Clemon's Prep Questions 2 Flashcards

Questions from Quizlet, Cram, StudyBlue, flashcardmachine, cueFlash, Slideshare, Slideplayer, and ProProfs (It is prep 3 in other folder)

1
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Protection of job site workers and stored materials.

A. Architect/Engineer

B. Owner

C. Contractor

D. Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E. None of the above

A
  • For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Protection of job site workers and stored materials.*
  • A. Architect/Engineer*
  • B. Owner*
  • C. Contractor*
  • D. Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions*
  • E. None of the above*

C. Contractor

Safety provisions in both EJCDC and AIA documents clearly make safety and protection of persons and property at the construction Site the sole responsibility of the Contractor.

______________________________________________

Reference: PDPG 5.4.1.7 and PDPG 15.12.11

AIA A201 Sections 10.1, 10.2, and 10.4.

Safety of Persons and Property

  • The Contractor shall be responsible for initiating, maintaining, and supervising all safety precautions and programs in connection with the performance of the Contract.
  • Contractor responsible for safety and protection to prevent damage, injury or loss to
  • Employees on the Work
  • Work and materials and equipment
  • Other property at, or adjacent to, site
  • Contractor shall
  • Comply with applicable safety laws, statues, ordinances, codes, rules and regulations, and lawful orders
  • Erect and maintain safeguards
  • Exercise utmost care with explosives and hazardous materials
  • Remedy damage and loss
  • Designate Contractor employee with duty of prevention of accidents
  • Not permit loading that causes damage or unsafe condition
  • Injury or damage to person or property
  • If either party suffers injury or damage because of act or omission of other party, written notice to other party required
  • Notice should contain information to enable investigation

Emergencies

  • In an emergency affecting safety, Contractor may act, at Contractor’s discretion, to prevent threatened damage, injury or loss

Also see CCAPG 6.8; CCPG 9.14.

EJCDC C-700 Paras. 7.12 through 7.15;

Commentary

However, it is worth understanding for actual practice that the regulations of the federal Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA) require that each employer working at a site be responsible for the safety of their own employees. Thus, while the Contractor has contractual responsibility for safety at the Site, each individual employer—whether they be a Subcontractor, Supplier, or the Owner, or the A/E, when they have employees at the Site—is responsible for the safety of their own employees. That said, if a question like this arises on the exam, remember that the Contractor has contractual responsibility for safety of the workers at the construction Site.

Responsibility for safety at a construction site can become unclear to many people, but all participants should understand and keep their safety obligations clearly in mind and act accordingly throughout the Project.

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2
Q

Select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Resolution of claims.

A - Owner

B - Contractor

C - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

D - Initial Decision Maker

A
  • Select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Resolution of claims.*
  • A - Owner*
  • B - Contractor*
  • C - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions*
  • D - Initial Decision Maker*

Answer: D - Initial Decision Maker

The Initial Decision Maker is an entity that exists only in AIA documents and is not used in EJCDC documents. In AIA documents, when an entity other than the Architect is named as the Initial Decision Maker, said entity is identified in AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement) Section 6.1.

In actual practice with AIA documents, the Initial Decision Maker is typically the Architect, but may be a third-party considered to be neutral.

______________________________________________

Reference: PDPG 15.15.3;

AIA A201 Sections 1.1.8 and 15.2.

Initial Decision Maker
Person identified to render decisions on claims and terminations

  • Commentary: Editions prior to 2007 did not use Initial Decision
  • Maker Architect was the decision maker

Initial Decision

  • Claims referred to Initial Decision Maker for initial decision
  • Initial Decision Maker reviews claim and take one of following actions
  • Request additional supporting data
  • Reject claim in whole or in part
  • Approve claim
  • Suggest compromise
  • Advise parties unable to resolve claim
  • Initial decision shall be final and binding, but subject to mediation, and if that fails, to binding dispute resolution
  • Either party may file for mediation of an initial decision

Also see CCAPG Chapter 10 (particularly CCAPG 10.3)

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3
Q

Select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Paying taxes for the Work.

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

A
  • Select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Paying taxes for the Work.*
  • A - Architect/Engineer*
  • B - Owner*
  • C - Contractor*
  • D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions*
  • E - None of the above*

Answer: C - Contractor

Taxes are part of the cost of construction for which the Contractor is responsible under the terms of the Contract Documents.

For public work, where public owners are often exempt from certain sales and ues taxes on materials and equipment to be incorporated into the construction, typically an associated Supplementary Conditions provision is necessary to properly indicate the statutory requirements for taxes, which can vary significantly from state to state.

Reference: EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.09;

AIA A201 Section 3.6;

PDPG 13.6.4.4 among others.

Also see CCAPG 3.1.4.

______________________________________________

AIA A201 3.6 Taxes

The Contractor shall pay sales, consumer, use and similar taxes for the Work provided by the Contractor that are legally enacted when bids are received or negotiations concluded, whether or not yet effective or merely scheduled to go into effect.

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4
Q

Select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Right to stop work, if non-conforming Work fails to be corrected.

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

A
  • Select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Right to stop work, if non-conforming Work fails to be corrected.*
  • A - Architect/Engineer*
  • B - Owner*
  • C - Contractor*
  • D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions*
  • E - None of the above*

Answer: B - Owner.

Reference: PDPG 15.9.5.1;

EJCDC C-700 Para 14.06;

AIA A201 Sections 2.4, 14.2 and 14.3.

Also see CCAPG 2.1; CCAPG 6.2.2;

_______________________________________

AIA A201 2.4 Owner’s Right to Stop the Work

Can issue written order to Contractor to stop the Work if Contractor

  • Fails to correct Work not in accordance with Contract Documents
  • Repeatedly fails to carry out the Work in accordance with Contract Documents
  • Owner has no duty to stop the Work for benefit of contractor or others
  • Commentary: Architect does not have authority to stop the Work.

Commentary

Standard contract documents such as EJCDC’s and AIA’s reserve to the Owner sole right to stop or suspend the Work if the Work does not comply with the Contract Documents. This right is solely the Owner’s, and should never be assumed by or delegated to the A/E (or a construction manager), because stopping the Work is an extreme action that almost always results in a delay Claim from the Contractor for additional time and compensation. In EJCDC and AIA documents, the A/E does not have authority to stop or suspend the Work for non-conformance because issuing such an order is tantamount to opening the Owner’s checkbook and handing out money.

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5
Q

Which of the following is part of the construction documents but not part of the Contract Documents?

A - Procurement Forms

B - Agreement

C - Performance Bond

D - General Conditions

E - Addenda

F - Contract Modifications

A
  • Which of the following is part of the construction documents but not part of the Contract Documents?*
  • A - Procurement Forms*
  • B - Agreement*
  • C - Performance Bond*
  • D - General Conditions*
  • E - Addenda*
  • F - Contract Modifications*

Answer: A - Procurement Forms (also known as the Bid Form and its supplements).

The Procurement (Bidding) Requirements, which include the advertisement or invitation to bid, instructions to bidders/proposers, bid form, bid bond form (if any), qualifications statement (if any), and other bid form supplements (if any), are required only for the Project’s procurement (bidding/pricing) stage and therefore are not typically considered to be “Contract Documents” (remember: “Contract Documents” exist only after the parties have both signed the Owner-Contractor Agreement).

If you are still having trouble wrapping your mind around this, consider that the Procurement (Bidding) requirements are necessary for, and apply only through, the procurement (bidding) stage—they address matters only until the Owner-Contractor Agreement is signed and the Contract becomes effective. Therefore, the Procurement (Bidding) Requirements are not necessary once the Contract is in effect.

Answers “B - Agreement”, “C - Performance Bond”, “D - General Conditions”, “E - Addenda”, and “F - Contract Modifications” are all part of the Contract Documents, as indicated in EJCDC C-520 (Owner-Contractor Agreement—Stipulated Price) Para. 9.01 and in AIA A201 Section 1.1.1 and AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement—Stipulated Sum) Articles 1 and 9.

Reference: PDPG 12.1 and PDPG 12.2;

EJCDC C-700 Paras. 1.01.A.6 and 7;

AIA A201 Section 1.1.1; and “The Diagram”.

Also see CCAPG 1.3.1; CCAPG 8.2.

Also see CSPG Chapter 9

___________________________________________

1.1 Bidding Documents include the Bidding Requirements and the proposed Contract Documents. The Bidding Requirements consist of the Advertisement or Invitation to Bid, Instructions to Bidders, Supplementary Instructions to Bidders, the bid form, and other sample bidding and contract forms. The proposed Contract Documents consist of the form of Agreement between the Owner and Contractor, Conditions of the Contract (General, Supplementary and other Conditions), Drawings, Specifications and all Addenda issued prior to execution of the Contract.

