Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology > Comprehensive Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Comprehensive Exam 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of histamine? SATA

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation
C. Increased Vascular Permeability
D. Decreased Vascular Permeability

A

Answer: B,C

Rationale: Vasodilation (Blood vessels OPEN) to increase blood flow to the area, Increased Vascular Permeability (“leaky vessel”) to allow for fluid that dilutes the agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What describes the patho of PPV? SATA

A. Increased RBC
B. Decreased RBC
C. Increased WBC
D. Decreased WBC
E. Increased Platelets
F. Decreased Platelets
A

Answer: A, C, E

Rationale: Primary Poly(many) Cyte(cell) Emia(blood) vera. “Many Blood Cells”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What CM will you expect to see in an anemic patient? SATA

A. Insomnia
B. Pallor
C. Erythema
D. Rapid HR
E. Unexplained fatigue
A

Answer: B, D, E

Rationale: All anemias will reflect diminished oxygen levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following are true regarding the inflammatory response? SATA

A. It is an immediate non-specific response to injury
B. It is a targeted response to a specific antigen
C. It helps to dilute and destroy the foreign agent
D. It limits the damage to surrounding tissues
E. It is always dysfunctional

A

Answers: A, C, D

Rationale: These are the functions and goals of the inflammatory response. It is not always dysfunctional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: A wound bed need a wet environment for proper healing

A

Answer: False

Rationale: A wound bed needs a moist environment for healing but if it is too wet it could lead to further tissue breakdown and damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What CM would you expect to see in a patient experiencing systemic anaphylaxis? SATA

A. Hypertension
B. Hives
C. Wheezing
D. Itching
E. Low BP
A

Answer: B,C,D,E

Rationale: This is a massive histamine release. Vasodilation throughout the whole body = hypotension. bronchoconstriction = wheezing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Upon assessment you note that a pt’s surgical scar has separated slightly. How would you chart this?

A. Evisceration at the incision site
B. This is an expected finding with healing
C. Fistula formation at the incision site
D. Dehiscence at the incision site

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Dehiscence is the separation of a wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which antibodies attach to mast cells to signal the release of histamine during an asthma attack?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. T Cells

A

Answer: C

Rationale: An asthma attack is a type one systemic reaction. Type one disorders are IgE mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why do we place a neutropenic patient on isolation precautions?

A. A neutropenic patient will not be placed in isolation
B. To protect the staff from illness
C. To prevent nosocomial infections in other patients
D. To protect the neutropenic patient from infections

A

Answer: D

Rationale: A neutropenic patient has a severely low WBC count which makes them highly susceptible to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which hypersensitivity category are many autoimmune diseases identified?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

A

Answer: C

Rationale: Most autoimmune disorders are type three which is classified by circulating immune complexes that cause dysfunctional inflammation in multiple areas of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Your pt is hospitalized with a localized infection of the LLE. Which of the following CM would concern you? SATA

A. Swelling at the infection site
B. New onset fever and chills
C. Change in LOC
D. Pain at the site of infection

A

Answer: B, C

Rationale: These are signs of sepsis which is our main concern with a patient hospitalized for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which cells are closely monitored in an HIV patient?

A. B Cells
B. CD4 Cells
C. Beta Cells
D. Alpha Cells

A

Answer: B

Rationale: These are the cells destroyed by the HIV virus. At what point is a patient considered AIDs positive?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are possible causes of delayed wound healing in the elderly? SATA

A. Increased immune response
B. Polypharmacy
C. Increased collagen synthesis
D. Poor nutrition

A

Answer: B, D

Rationale: multiple mediations and poor nutrition are common barriers to wound healing in elderly patients. Decreased collagen synthesis and decreased or slowed immune response are also barriers to wound healing in the elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following fall under the contact mode of transmission? SATA

A. MRSA
B. Influenza
C. TB
D. Lyme’s Disease

A

Answer: A,B

Rationale: TB is airborne transmission, Lyme’s disease is vector transmission (no direct person to person contact with either)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Poison Ivy is which type of hypersensitivity Reaction?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Type 4 = DELAYED reactions (T cell mediated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following are risk factors for pressure ulcer formation? SATA

A. Early ambulation after surgery
B. Moisture
C. Prolonged, low pressure
D. Friction and Shear force
E. Frequent turns of a bedridden patient
A

Answer: B,C,D

Rationale: Early ambulation and frequent turns would reduce the risk of pressure sore formation

17
Q

A cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy suffers from neutropenia. What type of immunodeficiency disorder is this?

