Comprehensive Exam 1 Review Flashcards
What are the functions of histamine? SATA
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation
C. Increased Vascular Permeability
D. Decreased Vascular Permeability
Answer: B,C
Rationale: Vasodilation (Blood vessels OPEN) to increase blood flow to the area, Increased Vascular Permeability (“leaky vessel”) to allow for fluid that dilutes the agent
What describes the patho of PPV? SATA
A. Increased RBC B. Decreased RBC C. Increased WBC D. Decreased WBC E. Increased Platelets F. Decreased Platelets
Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: Primary Poly(many) Cyte(cell) Emia(blood) vera. “Many Blood Cells”
What CM will you expect to see in an anemic patient? SATA
A. Insomnia B. Pallor C. Erythema D. Rapid HR E. Unexplained fatigue
Answer: B, D, E
Rationale: All anemias will reflect diminished oxygen levels
Which of the following are true regarding the inflammatory response? SATA
A. It is an immediate non-specific response to injury
B. It is a targeted response to a specific antigen
C. It helps to dilute and destroy the foreign agent
D. It limits the damage to surrounding tissues
E. It is always dysfunctional
Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: These are the functions and goals of the inflammatory response. It is not always dysfunctional.
T/F: A wound bed need a wet environment for proper healing
Answer: False
Rationale: A wound bed needs a moist environment for healing but if it is too wet it could lead to further tissue breakdown and damage
What CM would you expect to see in a patient experiencing systemic anaphylaxis? SATA
A. Hypertension B. Hives C. Wheezing D. Itching E. Low BP
Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: This is a massive histamine release. Vasodilation throughout the whole body = hypotension. bronchoconstriction = wheezing.
Upon assessment you note that a pt’s surgical scar has separated slightly. How would you chart this?
A. Evisceration at the incision site
B. This is an expected finding with healing
C. Fistula formation at the incision site
D. Dehiscence at the incision site
Answer: D
Rationale: Dehiscence is the separation of a wound
Which antibodies attach to mast cells to signal the release of histamine during an asthma attack?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. T Cells
Answer: C
Rationale: An asthma attack is a type one systemic reaction. Type one disorders are IgE mediated
Why do we place a neutropenic patient on isolation precautions?
A. A neutropenic patient will not be placed in isolation
B. To protect the staff from illness
C. To prevent nosocomial infections in other patients
D. To protect the neutropenic patient from infections
Answer: D
Rationale: A neutropenic patient has a severely low WBC count which makes them highly susceptible to infection
In which hypersensitivity category are many autoimmune diseases identified?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
Answer: C
Rationale: Most autoimmune disorders are type three which is classified by circulating immune complexes that cause dysfunctional inflammation in multiple areas of the body
Your pt is hospitalized with a localized infection of the LLE. Which of the following CM would concern you? SATA
A. Swelling at the infection site
B. New onset fever and chills
C. Change in LOC
D. Pain at the site of infection
Answer: B, C
Rationale: These are signs of sepsis which is our main concern with a patient hospitalized for infection
Which cells are closely monitored in an HIV patient?
A. B Cells
B. CD4 Cells
C. Beta Cells
D. Alpha Cells
Answer: B
Rationale: These are the cells destroyed by the HIV virus. At what point is a patient considered AIDs positive?
What are possible causes of delayed wound healing in the elderly? SATA
A. Increased immune response
B. Polypharmacy
C. Increased collagen synthesis
D. Poor nutrition
Answer: B, D
Rationale: multiple mediations and poor nutrition are common barriers to wound healing in elderly patients. Decreased collagen synthesis and decreased or slowed immune response are also barriers to wound healing in the elderly
Which of the following fall under the contact mode of transmission? SATA
A. MRSA
B. Influenza
C. TB
D. Lyme’s Disease
Answer: A,B
Rationale: TB is airborne transmission, Lyme’s disease is vector transmission (no direct person to person contact with either)
Poison Ivy is which type of hypersensitivity Reaction?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
Answer: D
Rationale: Type 4 = DELAYED reactions (T cell mediated)
Which of the following are risk factors for pressure ulcer formation? SATA
A. Early ambulation after surgery B. Moisture C. Prolonged, low pressure D. Friction and Shear force E. Frequent turns of a bedridden patient
Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: Early ambulation and frequent turns would reduce the risk of pressure sore formation
A cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy suffers from neutropenia. What type of immunodeficiency disorder is this?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
Answer: B
Rationale: The cause is a source outside the body destroying the body’s immune system
A young child who suffers from recurrent, unexplained infections and failure to thrive might suffer from what?
A. Primary immunodeficiency disorder
B. Secondary immunodeficiency disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: The causative factor is within the body
Which of the following might indicate a need for further assessment during a cancer screening? SATA
A. A mole that a patient has had since childhood
B. New, nagging cough
C. Lump in the underarm
D. Increased vaginal bleeding between periods
E. Patient reports “being a fast healer”
Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: These are common “warning signs” for cancer. (Slide 17)
In which bleeding disorder might you see bleeding into the joints?
A. ITP
B. PPV
C. Anemia
D. Hemophilia
Answer: D
Rationale: This is a common CM of this clotting disorder
T/F: Malignant tumor cells can perform normal cell functions
Answer: False
Rationale: Cancer cells do not look or function like normal cells
The common name for Tinea Corporis is?
A. Jock Itch
B. Ring Worm
C. Athlete’s foot
D. Nail fungus
Answer: B
Which pathogen MUST have a host to replicate?
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Helminths
Answer: B
Rationale: A virus must have a host to replicate - it cannot replicate outside of a host cell
Which of the following is true about benign tumors? SATA
A. Lack capsules
B. Grow Slowly
C. Might perform normal cell functions
D. Often metastasize
Answer: B,C
Rationale: Benign tumors are NOT cancer, they don’t metastasize due to being encapsulated, grow slowly, and contain cells that may look and function as normal cells.
Bonus Q: Why would a benign tumor need to be removed?
Which of the following cancers have strong genetic risk factors?
A. Colon
B. Breast
C. Lung
D. Cervical
Answer: A, B
Rationale: Breast and colon cancer have a strong genetic connection
Bonus Qs:
- Name the risk factors for lung, cervical, and skin cancer
- Name the gene that increases risk for breast cancer
Which disease is characterized by a single node that spreads in a continuous chain?
A. leukemia
B. hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. acute leukemia
D. non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
Answer: B
Bonus Q: How does this effect treatment and survival?
What are major complications often seen in Primary Polycythemia Vera (PPV) patients? SATA
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Stroke (CVA)
C. Infection
D. Myocardial Infarction (MI)
Answer: B, D
Rationale: Poly(many) Cyte(cells) Emia (blood)
Bonus Q: with a lot of blood cells what is our concern?
What lab would you expect to see in a patient suffering from Leukemia?
A. Increased WBC
B. Decreased WBC
Answer: A
Bonus Qs:
- Why would this patient still have poor immune function even with elevated WBCs?
- How does this lead to pancytopenia?
Which anemia is caused by the autoimmune destruction of parietal cells?
A. Blood Loss Anemia
B. Iron Deficiency Anemia
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Pernicious Anemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Parietal cells secrete IF which is needed to absorb B12. No IF = No B12 absorption
Bonus Q: What is B12 needed for? Folic Acid?
(Slide 44)
In which disease do you see autoimmune destruction of your platelets?
A. ITP
B. Hemophilia
C. PPV
D. Anemia
Answer: A
Rationale: This is the pathophysiology of this disease (immune, Thrombo (clot) Cyte (cell), Penia (few))