___________________________________________

  • Advertisement or invitation to bid
  • Instructions to bidders/proposers
  • Bid form
  • A310–2010, Bid Bond form (if any) - This bond ensures the selected bidder will execute the contract and provide performance and payment bonds.
  • A305–1986, Contractor’s Qualification Statement (if any) - This questionnaire is used to provide information about a contractor’s background.
  • Other bid form supplements (if any)
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6
Q

What is the “glue” that binds the Contract Documents together?

A

What is the “glue” that binds the Contract Documents together?

Answer: If you answered “Agreement” you would not be entirely correct.

The correct answer is “signed Agreement”

Reference: PDPG 7.10

Also see CSPG Chapter 5, “Agreements”.

Although often referred to as the contract, the construction agreement is only one of the various documents that make up the contract documents. The agreement is the document that legally obligates the signing parties. It binds the documents together firmly and permanently, while allowing for the addition of modifications… The agreement defines relationships and obligations between the signers and incorporates, by reference, all of the other documents that make up the contract documents: contracting forms; project forms; conditions of the contract (general and supplementary conditions); specifications; contract drawings; and revisions (addenda), clarifications, and modifications. The clauses and provisions of the general conditions for a construction contract are generally fixed and usually require only supplements to be adapted to a specific project. The agreement contains contractual elements that are subject to variation in each contract. These elements are:

  • Date
  • Identification of parties (the owner and the contractor or design-builder)
  • Identification of the third parties (architect/engineer [A/E] and construction manager)
  • Statement of work to be performed (extent or scope)
  • Statement of the consideration or contract amount (cost, sum, or price)
  • Statement of commencement and completion (time of performance)
  • Signatures

Whether or not a standard form is used, the agreement has important legal consequences. No agreement form should be incorporated in construction documents without the owner’s approval. In addition, standard agreement forms should not be prepared, completed, or modified without consulting the owner’s legal counsel. The provisions within standard agreement forms and respective general conditions are carefully interrelated. A modification in the language may create ambiguity or result in unintended legal obligations of the parties involved.

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7
Q

True or False: The Contracting Requirements include the performance bond.

A

Answer: True.

MasterFormat titles Division 00 as “Procurement and Contracting Requirements”.

Procurement (Bidding) Requirements are those documents that pertain only to the procurement (bidding) stage (e.g., advertisement or instructions to bidders, advertisement or invitation to bid, instructions to bidders/proposers, bid form, bid bond form (if any), bidder qualifications statement (if any), and other bid form supplements (if any).

MasterFormat assigns these documents between 00 10 00 and 00 49 99.

The “Contracting Requirements” are the balance of Division 00 (per MasterFormat, documents between 00 50 00 and 00 99 99), including the Agreement form and its supplements (if any); project forms (including the performance bond and payment bond); “conditions of the contract”; and revisions/clarifications/modifications (including Addenda).

The Diagram

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8
Q

Project-specific insurance requirements would usually be included in the ____ (fill in the blank).

Reference: PDPG 12.5.

Also see CSPG Chapter 17

A

Answer: Supplementary Conditions.

Project-specific insurance requirements, such as the specific types of insurance and minimum coverage limits required, are typically in the Supplementary Conditions.

This is always the case with EJCDC documents, and was the case with AIA documents until the 2017 edition of AIA A201 and AIA A101.

Both AIA A201 and EJCDC C-700 (General Conditions) contain basic insurance provisions. But for the Owner to require that the Contractor furnish general liability insurance of not less than a certain coverage amount, or to require that the Contractor furnish a certain type of railroad protective liability insurance, such requirements would be in the Supplementary Conditions (EJCDC C-800, Supplementary Conditions, includes model language, as does AIA A503—2007).

However, with its 2017 documents, the AIA extracted the specific requirements for certain types of insurance and created at new exhibit to AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement). Thus, as of 2017, AIA includes Project-specific insurance requirements in an exhibit to the Agreement.

Also see EJCDC C-700 Article 6 and EJCDC C-800, Guide to the Preparation of Supplementary Conditions, provisions numbered SC-6.0x. Alternatively, see AIA A201 Section 11 and the insurance exhibit to AIA A101—2017.

Note that EJCDC C-800 and AIA A101 are not materials required for the CDT exams, but are extremely useful in the actual practice of preparing Supplementary Conditions. Arcadis US Water’s Standard Supplementary Conditions (“Document 00 73 01”) is developed closely from EJCDC C-800.

Article 11 of A201 and A101-2017 Exhibit A, Insurance and Bonds

Article 11 of A503 2017-2019, Insurance and Bonds

Article about the release of the exhibit

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9
Q

After evaluating a request for interpretation (RFI), which of the following steps would not be applicable according to EJCDC:

A - A/E responds directly on the RFI form

B - A/E issues Supplemental Instructions

C - A/E issues a Field Order

D - A/E prepares a Proposal Request

Reference: PDPG 15.11.1.2 and PDPG 15.11.2.1;

EJCDC C-700 Paras. 3.03 and 3.04;

AIA A201 Section 1.1.1.

Also see CCAPG 8.1.2 and CCAPG Chapter 9.

A

Answer: B - Supplemental Instructions.

The key to this question is understanding that EJCDC documents do not account for “Supplemental Instructions”.

Both EJCDC and AIA have a contractual mechanism for the A/E to order “minor changes” (changes that do not affect the Contract Price or Contract Times) in the Work; EJCDC calls it a Field Order (EJCDC C-942) and the AIA calls the document “Architect’s Supplemental Instructions” (AIA G710).

When responding to a RFI, the A/E may provide a response directly on the RFI form (very common). Where the RFI response requires a minor change (no effect on price or time), a Field Order (EJCDC) or Architect’s Supplemental Instructions (AIA) often accompanies the RFI response. Where the response to the RFI results in a potential change in price, time, or both, the RFI response should be accompanied by a Proposal Request.

RFI responses, alone, should NEVER be used to attempt to modify the requirements of the Contract. RFI responses are not, themselves, Contract Documents.

EJCDC’s Construction Series “Field Order” (C-942) document provides an effective format for initiating minor changes in accordance with the General Conditions without changes in the contract price or time.

G710™–2017 Architect’s Supplemental Instructions is used by the architect to issue additional instructions or interpretations, or to order minor changes in the work. It is intended to assist the architect in performing its obligations as interpreter of the contract documents in accordance with the owner/architect agreement and the general conditions of the contract for construction. G710 should not be used to change the contract sum or contract time. It is intended to help the architect perform its services with respect to minor changes not involving adjustment in the contract sum or contract time. Such minor changes are authorized under Section 7.4 of AIA Document A201™–2017.

7.4 Minor Changes in the Work

The Architect may order minor changes in the Work that are consistent with the intent of the Contract Documents and do not involve an adjustment in the Contract Sum or an extension of the Contract Time. The Architect’s order for minor changes shall be in writing. If the Contractor believes that the proposed minor change in the Work will affect the Contract Sum or Contract Time, the Contractor shall notify the Architect and shall not proceed to implement the change in the Work. If the Contractor performs the Work set forth in the Architect’s order for a minor change without prior notice to the Architect that such change will affect the Contract Sum or Contract Time, the Contractor waives any adjustment to the Contract Sum or extension of the Contract Time.

Figure

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10
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Conditions of the Contract:

A - Are an inherent part of the Agreement

B - Are an inherent part of the specifications

C - With the Agreement govern the content of the entire Contract

D - Answers A and C

E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 12.3.2, PDPG 12.3.3, and PDPG Figure 11.21; and “The Diagram”.

Also see CCAPG 1.3.1. Also see CSPG Chapter 6.

A

Answer: D - Answers A and C. “Conditions of the Contract” are, according to AIA and CSI (but not EJCDC) the General Conditions and the Supplementary Conditions. The answer is not “B” because the General Requirements (not the Conditions of the Contract) administratively govern the Work indicated in the Specifications.

Figure

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11
Q

Multiple-prime contracts are normally a part of:

A - Turn-key construction

B - Negotiated contracts

C - Long duration construction projects

D - Fast-track construction

Reference: PDPG 5.8.4.2 and PDPG 11.4.1.

Also see CCAPG 1.4.2.

A

Answer: D - Fast-track construction.

“Fast-track” does not mean only that the Contractor builds the project quickly, but rather is most-often used for describing projects where the construction of “early-start” activities (such as site clearing, excavation, and foundation construction, for example) commence in the field while the A/E is still designing the rest of the project. Thus, the Contractor may be building the foundation and site work (buried utilities, rough grading, etc.) while the A/E is still designing the facility’s mechanical, plumbing, and electrical systems. In fast-track projects, the building may be divided among ten or more separate prime contractors. Coordinating multiple prime contracts is often very challenging and presents increased risk to both the Owner and A/E, particularly when design changes affect already-completed elements of the construction. In return, the Owner gets a project completed more-quickly, although likely for increased cost.