A. Primary
B. Secondary

A

Answer: B

Rationale: The cause is a source outside the body destroying the body’s immune system

18
Q

A young child who suffers from recurrent, unexplained infections and failure to thrive might suffer from what?

A. Primary immunodeficiency disorder
B. Secondary immunodeficiency disorder

A

Answer: A

Rationale: The causative factor is within the body

19
Q

Which of the following might indicate a need for further assessment during a cancer screening? SATA

A. A mole that a patient has had since childhood
B. New, nagging cough
C. Lump in the underarm
D. Increased vaginal bleeding between periods
E. Patient reports “being a fast healer”

A

Answer: B,C,D

Rationale: These are common “warning signs” for cancer. (Slide 17)

20
Q

In which bleeding disorder might you see bleeding into the joints?

A. ITP
B. PPV
C. Anemia
D. Hemophilia

A

Answer: D

Rationale: This is a common CM of this clotting disorder

21
Q

T/F: Malignant tumor cells can perform normal cell functions

A

Answer: False

Rationale: Cancer cells do not look or function like normal cells

22
Q

The common name for Tinea Corporis is?

A. Jock Itch
B. Ring Worm
C. Athlete’s foot
D. Nail fungus

A

Answer: B

23
Q

Which pathogen MUST have a host to replicate?

A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Helminths

A

Answer: B

Rationale: A virus must have a host to replicate - it cannot replicate outside of a host cell

24
Q

Which of the following is true about benign tumors? SATA

A. Lack capsules
B. Grow Slowly
C. Might perform normal cell functions
D. Often metastasize

A

Answer: B,C

Rationale: Benign tumors are NOT cancer, they don’t metastasize due to being encapsulated, grow slowly, and contain cells that may look and function as normal cells.

Bonus Q: Why would a benign tumor need to be removed?

25
Q

Which of the following cancers have strong genetic risk factors?

A. Colon
B. Breast
C. Lung
D. Cervical

A

Answer: A, B

Rationale: Breast and colon cancer have a strong genetic connection

Bonus Qs:

  • Name the risk factors for lung, cervical, and skin cancer
  • Name the gene that increases risk for breast cancer
26
Q

Which disease is characterized by a single node that spreads in a continuous chain?

A. leukemia
B. hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. acute leukemia
D. non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Answer: B

Bonus Q: How does this effect treatment and survival?

27
Q

What are major complications often seen in Primary Polycythemia Vera (PPV) patients? SATA

A. Pernicious anemia
B. Stroke (CVA)
C. Infection
D. Myocardial Infarction (MI)

A

Answer: B, D

Rationale: Poly(many) Cyte(cells) Emia (blood)

Bonus Q: with a lot of blood cells what is our concern?

28
Q

What lab would you expect to see in a patient suffering from Leukemia?

A. Increased WBC
B. Decreased WBC

A

Answer: A

Bonus Qs:

  • Why would this patient still have poor immune function even with elevated WBCs?
  • How does this lead to pancytopenia?
29
Q

Which anemia is caused by the autoimmune destruction of parietal cells?

A. Blood Loss Anemia
B. Iron Deficiency Anemia
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Pernicious Anemia

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Parietal cells secrete IF which is needed to absorb B12. No IF = No B12 absorption

Bonus Q: What is B12 needed for? Folic Acid?
(Slide 44)

30
Q

In which disease do you see autoimmune destruction of your platelets?

A. ITP
B. Hemophilia
C. PPV
D. Anemia

A

Answer: A

Rationale: This is the pathophysiology of this disease (immune, Thrombo (clot) Cyte (cell), Penia (few))

Pathophysiology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions