type of exercises for rehabilitation are ________.

A

assitance

419
Q

what exercise is most specific and preferred to jumping?

A

the power clean

420
Q

When determining a baseball players resistance training program needs, all of the following factors should be considered EXCEPT. programs of other players past medical history training status position on the field

A

programs of other players

421
Q

The basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercises are MOST specific to this goal? power clean leg (knee) curl front squat seated calf raise

A

power clean and front squat

422
Q

The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team resistance training frequency be altered? increase frequency to improve muscular endurance do not change frequency and add plyometrics decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice design a split routine with three days on and one day off

A

Decrease frequency

423
Q

An american football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance? back squat, hip sled, leg curl, power clean power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg curl leg curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled hip sled, power clean, leg curl, back squat

A

B

424
Q

What percentage of the 1RM typically allows an individual to perform 6 repetitions with that load? 92 90 85 80

A

85

425
Q

Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST? 5 sets of 5 1 set of 5 5 sets of 15 1 set of 15

A

5 sets of 5

426
Q

A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using 3 sets of 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will maximize her goal? 3 min 1.5 min 45 sec 30 sec

A

30 sec

427
Q

estimated percentage of 1RM when 10 reps are achieved

A

75%

428
Q

percentage of 1Rm estimated when 8 reps achieved

A

80%

429
Q

percentage of 1RM estimated when 4> reps are achieved

A

90% and above

430
Q

typical recommended recovery time in hours after each plyometrics session

A

48-72 hours

431
Q

beginning plyometric training volume in points of contact

A

80-100

432
Q

advanced plyometric training volume in points of contact

A

120-140

433
Q

height that an athlete above 220 lbs should not do depth jumps above:

A

18 inches

434
Q

minimum celling height for indoor plyo drills (in feet):

A

9-13 feet

435
Q

Minimum landing surface allowed for plyo boxes ( ? X ?)

A

18 X 24 inches

436
Q

recommended range for depth jump height in inches:

A

16-42 inches

437
Q

All of the following are phases of stretch shortening cycle EXCEPT amortization concentric eccentric isometric

A

isometric

438
Q

which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex? GTO’s muscle spindle extrafusal fibers pacinian corpuscle

A

muscle spindles

439
Q

Which of the following is a primary component of the series elastic component? tendon muscle fiber actin ligament

A

tendon

440
Q

Which of the following is BEST surface on which to perform lower body plyometric drills? trampoline exercise mat asphalt suspended wood floor

A

suspended wood floor

441
Q

Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometrics training program? balance strength speed lean body mass

A

balance strength and speed only

442
Q

Which of the following types of plyometrics drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense? jumps in place bounds depth jumps box jumps

A

depth jumps

443
Q

Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training workout? 1:5 1:2 1:3 1:4

A

1:5

444
Q

The ability to achieve high movement velocities is termed _________.

A

speed

445
Q

The ability to change movement velocities rapidly is _________.

A

Agility

446
Q

The ability to maintain maximal velocities or accelerations is __________.

A

speed endurance

447
Q

Ability to repeatedly perform maximal or near maximal efforts in competition specific exercise.

A

special endurance

448
Q

mass X acceleration = ________.

A

force

449
Q

force X velocity = _________.

A

power

450
Q

force X time = _______

A

impulse

451
Q

Complex training is defined as _______:

A

alternating SSC tasks are mixed with heavy resistance exercises within the same session.

452
Q

________ _________ is a characteristic of explosive strength exhibited in SSC actions that CAN me improved.

A

Reactive ability

453
Q

________ _______ is relatively untrainable and correlates poorly with movement action time.

A

reaction time

454
Q

Stride ______ is more important in determining final velocity

A

frequency

455
Q

Stride ______ is more trainable than stride _______

A

frequency; length

456
Q

The flight phase of running includes _______ and ________.

A

recovery and ground preparation

457
Q

The support phase of running includes _______ and _______.

A

eccentric braking and concentric propulsion

458
Q

hip angle in stagger stance is smaller in: elite subelite

A

elite

459
Q

During the push off in sprinting, the rear leg produces ______ force but the front leg must exert force for a _______ period.

A

greater initial; longer.

460
Q

An upright sprinting position is usually achieved by around _______ meters.

A

20 meters

461
Q

Early flight checkpoints (2):

A

eccentric hip flexion eccentric knee extension

462
Q

Mid-flight checkpoints (2)

A

Concentric hip flexion eccentric knee extension

463
Q

late flight checkpoints (2)

A

concentric hip extension eccentric knee flexion

464
Q

early support checkpoints (3)

A

concentric hip extension concentric knee flexion eccentric plantarflexion

465
Q

late support checkpoints (3)

A

eccentric hip flexion concentric knee extension concentric plantar flexion

466
Q

_______ _______ is the modification of action sequences upon observation or anticipation of novel or changing conditions.

A

adaptive ability

467
Q

_______ is static and dynamic equilibrium

A

balance

468
Q

__________ __________ is the coordination of body movements into a given action

A

combinatory ability

469
Q

_________ is the accurate economical adjustments of body movements

A

differentiation

470
Q

________ is the spatial and temporal control of body movements

A

orientation

471
Q

__________ is the quick, well directed response to stimuli

A

reactiveness

472
Q

_________ is the observation of dynamic motion patterns

A

rhythm

473
Q

general agility tasks target _______:

A

the development of one or more basic coordinative abilities

474
Q

_____ skills have programmed assignments and predictable environments.

A

Closed

475
Q

______ skills have non programmed assignments and unstable environments

A

open skills

476
Q

Sprint RESISTANCE works on: Stride ______ includes gravity-______ running Examples are:

A

stride length gravity resisted examples: harness, shute, sled, uphill, upstairs

477
Q

Sprint ASSISTANCE works on: gravity-_____ running Improving stride _____. Working on achieving an _______ effect Examples:

A

gravity assisted running improving running stride frequency working on achieving an overspeed effect examples: harness and stretch cord downhill sprint

478
Q

Long response plyometrics such as a _____ jump, transfer directly to _______ and _______ performance.

A

Squat; start; acceleration

479
Q

Short response plyometrics such as a ______ jump, transfer to ______ .

A

depth jump; maximum velocity running.

480
Q

Supramaximal competitive trial methods involve intensity ______ than competition and duration ______ than competition.

A

higher; less

481
Q

Maximal competitive trial methods are done at intensity ______ competition at a duration _______ competition.

A

equal to; equal to.

482
Q

Sub-maximal competitive trial methods use intensity _______ than competition and a duration ______ than competition.

A

less; longer

483
Q

Intermediate training stage is from years _ to_ and incorporates training to _____.

A

5-6; training to train

484
Q

Advanced training stage is from years _ to _ and emphasizes training to _______.

A

7-8; training to compete

485
Q

The ability to maintain maximal velocity for longer than 6 seconds is referred to as which of the following types of endurance? special speed strength cardiovascular

A

Speed

486
Q

Which of the following is the most influential factor to determine a sprinters maximum velocity? reaction time stride length leg length stride frequency

A

stride frequency

487
Q

During the ground support phase of linear sprinting, which of the following muscles are responsible for storing and recovering elastic energy? gastroc hamstrings quads anter tibialis

A

gastroc and quads

488
Q

All of the following actions during the ground support phase contribute to optimal stride length and frequency EXCEPT: -minimizing horizontal braking force -contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity -maximizing backward velocity of the leg -limiting the range of motion at the ankle

A

contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity

489
Q

An athlete just completed a training cycle that focused on speed training. When applying the sequenced training strategy, which of the following training goals or exercise modes is the MOST appropriate to choose or prioritize for the NEXT training cycle? agility plyometrics SSC strength

A

strength

490
Q

Which of the following describe how maximal backward sprinting is different from maximal forward sprinting? shorter stride length greater stride frequency longer ground support time earlier application of peak GRFs I,II,III,IV

A

I,II,III only

491
Q

Which of the following elements of agility technical skills requires spatial and temporal control of body movements? differentiation rhythm balance orientation

A

orientation

CSCS Prep (24 decks)

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