In addition to using multiple-prime construction contracts for fast-tracking, multiple primes is required for most public works projects in certain jurisdictions, including New York State, Pennsylvania, and New Jersey. Prior to 2010, North Carolina essentially abandoned its multiple-prime public contracting requirement for public work and, in 2011, Ohio enacted legislation that significantly weakened Ohio’s multiple-prime public contracting statutes. All other states in the United States allow public work to be constructed using a single prime construction contract.

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12
Q

A submittal log should be maintained by:

A - A/E

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - A and C

E - All of the above

Reference: PDPG 15.8.5 and PDPG 15.14.

Also see CCAPG 5.8.

A

Answer: D - A and C.

Although all participants in the construction submittals process should track and log submittals for which they are responsible, the Contractor and A/E are responsible for, respectively, submitting and reviewing, all submittals required under the Contract Documents, and hence both have primary responsibility to track the status of submittals via a submittal log.

Both EJCDC and AIA documents require submittal logs, which are contractually the Contractor’s responsibility. EJCDC C-700 refers to this as a “Schedule of Submittals” and AIA A201 3.10 Contractor’s Construction and Submittal Schedules calls it a Submittal Schedule.

For additional information, refer to EJCDC C-700’s and AIA A201’s provisions on the schedule of submittals. Neither, however, addresses the A/E’s typical responsibility to also track progress on the contractually-required submittals.

AIA A201 3.10 Contractor’s Construction and Submittal Schedules

3.10.1 and 3.10.2

Contractor’s Construction Schedule & Submittal Schedules

  • Contractor shall submit construction schedule for the Work, (only for the Architect’s review)
  • Shall not exceed Contract Documents time limits
  • Revised at appropriate intervals
  • Related to entire Project and extent required by Contract Documents
  • Shall provide for expeditious and practicable execution of the Work
  • Contractor shall submit submittal schedule for approval
  • Coordinated with construction schedule
  • Allow Architect reasonable time to review, resubmittal, re-review and approval
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13
Q

The Procurement Documents include all of the following EXCEPT:

A - Procurement Requirements

B - Contract Modifications

C - Project Manual

D - Drawings

Reference: PDPG 11.1 and PDPG Chapter 12;

EJCDC C-700 Para. 1.01.A.6 and 1.01.A.7;

AIA A201 Section 1.1.1; and “The Diagram”.

Also see CCAPG 1.3.1; CCAPG 8.2.

Also see CSPG Chapter 9.

A

Answer: B - Contract Modifications.

Procurement (Bidding) Documents are issued for the procurement (bidding/pricing) stage, before there are any “Contract Documents” (e.g., before the Owner-Contractor Agreement is signed); thus, there is no “contract” to modify until the Agreement is signed by both parties. The way that the Procurement (Bidding) Documents are modified prior to the opening of Bids is via Addenda.

___________________________________________

AIA A201 Article 7

General

  • Changes accomplished after Contract execution that do not invalidate Contract
  • Change Order - Based on agreement among Owner, Contractor and Architect
  • Construction Change Directive - Requires agreement by Owner and Architect and may or may not be agreed to by Contractor
  • Architect’s Supplemental Instruction - Minor change in the Work - Issued by Architect alone
  • Promptly performed under applicable provisions of Contract Documents

Change Orders

  • Written instrument, prepared by Architect and signed by Owner and Contractor, agreeing to
  • Change in the Work
  • Amount of adjustment in Contract Sum
  • Amount of adjustment in Contract Time

Construction Change Directive

  • Written order, prepared by Architect and signed by Owner and Architect, and directing a change in the Work prior to agreement on
  • Amount of adjustment in Contract Sum
  • Amount of adjustment in Contract Time
  • Owner may, without invalidating the Contract, order following changes in the Work with the “CCD”
  • Additions
  • Deletions
  • Other revisions
  • Used in absence of total agreement on Change Order terms
  • Methods for adjustment of Contract Sum
  • Itemized lump sum
  • Unit prices
  • In a manner mutually agreed
  • Upon receipt, Contractor promptly proceeds with change and indicates agreement of disagreement with adjustment
  • Contractor’s signature indicates agreement

Minor Changes in the Work

The Architect may order minor changes in the Work that are consistent with the intent of the Contract Documents and do not involve an adjustment in the Contract Sum or an extension of the Contract Time. The Architect’s order for minor changes shall be in writing. If the Contractor believes that the proposed minor change in the Work will affect the Contract Sum or Contract Time, the Contractor shall notify the Architect and shall not proceed to implement the change in the Work. If the Contractor performs the Work set forth in the Architect’s order for a minor change without prior notice to the Architect that such change will affect the Contract Sum or Contract Time, the Contractor waives any adjustment to the Contract Sum or extension of the Contract Time.

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14
Q

A Construction manager is hired by the Owner to do all of the following except:

A - Assist in procuring the contractor

B - Administer the project

C - Provide observation services at the construction site

D - Supervise the A/E

Reference: PDPG 7.4.

Also see CCAPG 1.4.2.

Also see CSPG 1.14.2.

A

Answer: D - Supervise the A/E.

However, this question is difficult because the extent to which Answers “A”, “B” and “C” are true or false depends on the form of construction manager project delivery.

Answer “A” is true for CMa - construction manager as an advisor. Answer “A” is false for CMAR - construction manager at risk (where the construction manager becomes the general contractor upon the start of construction), because the CMAR is the Contractor and would monitor Subcontractors (e.g., instead of the CM monitoring the Contractor).

Answer “B” is sometimes true—for example, in standard documents from the Construction Management Association of America (CMAA) and AGC’s ConsensusDocs the CM is given authority to act on the Owner’s behalf. However, in standard documents by the AIA and in EJCDC’s forthcoming CMa-Series documents, the CM does not have authority to act on the Owner’s behalf.

Answer “C” is typically true for CMa project delivery. In CMAR delivery, the CMAR is the contractor and therefore supervises the construction instead of merely observing the Work.

Answer “D” is always false because the CM never supervises the Architect or the Engineer. Because they are required to have a professional license and registration in the state(s) where they practice, A/Es cannot, by definition, be “supervised” by anyone who does not want to assume the A/E’s professional liability. Thus, Answer “D” is the correct choice for this question.

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15
Q

A facility’s “life cycle” includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A - Project Conception

B - Financing

C - Construction

D - Facility Management

Reference: PDPG Chapter 2 (especially PDPG 2.2).

A

Answer: B - Financing. Answer choices “A”, “C”, and “D” are all part of the facility’s life cycle as defined by CSI in PDPG 2.2; being familiar with CSI’s “facility life cycle” concept will likely be worth a few points on the CDT exam.

While “financing” is a stage of the facility life cycle as defined by the Associated General Contractors of America (AGC); however, AGC’s ConsensusDocs documents are not the basis for any of CSI’s exams.

Figure

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16
Q

“Resource drawings” serve which purpose?

A - Show existing work that is to be modified

B - Show construction related to the work, but which is not included in the contract

C - Provide the owner with a set of documents that will facilitate operation

D - Drawings prepared by manufacturers, suppliers, and the contractor to illustrate portions of the work

Reference: PDPG 11.2.4.

Also see CCAPG 1.3.2.1.

A

Answer: B - Show construction related to the work, but which is not included in the contract. Although resource drawings are included by some A/E’s in the “Information available to Bidders” in the Procurement (Bidding) Requirements (MasterFormat assigns “00 31 16, Measured Drawing Information”, among others), Arcadis US Water discourages issuing resource drawings, measured drawings, or existing record drawings as part of the Bidding Documents, or binding them into the Project Manual.

EJCDC C-700 Paras. 5.03.B and 5.06.B expressly state that reports and drawings of existing subsurface and physical conditions, and reports and drawings of a Hazardous Environmental Condition at the Site are not Contract Documents.

Answer “A” is nebulous; existing facilities to be modified will typically be shown on the Drawings that are part of the Contract Documents. Answer “C” is describing record documents. Answer “D” is describing Shop Drawings.

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17
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Paying taxes for the Work.

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.09;

AIA A201 Section 3.6;

PDPG 13.6.4.4 among others.

Also see CCAPG 3.1.4.

A

Answer: C - Contractor.

Taxes are part of the cost of construction for which the Contractor is responsible under the terms of the Contract Documents.

For public work, where public owners are often exempt from certain sales and ues taxes on materials and equipment to be incorporated into the construction, typically an associated Supplementary Conditions provision is necessary to properly indicate the statutory requirements for taxes, which can vary significantly from state to state.

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18
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Right to stop work, if non-conforming Work fails to be corrected.

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 15.9.5.1;

EJCDC C-700 Para 14.06;

AIA A201 Sections 2.4, 14.2 and 14.3.

Also see CCAPG 2.1; CCAPG 6.2.2;

A

Answer: B - Owner.

Standard contract documents such as EJCDC’s and AIA’s reserve to the Owner sole right to stop or suspend the Work if the Work does not comply with the Contract Documents. This right is solely the Owner’s, and should never be assumed by or delegated to the A/E (or a construction manager), because stopping the Work is an extreme action that almost always results in a delay Claim from the Contractor for additional time and compensation. In EJCDC and AIA documents, the A/E does not have authority to stop or suspend the Work for non-conformance because issuing such an order is tantamount to opening the Owner’s checkbook and handing out money.

While EJCDC’s and AIA’s standard documents empower the A/E to “reject defective Work” (i.e., refuse to recommend payment for such Work and refuse to accept defective Work, thus keeping the Contract open, but the A/E does not have the authority to stop or suspend the Work. Only the Owner has the authority to order the Contractor to stop or suspend the Work.

EJCDC C-700 Para. 1.02.D defines “defective Work” as follows: “The word “defective,” when modifying the word “Work,” refers to Work that is unsatisfactory, faulty, or deficient in that it: (a) does not conform to the Contract Documents; or (b) does not meet the requirements of any applicable inspection, reference standard, test, or approval referred to in the Contract Documents; or (c) has been damaged prior to Engineer’s recommendation of final payment (unless responsibility for the protection thereof has been assumed by Owner at Substantial Completion in accordance with Paragraph 15.03 or 15.04).”

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19
Q

All of the following are AIA construction contract modifications EXCEPT:

A - Change Order

B - Architect’s Supplemental Instructions

C - Field Order

D - Construction Change Directive

Reference: PDPG 15.11.2.1;

EJCDC C-700 Paras. 1.01.A.21 and 11.01;

AIA A201 Section 1.1.1.

Also see CCAPG 8.2.

Also see CSPG Chapter 9—particularly CSPG 9.6.

A

Answer: C - Field Order.

While a Field Order is not a document used or recognized by the AIA, it is defined at EJCDC C-700 Para. 1.01.A.21. EJCDC publishes a standard field order form, EJCDC C-941 (“Field Order”); CSI also publishes a field order form. Both a Field Order (EJCDC, DBIA, CSI) and “Architect’s Supplemental Instructions” form (AIA G710) are used by the A/E to order minor changes in the Work that do not result in changes in the Contract Price or the Contract Times; although there are some minor differences between them, the use of both a Field Order and AIA’s “Architect’s Supplemental Instructions” form are similar.

Figure

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20
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Furnishing property insurance for the work under construction:

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 12.5.2; AIA A201 Section 11.2.2; AIA A101 Insurance Exhibit Section A.2.3 (AIA A101 and its related insurance exhibit document are not source materials for the CDT exam).

Also see CSPG 17.4, which is a comprehensive introduction to property insurance.

A

Answer: B - Owner.

Construction property insurance is a separate policy from the Contractor’s and Owner’s own general liability policies; property insurance covers losses to the Work and other property at the Site. There are two broad types of property insurance: (1) “normal” property insurance, maintain by the property’s owner, and (2) construction stage property insurance covering the materials and equipment to be incorporated into the construction, typically called, “builder’s risk” insurance. Builder’s risk insurance is typically in effect only through Substantial Completion of the construction, after which property insurance coverage should be transitioned to the Owner’s regular property insurance policy.

Builder’s risk insurance is typically desirable when the Project includes construction of or modifications to some type of structure or building. A special form of builder’s risk insurance—called an “installation floater”—can be obtained to cover materials to be installed into construction that is not in a building or structure; for example, for protection against loss to waterline pipe stored trench-side.

PDPG 12.5.2 presents a basic overview of property insurance, and indicates that the Owner “typically” obtains the builder’s risk insurance. AIA A201 implies, and AIA A101-Insurance Exhibit states that the Owner furnishes the builder’s risk insurance unless expressly indicated otherwise in the Contract. In private work, it is perhaps most-common for the Owner to furnish the builder’s risk insurance, and thus the best answer choice is “B - Owner”.

That said, many projects, including most public works projects, require that the Contractor furnish the builder’s risk insurance. In fact, this is the default requirement of EJCDC C-700 Para. 6.05.

The reality is that public owners typically desire to not procure builder’s risk insurance. But in certain circumstances—such as work to modify or rehabilitate an existing facility that remains in operation during construction—it may be advantageous to the Owner to furnish the builder’s risk insurance. In the event of a loss under the builder’s risk policy, the Owner can coordinate with its own property insurance to proceed swiftly toward having the loss remedied and to get the facility back into service, as opposed to having to work with both the Owner’s normal property insurance carrier and the Contractor’s builder’s risk insurance carrier. However, each project is different and Owner’s preferences and direction relative to the procurement of builder’s risk insurance are to be respected by the A/E or other entity drafting the construction documents’ Division 00 requirements (where provisions on insurance are located).

Insurance is a very complex topic and most A/Es and owners’ project personnel are typically unfamiliar and perhaps uncomfortable with the topic. However, it is important for A/Es and owners to understand the basics of construction insurance. CSI’s PDPG and CSPG present very good, basic overviews of the topic. In the coming weeks we will also share with our CSI Program participants some supplemental information on the “arcane” but vital topic of construction insurance.

The Owner should always direct the A/E in the types of insurance and coverage amounts required. EJCDC C-051 and EJCDC C-052, or AIA G612 are useful documents for documenting the Owner’s instructions relative to insurance requirements. A/Es are design professionals—not risk advisors or insurance counselors—and should avoid giving, and appearing to give, insurance advice.

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21
Q

What establishes the relationship between the Contractor and the Architect/Engineer (A/E)?

A - National laws

B - Signed agreements

C - Third-party obligations

D - Special conditions

Reference: See PDPG Section 5.2 (“PDPG 5.2”) and PDPG Figure 5.1.

A

Answer: C - Third-party obligations.

The Contractor and the A/E do not have any signed agreements, the general terms and conditions of their respective contracts with the Owner provide them with third party obligations to each other.

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22
Q

Which of the following would be included in the Information Available to Bidders?

A - Bid Security information

B - Environmental Impact Statement

C - Time of completion to construct the Project

D - Description of the Work

Reference: PDPG 12.2.3, and CSI MasterFormat 00 03 00.

A

Answer: B - Environmental Impact Statement.

The information available to Bidders is the place to provide reference information that does not belong in the “Contract Documents”.

Bid security information is included in the Instructions to Bidders.

Time of completion (“Contract Times” in EJCDC, “Contract Time” in AIA documents) is an important contractual obligation—where would you think it should go?

(Hint: in neither the Instructions to Bidders nor the information available to Bidders).

Okay…we’ll tell you. It’s in the Owner-Contractor Agreement.

Description of the Work is included throughout the construction Contract Documents, and is summarized in a Division 01 Specifications can you name the Division 01 Section?

(Hint: It’s in a section called, “Summary of Work”).

What constitutes the “Contract Documents” is a very important concept, and we’ll share some supplemental information on that very soon.

Also important is the concept of “information available to bidders”—such as information on subsurface conditions (like soil borings), information on the presence of hazardous substances at the Site, and use of existing record documents. We will also distribute some supplemental information on this important topic as well.

Available Information

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23
Q

The contractual relationship governed by the Conditions of the Contract is between:

A - Owner and Contractor

B - Architect/Engineer and Contractor

C - Owner and Subcontractors

D - Architect/Engineer and Subcontractors

Reference: PDPG 12.3.3.

Also see CSPG Chapter 6 and CCAPG 1.3.

A

Answer: A - The Owner and the Contractor.

The Owner and the Contractor are the parties to the construction Contract, and hence are the principal subjects of the “Conditions of the Contract”.

“Conditions of the Contract” is AIA’s and CSI’s term for the “General Conditions and Supplementary Conditions”.

Yes, the duties of the A/E are described to a large (but not necessarily full) extent in the “Conditions of the Contract”, but the A/E’s responsibilities are fully and properly set forth in the Owner-A/E Agreement. The Owner-A/E Agreement does not have General Conditions or Supplementary Conditions.

EJCDC’s standard “Conditions of the Contract” (note: the term “Conditions of the Contract” is not used in EJCDC standard contract documents and, hence, should not be used in association with Arcadis U.S. Water’s Standard Construction Documents; but you will see the term on CSI’s exams; “Conditions of the Contract” is an AIA term) are EJCDC C-700, Standard General Conditions of the Construction Contract, and EJCDC C-800, Guide to the Preparation of Supplementary Conditions. AIA’s corresponding standard Conditions of the Contract are AIA A201, Standard General Conditions of the Contract for Construction, and AIA A503, Guide for Supplementary Conditions.

EJCDC C-700 is the standard general conditions used by Arcadis U.S. Water for construction contracts. Arcadis U.S. Water’s Standard Supplementary Conditions are very-closely based on EJCDC C-800. EJCDC C-700 and EJCDC C-800 are the most widely-used “Conditions of the Contract” for engineer-led projects (especially for public work) in the United States for design-bid-build delivery. AIA A201 and AIA A503 are the most-widely used “Conditions of the Contract” for vertical (architect-led) construction (design-bid-build) in the United States.

Other nations have their own, popular standard construction contracts. In Canada, the documents of the Canadian Construction Documents Committee (CCDC) are widely used by both architects and engineers. Still others are used in the UK and Europe, and elsewhere.

Takeaways: (1) there are many types of standard construction documents such as AIA and EJCDC, and (2) for design-bid-build delivery, as well as construction manager as advisor (CMa) and construction manager as contractor (CMc), the “Conditions of the Contract” are part of the Owner-Contractor Contract.

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24
Q

A unit price contract is used when:

A - Extent of the Work cannot be fully determined or where actual quantities cannot be accurately calculated prior to construction

B - Extent of the Work is known, but the Owner desires a unit cost for portions of the Work

C - It is anticipated that Bidders will not examine soil bearing reports prior to submitting their Bid

D - Bidding quantities of equipment

Reference: PDPG 13.10.5; PDPG 13.8.3; also PDPG 12.2.4 (procurement forms).

Also see CCAPG 11.3 and 11.5.

Also see CSPG 7.8; and CSPG 7.5.2.

A

Answer: A - Extent of the Work cannot be fully determined or where actual quantities cannot be accurately calculated prior to construction. Use of unit prices, allowances, or alternates should always be limited to those items required for accurate bidding/pricing, to keep the Bidding Documents and processes as simple as possible.

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25
Q

An addendum cannot be used to change the:

A - Contract Sum

B - Date and time for receipt of Bids

C - Quality of the Work

D - Quantity of the Work

Reference: and PDPG 13.4.2.8 and 15.11.2.3, and

EJCDC C-700 Paragraph 1.01.A.1;

AIA A201 Section 1.1.1.

Also see CCAPG 8.3.

Also see CSPG 9.4.

A

Answer: A - Contract Sum.

Why, you ask? Because Addenda are issued during the bidding (procurement) stage (see Question No. 8), before there is a signed Contract between the Owner and Contractor, and therefore, are issued before there is a Contract Sum. When issued prior to the receipt of Bids (or, with AIA documents, prior to the signature of the Owner-Contractor Agreement), an Addendum can be used to change the date for receipt of Bids, the required quality of the Work, and the scope or extent of the Work.

What would one use to change the Contract Price (Contract Sum in AIA documents)?

Hint: It’s not an Addendum. For more on how the Contract Price/Contract Sum is modified, see PDPG 15.11.2.3, CCAPG 8.3, CSPG 9.4; EJCDC C-700 Paras. 11.02, 11.04, and 11.05; and AIA A201 Sections 7.1 and 7.2.

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26
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about addenda?

A - They typically arise from a change order

B - They are part of the contract documents

C - They are listed in Division 01 - General Requirements

D - They can be issued at any time during the contract period

Reference: PDPG 13.4.2.8;

EJCDC C-700 Para 1.01.A.13 and EJCDC C-520 Para. 9.01;

AIA A201 Section 1.1.1 and AIA A101 Section 9.1;

and “The Diagram”.

Also see CCAPG 1.3.1.

A

Answer: B - They are part of the contract documents.

This one is a little tricky. During the procurement (bidding) stage, there is no Contract, and because Addenda are issued during the procurement (bidding) stage, how can they be part of the Contract Documents?

Well, they BECOME part of the Contract Documents when the Owner-Contractor Agreement is signed. While the answer says they “ARE” part of the Contract Documents, they are at a point in time after signing the Owner-Contractor Agreement. All of the other choices to this question are COMPLETELY wrong, so Answer “B” is the best answer out of the choices available.

For a list of what constitutes the “Contract Documents”, see EJCDC C-520 (Owner-Contractor Agreement), Paragraph 9.01, and AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement), Articles 1 and 9, and AIA A201 Paragraph 1.1.1.

The diagram

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27
Q

Select the entity which is essentially assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract - Furnishing surveys and utility locations:

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 12.2.3.1; EJCDC C-700 Paras. 4.03 and 5.05, and AIA A201 Sections 2.3.4 and 2.3.5.

Also see especially CCAPG 3.8.9 and 3.8.10.

Also see EJCDC E-500 (Owner-Engineer Agreement) Para. B2.01.D (in Exhibit B), and AIA B101 (Owner-Architect Agreement) Section 5.4

A

Answer: B - Owner.

Because the Owner furnishes the Site for the Contractor to construct the Work, the Owner is in the best position to have available and furnish surveys and utility locations. It is common, however, for the Owner to make obtaining and furnishing to the Contractor such information part of the A/E’s scope of professional services.

However, as the entity in control of the Site—particularly for remodeling or rehabilitation of an existing facility—the Owner should maintain a complete file of information about its own property, including surveys, utility information, reports of previous investigations of subsurface conditions and the presence at the Site of a Hazardous Environmental Condition (including the presence of common substances such as asbestos, lead-based paint, and PCBs), and record drawings of existing conditions.

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28
Q

Which of the following documents would typically not be produced during the schematic design phase of the Project’s Design Stage?

A - Sketches

B - Outline specifications

C - Models

D - Preliminary project descriptions

Reference: PDPG 2.2 and 2.3; and PDPG 9.4, 9.12, 9.13. 9.14, and PDPG 11.1 and 11.3.11.

A

Answer: B - Outline specifications.

PDPG 9.14.2 expressly states that outline specifications are developed during the design development phase.

Especially refer to PDPG 9.12 through 9.14 and PDPG 11.1 and PDPG 11.3.11 (knowledge of these sections could be worth several points on the CDT exam).

It is very important understand that different entities (such as CSI, EJCDC, and AIA, among others) have different terms for parts of the Project’s design stage, as set forth in PDPG 2.3.

Answer choices “sketches” and “preliminary project descriptions” are clearly prepared during the schematic design phase, as indicated in PDPG 9.13 and PDPG 11.3.11. “Scaled models” are also prepared during the schematic design phase per PDPG 9.13.1. (In 2010, CSI published an entire book with suggested formats for preliminary project descriptions, titled PPDFormat, which is not a required study item for the exams.)

AIA B101 defines “schematic design phase”, “design development phase”, and “construction documents phase”. EJCDC E-500 defines the following phases: “study and report phase” (not part of “design”), “preliminary design phase”, and “final design phase”. As noted in PDPG 2.3, other industry-standard documents (not covered on the CDT exam) contain yet other variations on these terms!

In 2011 CSI standardized (more-or-less) on AIA’s terms (schematic design, design development, and contract documents phase); EJCDC divides the design stage into two parts: “preliminary design” and “final design”.

For the exam, be familiar with CSI’s terms in PDPG.

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29
Q

Allowances, alternates, and unit prices are used to control all of the following EXCEPT:

A - Indeterminate items

B - Postponement of decisions

C - Contractor selection

D - Construction costs

Reference: PDPG 13.8 and PDPG 13.4.2.13.

Also see CSPG 7.6, 7.7, and 7.8.

A

Answer: C - Contractor selection.

Under the design-bid-build project delivery method, Contractor selection is determined during the procurement (bidding) stage, whether by competitive bidding or by soliciting proposals from prequalified prospective bidders.

In contrast, allowances, alternates, and unit prices are all ways of controlling project variables relative to scope, cost, and deferred design decisions, as described in PDPG 13.8.

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30
Q

In a specification section, all of the following are Articles in Part “1 - General” EXCEPT:

A - References

B - Submittals

C - Source Quality Control

D - Sequencing and Scheduling

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.5, and CSI SectionFormat.

Also see CSPG 4.2.4, among other parts of the CSPG.

A

Answer: C - Source Quality Control; in particular see either the “SectionFormat Outline” on pages SF-6 and SF-7 of SectionFormat, or CSPG Figure 4.3. An example of source quality control is factory testing of an equipment item such as a pump or blower, or testing of any other building material that is tested at the manufacturer’s shop or other testing facility before delivery to the construction Site for installation. Such source quality control requirements are to be indicated in Part “2 - Products”. The inspection at the Project Site of erected steel is to be indicated in the Part “3 - Execution” Article titled, “Field Quality Control”.

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31
Q

An Advertisement for Bids:

A - Implies the Owner will be selective by inviting only certain bidders to submit bids

B - Should contain information necessary for actual preparation of a bid

C - Is most often used in Private work

D - Is a legal notice to all qualified bidders

Reference: PDPG 12.2.1

A

Answer: D - Is a legal notice to all qualified bidders.

Know the difference between “Advertisement for Bids” and “Invitation to Bid” (see PDPG 12.2.1.1). The correct answer is not Answer “B”, because information necessary for actual preparation of a Bid belongs in the Instructions to Bidders.

Difference between “Advertisement for Bids” and “Invitation to Bid”

Bid solicitations fall into two categories:

  • Invitations to bid - 00 11 16 Invitation to Bid
  • Advertisements to bid - 00 11 13 Advertisement for Bids

Invitations to bid

The invitation to bid is intended to attract qualified bidders and to help prospective bidders decide whether to obtain the procurement documents. It should be limited to pertinent data that will permit prospective bidders to judge whether the work is within their capability, whether they have the necessary qualifications, required licenses, and whether they will have time to prepare a bid.

The invitation to bid should be brief, simple, and free from irrelevant information. It is not intended to contain detailed requirements or instructions that belong elsewhere in the procurement documents. It should not contain information necessary for actual preparation of a bid, because that information belongs in the instructions to bidders. The invitation to bid should always be in writing to facilitate adequate distribution. A separate mailing to each prospective bidder is desirable.

Advertisements to bid

In public work, regulations or policy usually requires that an advertisement be published as a legal notice in designated publications, newspapers, and on project reporting websites. In this case, the invitation takes the form of an advertisement for bids and is so identified. An invitation to bid implies that the owner will be selective by inviting only certain bidders to submit bids. An advertisement for bids, however, is notice to all qualified bidders, not just a select few. In private work, the legal notice is usually omitted and the invitation to bid is issued to selected contractors only.

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32
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Clarifying and interpreting the construction documents:

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 15.11.1; EJCDC C-700 Paras. 3.04 and 10.07; and AIA A201 Sections 4.2.11 and 4.2.12.

Also see CCAPG 8.1.

A

Answer: A - Architect/Engineer.

The A/E is typically the entity best-suited to interpret the construction documents, whether during the procurement (bidding) stage or during the construction stage, because the A/E, as the author of the construction documents and the design professional in responsible charge, best-understands the construction documents and the Project’s design intent. Because of the A/E’s ethical obligations as a licensed design professional, the A/E also has an obligation to interpret the construction documents impartially; this is an express requirement in EJCDC C-700.

For the procurement (bidding) stage, see EJCDC C-200 (Instructions to Bidders), Article 7 (e.g., Arcadis US Water Standard Construction Document “00 21 13, Instructions to Bidders (CONS)”) and, for the construction stage, see EJCDC C-700 Para. 3.04 and 10.07.

For the procurement (bidding) stage, see AIA A701 (Instructions to Bidders) Section 3.2, and for the construction stage see AIA A201 Section 4.2.11.

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33
Q
  1. Marked-up or corrected contract Drawings that indicate changes incorporated in the Work are called:

A - Bidding Requirements

B - Contract Forms

C - Conditions of the Contract

D - Record drawings

E - As-builts

Reference: PDPG 11.2.4.4, PDPG 15.11.14, and PDPG 16.8.3; EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.11, and AIA A201 Section 3.11.

Also see CCAPG 6.14; CCAPG 9.15.5 and 9.15.6.

A

Answer: D - Record drawings.

Record drawings incorporate all modifications made after the issuance of the Drawings and Specifications for construction, and also indicate unanticipated field conditions encountered during construction. Although the older term, “as-builts”, is often used in the industry, the term “as-builts” is discouraged by CSI, EJCDC, AIA, and by many attorneys that represent design professionals because the A/E is unable to certify the accuracy of field-recorded information furnished by the Contractor.

As supplemental material, in the near future we will distribute an article on record documents and conformed documents—both of which are commonly used in the industry and often prepared by A/Es—but that have significant, attendant risk.

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34
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Resolution of claims.

A - Owner

B - Contractor

C - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

D - Initial Decision Maker

Reference: PDPG 15.15.3; AIA A201 Sections 1.1.8 and 15.2.

Also see CCAPG Chapter 10 (particularly CCAPG 10.3).

A

Answer: D - Initial Decision Maker.

The Initial Decision Maker is an entity that exists only in AIA documents and is not used in EJCDC documents. In AIA documents, when an entity other than the Architect is named as the Initial Decision Maker, said entity is identified in AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement) Section 6.1.

In actual practice with AIA documents, the Initial Decision Maker is typically the Architect, but may be a third party considered to be neutral.

Note that a “Claim” is a substantive disagreement between the Owner and the Contractor and is a formal, written demand for a change in price, time, or other relief under the Contract. The Contract typically sets forth specific procedures and time limits for the solution of Claims. A Claim represents a substantive escalation beyond the normal process of negotiating changes to the Contract. In the coming weeks, we will share with CSI Program participants some supplemental information on the procedures for resolving construction changes, Claims, and disputes.

It appears that the 2018 PDPG somewhat misses the boat regarding the significant differences between AIA and EJCDC documents relative to construction Claims. PDPG 15.15.1 appears to imply that Claims are determined by either the Initial Decision Maker or the A/E. However, in the 2013 edition of EJCDC C-700, EJCDC substantially changed the Claims process, whereby the Engineer (as a de-facto type of “initial decision maker” that formerly determined entitlement in Claims) was removed from a decision-making role in the Claims process. As of the 2013 edition of EJCDC C-700, the Owner and Contractor are to resolve Claims by direct negotiation in good faith, and may employ mediation to assist in resolving the Claim.

However, because the PDPG 2018 authors may not have fully understood or appreciated the significant differences between AIA’s and EJCDC’s current construction Claims processes, for the exam, understand this topic “AIA’s way” which also appears to be “CSI’s way”. In actual practice using the 2013 (or later) edition of EJCDC documents, understand that the Claims process is very different from AIA’s.

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35
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Paying for copies of Construction Documents reasonably necessary for execution of the Work.

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: EJCDC C-700 Para 2.02; AIA A201 Sections 2.3.6 and 1.5.2.

Also see CCAPG 3.3.2.

A

Answer: B - Owner.

Also see AIA A503 (2007), Guide to Preparing Supplementary Conditions—which is not a document required for the exams—for model language for revising AIA A201 Section 2.3.6 (formerly Section 2.2.5) to specify a certain number of copies to be furnished by the Owner.) Additional information on obtaining copies of the Contract Documents is in CCAPG 3.3.2.

Interestingly, AIA A201 Section 2.3.6 requires the Owner to furnish to the Contractor only one copy of the Contract Documents. EJCDC C-700 Para. 2.02, however, requires the Owner to furnish to the Contractor four copies of the Contract Documents plus one electronic copy (PDF file).

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36
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Control of construction means and sequences in the design-bid-build project delivery method.

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.01.A and AIA A201 Section 3.3.1; and PDPG 15.4.3 (among others).

Also see CCAPG 9.6 and CCAPG 6.1.2. Also see CSPG 1.8.2.

A

Answer: C - Contractor.

Only in certain, selected cases, do the Contract Documents require specific means, methods, techniques, or sequences of construction. Otherwise, responsibility for means, methods, techniques, and sequences of construction is the responsibility of the Contractor.

When the Owner, A/E, or a construction manager interfere with or take over control of (whether by intent or unknowingly) of the Contractor’s means and methods, their risk increases significantly. Thus, the Owner, A/E, and construction manager should always be cognizant of and careful to avoid being perceived as infringing on the Contractor’s responsibility for the means and methods of construction.

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37
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: The Contract can be assigned without prior consent by which party?

(Subcontracting)

A - Architect/Engineer

B - Owner

C - Contractor

D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions

E - None of the above

Reference: AIA A201 Section 13.2.2.

Duplicate card

A

Answer: C - Contractor.

Assignment is when one party to a contract legally “assigns” their role and responsibilities under the Contract Documents to a third party.

Question No. 29 is unique only to AIA A201; a similar requirement does not exist in EJCDC’s standard documents. Furthermore, a contract cannot truly be assigned to another party without the written consent of both parties to the contract (i.e., Owner and Contractor). Although AIA A201 Section 13.2.2 says that the Owner has the right to assign the contract to a third party (in effect, transferring the Owner’s responsibilities and rights to the third party), an assignment cannot actually take effect without both parties to the contract signing on the same piece of paper, in effect requiring them to ‘consent” to the assignment.

The reason for AIA A201 Section 13.2.2 is because AIA documents are used typically on private construction, and private owners or developers seeking financing for, say, a commercial construction project may well need to assign the contract to a financing institution.

38
Q

Substitution procedures:

A - Are defined by law

B - Are specified in the Division 01 specifications

C - Allow requests only during the bidding stage

D - Provide for requests by telephone

E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 12.2.2.6 and PDPG 13.4.2.7 (both addressing substitution requests during bidding) and PDPG 15.11.3 (substitutions during construction);

CSI MasterFormat (01 25 00).

Also see CCAPG 8.3. Also see CSPG 3.1.4.

A

Answer: B - Are specified in the Division 01 specifications.

Answer “A - Are defined by law” is true under some circumstances, but would not be the “best” answer on the exam.

Answer “B - Are specified in the Division 01 specifications” is the best answer—it is always correct—more about that below—and is especially true when using AIA documents.

Answer “C - Allow requests only during the bidding stage” is true for some projects, but is also not the best answer.

Answer “D - Provide for requests by telephone” is, well, just plain wrong

The Standard General Conditions do address substitutions in a very broad sense, at EJCDC C-700 Para 7.05 and AIA A201 Section 3.4.2 (the latter merely states that substitutions may be considered and does not present any procedure). Although EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.05 is more-detailed than AIA A201 Section 3.4.2, it is still quite broad and is typically augmented via the Division 01 Specifications; MasterFormat allocates Section 01 25 00, Substitution Procedures, for this purpose. Thus, Answer “B” is the best answer.

Because AIA A201 has very little concerning substitution requests, when using AIA documents, virtually all the requirements for substitution requests will be indicated in Section 01 25 00, Substitution Procedures. This section is also commonly used to augment the requirements of EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.05. Thus, Answer “B” is the best answer.

When substitution requests will be considered during the procurement (bidding) stage, such requirements would be included in the Instructions to Bidders. For example, the topic is addressed in EJCDC C-200, Instructions to Bidders (2013) at Article 11 (“Substitute and ‘Or-Equal’ Items) (Arcadis US Water Document 00 21 13), and in AIA A701, Instructions to Bidders (1997) at Section 3.3 (“Substitutions”). AIA documents virtually encourage requests for substitutes during the procurement stage, whereas EJCDC C-200’s default language prohibits request for approval of substitutes and “or-equals” during bidding. Neither EJCDC C-200 nor AIA A701 are source materials for CSI’s exams, however.

39
Q

For this question, select the entity which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: The Contract can be assigned without prior consent by which party?

A - Architect/Engineer
B - Owner
C - Contractor
D - Varies, as stated in the Supplementary Conditions
E - None of the above

Reference: AIA A201 Section 13.2.2.

A

Answer: C - Contractor.

Assignment is when one party to a contract legally “assigns” their role and responsibilities under the Contract Documents to a third party.

Question No. 29 is unique only to AIA A201; a similar requirement does not exist in EJCDC’s standard documents. Furthermore, a contract cannot truly be assigned to another party without the written consent of both parties to the contract (i.e., Owner and Contractor). Although AIA A201 Section 13.2.2 says that the Owner has the right to assign the contract to a third party (in effect, transferring the Owner’s responsibilities and rights to the third party), an assignment cannot actually take effect without both parties to the contract signing on the same piece of paper, in effect requiring them to ‘consent” to the assignment.

The reason for AIA A201 Section 13.2.2 is because AIA documents are used typically on private construction, and private owners or developers seeking financing for, say, a commercial construction project may well need to assign the contract to a financing institution.

40
Q

To be effective in communicating, specifications should be:

A - Complete, concise, and clear
B - Concise, clear, and correct
C - Clear, correct, complete and concise
D - Concise, correct, complete and cool

Reference: PDPG 5.3.1.7, PDPG 11.2.10, and PDPG 15.11. Also see CSPG 2.11.1 and CSPG 8.1. Also see CCAPG 10.1 and CCAPG Chapter 8 (chapter intro).

A

Answer: C - Clear, correct, complete and concise. The “Four Cs” of specification writing are one of CSI’s axioms. You can sometimes hear old specifiers reciting them in a prayer-like fashion. (Arcadis Staff: Also see Arcadis US Water’s Procedure Memo No. 5, on the Standard Construction Documents website’s Procedure Memos page.)

41
Q

An affirmation of fact or promise, made by a seller to a buyer, that relates to the goods and becomes part of the basis of the bargain (e.g., buyer-seller contract) creates:

A - An implied warranty
B - A full warranty
C - An express warranty
D - A guarantee

Reference: PDPG 16.10 (especially PDPG 16.10.1). Also see CSPG Chapter 15, “Warranties”.

A

Answer: C - An express warranty. The concepts of PDPG 16.10 and CSPG Chapter 15 are important to specifications practice and are frequently misunderstood.

The terms used in this question—”buyer” and “seller”—refer to the parties to a purchase order or equipment purchase contract, and are consistent with the laws and regulations—the Uniform Commercial Code—that govern commercial transactions in 49 of the 50 states (except Louisiana). When a Contractor purchases construction materials from a Supplier, the Contractor is a “buyer” and the Supplier is the “seller”. Similarly, an Owner that directly procures large process equipment directly from a manufacturer is a “buyer” and the manufacturer is the “seller”.

There are many different types of warranties and “guarantees” in a construction contract and they can become a bit confused for the uneducated. Unfortunately, such confusion often leads to unnecessary expenditure of the Owner’s project funds. Warranties of any type are often much more expensive than one may at first believe.

42
Q

As a result of the widely held misconception that the Contractor’s responsibility for defective Work lasts only for the one-year “warranty” period:

A -The Supplementary Conditions should state that the period extends for an additional length of time
B - EJCDC and AIA use terms such as”correction period”instead of”warranty”or”guarantee”
C - The Owner accepts any repairs after that date
D - The courts relieve the Contractor of his/her responsibility

Reference: PDPG 16.9; EJCDC C-700 Paras. 7.17 and 15.08; AIA A201 Sections 3.5.1 and 12.2.2.1.Also see CCAPG 12.3.8.6.Also see CSPG Chapter 15, “Warranties”

A

Answer: B - EJCDC and AIA use terms such as”correction period”instead of”warranty”or”guarantee”. AIA A201 and EJCDC C-700 each have two broad provisions: a “correction period” (this exact term is not used in AIA A201) which is one year from the date of Substantial Completion, and is an express performance obligationby the Contractor (EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.17, AIA A201 Para. 12.2.2).The Contractor’s performance bond (when furnished) typically remains in effect during the one-year correction period.

The other broad obligation (AIA A201 Section 3.5.1 and EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.17) is a “general warranty” by the Contractor to the Owner, in which the Contractor expressly warrants that the Work will comply withthe Contract Documents and will not be “defective”. The general warranty of EJCDC C-700 Para 7.17 and AIA A201 Section 3.5.1 does not have a set duration. This is because the duration of the general warranty obligation is limited only by the statute of limitations under applicable law. This duration varies by state but often runs for four or six years after completion of construction. The Contractor’s performance bond is typically not in effect for most of the general warranty and, thus, to require the Contractor to correct defective Work under the general warranty provision, after the correction period is done, typically places agreater onus on the Owner to “prove” that the cause of the defect was the Contractor’s (as opposed to other factors, such as normal wear and tear).

The duration of the general warranty can, however, be reduced from that available via the applicable statute of limitations by the language of the Contract.It’s in the Owner’s interest to avoid this, which is why both AIA and EJCDC have separate provisions for the “general warranty” and the “correction period”.

Of all the “warranty” type provisions in construction documents, it is the correction period (EJCDC C-700 Para. 15.08, AIA A201 Section 12.2.2) that arguably gives the Owner the greatest protection and benefit.It often obviates the need for manufacturer warranties that last for only one year after completion—especially because manufacturers’ warranties typically serve only to limit the manufacturer’s liability.

Correction Period and Contractor’s Warranty

43
Q

Which of the following is an example of the UniFormat classification system?

A - 02 26 23, Asbestos Assessment
B - B2030, Exterior Doors
C - 02 26 33.13, Mold Assessment
D - B30, Roofing
E - Answers B and D
F - Answers A and C

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.3; and CSI UniFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2

A

Answer: E - Answers B and D. Designations under CSI’s UniFormat always begin with a letter.

Uniformat

44
Q

Which of the following is not part of the Contract Documents?

A - Agreement
B - Procurement Forms
C - Contract Modifications
D - Performance Bond
E - Addenda

Reference: PDPG 15.2.2; EJCDC C-700 Para 1.01.A.13 and EJCDC C-520 Para. 9.01; AIA A201 Section 1.1.1 and AIA A101 Articles 1 and 9; and “The Diagram”. Also see CCAPG 1.3.1.

A

Answer: B - Procurement Forms. The key to this question is that it’s regarding CONTRACT Documents—the correct answer would be different if the question was regarding, “Procurement [Bidding] Documents” or something other than “Contract Documents”.

Just what is (or is not) part of the Contract Documents is very important, and it could be a significant contractual flaw if the Contract is not clear about this. We have already distributed some supplemental material on this topic; if you didn’t save it and would like to see it again, contact Kevin O’Beirne for a copy.

Note that, in the references cited above, neither EJCDC C-520 (Owner-Contractor Agreement—Stipulated Price) nor AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement—Stipulated Sum) are source material for the CDT exam, but they are source material for the CCCA exam.

The diagram

45
Q

The Procurement Documents include all of the following EXCEPT:

A - Procurement Requirements
B - Contract Modifications
C - Project Manual
D - Drawings

Reference: PDPG 11.1 and PDPG Chapter 12; EJCDC C-700 Para. 1.01.A.6 and 1.01.A.7; AIA A201 Section 1.1.1; and “The Diagram”. Also see CCAPG 1.3.1; CCAPG 8.2. Also see CSPG Chapter 9.

A

Answer: B - Contract Modifications. Procurement (Bidding) Documents are issued for the procurement (bidding/pricing) stage, before there are any “Contract Documents” (e.g., before the Owner-Contractor Agreement is signed); thus, there is no “contract” to modify until the Agreement is signed by both parties. The way that the Procurement (Bidding) Documents are modified prior to the opening of Bids is via Addenda.

The Diagram

46
Q

A Construction manager is hired by the Owner to do all of the following except:

A - Assist in procuring the contractor
B - Administer the project
C - Provide observation services at the construction site
D - Supervise the A/E

Reference: PDPG 7.4. Also see CCAPG 1.4.2. Also see CSPG 1.14.2.

A

Answer: D - Supervise the A/E. However, this question is difficult because the extent to which Answers “A”, “B” and “C” are true or false depends on the form of construction manager project delivery.

Answer “A” is true for CMa - construction manager as an advisor. Answer “A” is false for CMAR - construction manager at risk (where the construction manager becomes the general contractor upon the start of construction), because the CMAR is the Contractor and would monitor Subcontractors (e.g., instead of the CM monitoring the Contractor).

Answer “B” is sometimes true—for example, in standard documents from the Construction Management Association of America (CMAA) and AGC’s ConsensusDocs the CM is given authority to act on the Owner’s behalf. However, in standard documents by the AIA and in EJCDC’s forthcoming CMa-Series documents, the CM does not have authority to act on the Owner’s behalf.

Answer “C” is typically true for CMa project delivery. In CMAR delivery, the CMAR is the contractor and therefore supervises the construction instead of merely observing the Work.

Answer “D” is always false because the CM never supervises the Architect or the Engineer. Because they are required to have a professional license and registration in the state(s) where they practice, A/Es cannot, by definition, be “supervised” by anyone who does not want to assume the A/E’s professional liability. Thus, Answer “D” is the correct choice for this question.

47
Q

Multiple-prime contracts are normally a part of:

A - Turn-key construction
B - Negotiated contracts
C - Long duration construction projects
D - Fast-track construction

Reference: PDPG 5.8.4.2 and PDPG 11.4.1. Also see CCAPG 1.4.2.

A

Answer: D - Fast-track construction. “Fast-track” does not mean only that the Contractor builds the project quickly, but rather is most-often used for describing projects where the construction of “early-start” activities (such as site clearing, excavation, and foundation construction, for example) commence in the field while the A/E is still designing the rest of the project. Thus, the Contractor may be building the foundation and site work (buried utilities, rough grading, etc.) while the A/E is still designing the facility’s mechanical, plumbing, and electrical systems. In fast-track projects, the building may be divided among ten or more separate prime contractors. Coordinating multiple prime contracts is often very challenging and presents increased risk to both the Owner and A/E, particularly when design changes affect already-completed elements of the construction. In return, the Owner gets a project completed more-quickly, although likely for increased cost.

In addition to using multiple-prime construction contracts for fast-tracking, multiple primes is required for most public works projects in certain jurisdictions, including New York State, Pennsylvania, and New Jersey. Prior to 2010, North Carolina essentially abandoned its multiple-prime public contracting requirement for public work and, in 2011, Ohio enacted legislation that significantly weakened Ohio’s multiple-prime public contracting statutes. All other states in the United States allow public work to be constructed using a single prime construction contract.

48
Q

After evaluating a request for interpretation (RFI), which of the following steps would not be applicable according to EJCDC:

A - A/E responds directly on the RFI form
B - A/E issues Supplemental Instructions
C - A/E issues a Field Order
D - A/E prepares a Proposal Request

A

Answer: B - Supplemental Instructions. The key to this question is understanding that EJCDC documents do not account for “Supplemental Instructions”.

Both EJCDC and AIA have a contractual mechanism for the A/E to order “minor changes” (changes that do not affect the Contract Price or Contract Times) in the Work; EJCDC calls it a Field Order (EJCDC C-942) and the AIA calls the document “Architect’s Supplemental Instructions” (AIA G710).

When responding to a RFI, the A/E may provide a response directly on the RFI form (very common). Where the RFI response requires a minor change (no effect on price or time), a Field Order (EJCDC) or Architect’s Supplemental Instructions (AIA) often accompanies the RFI response. Where the response to the RFI results in a potential change in price, time, or both, the RFI response should be accompanied by a Proposal Request.

RFI responses, alone, should NEVER be used to attempt to modify the requirements of the Contract. RFI responses are not, themselves, Contract Documents.

Reference: PDPG 15.11.1.2 and PDPG 15.11.2.1; EJCDC C-700 Paras. 3.03 and 3.04; AIA A201 Section 1.1.1. Also see CCAPG 8.1.2 and CCAPG Chapter 9.

Figure

49
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Conditions of the Contract:

A - Are an inherent part of the Agreement
B - Are an inherent part of the specifications
C - With the Agreement govern the content of the entire Contract
D - Answers A and C
E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 12.3.2, PDPG 12.3.3, and PDPG Figure 11.21; and “The Diagram”. Also see CCAPG 1.3.1. Also see CSPG Chapter 6.

A

Answer: D - Answers A and C. “Conditions of the Contract” are, according to AIA and CSI (but not EJCDC) the General Conditions and the Supplementary Conditions. The answer is not “B” because the General Requirements (not the Conditions of the Contract) administratively govern the Work indicated in the Specifications.

Figure

50
Q

What is the “glue” that binds the Contract Documents together? (free-form answer—no answer choices given this time!)

Reference: PDPG 11.1.2; PDPG 11.1.5. Also see CSPG Chapter 5, “Agreements”.

A

Answer: If you answered “Agreement” you would not be entirely correct the correct answer is “signed Agreement” (see PDPG Figure 11.1)

51
Q

True or False: The Contracting Requirements include the performance bond.

Reference: MasterFormat Division 00 (particularly 00 50 00 through 00 99 99); and “The Diagram”.

A

Answer: True. MasterFormat titles Division 00 as “Procurement and Contracting Requirements”. Procurement (Bidding) Requirements are those documents that pertain only to the procurement (bidding) stage (e.g., advertisement or instructions to bidders, advertisement or invitation to bid, instructions to bidders/proposers, bid form, bid bond form (if any), bidder qualifications statement (if any), and other bid form supplements (if any). MasterFormat assigns these documents between 00 10 00 and 00 49 99.

The “Contracting Requirements” are the balance of Division 00 (per MasterFormat, documents between 00 50 00 and 00 99 99), including the Agreement form and its supplements (if any); project forms (including the performance bond and payment bond); “conditions of the contract”; and revisions/clarifications/modifications (including Addenda).

The diagram

52
Q

Project-specific insurance requirements would usually be included in the ____ (fill in the blank).

Reference: PDPG 12.5. Also see CSPG Chapter 17

Duplicate question

A

Answer: Supplementary Conditions. Project-specific insurance requirements, such as the specific types of insurance and minimum coverage limits required, are typically in the Supplementary Conditions. This is always the case with EJCDC documents, and was the case with AIA documents until the 2017 edition of AIA A201 and AIA A101.

Both AIA A201 and EJCDC C-700 (General Conditions) contain basic insurance provisions. But for the Owner to require that the Contractor furnish general liability insurance of not less than a certain coverage amount, or to require that the Contractor furnish a certain type of railroad protective liability insurance, such requirements would be in the Supplementary Conditions (EJCDC C-800, Supplementary Conditions, includes model language, as does AIA A503—2007). However, with its 2017 documents, the AIA extracted the specific requirements for certain types of insurance and created at new exhibit to AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement). Thus, as of 2017, AIA includes Project-specific insurance requirements in an exhibit to the Agreement.

Also see EJCDC C-700 Article 6 and EJCDC C-800, Guide to the Preparation of Supplementary Conditions, provisions numbered SC-6.0x. Alternatively, see AIA A201 Section 11 and the insurance exhibit to AIA A101—2017.

Note that EJCDC C-800 and AIA A101 are not materials required for the CDT exams, but are extremely useful in the actual practice of preparing Supplementary Conditions. Arcadis US Water’s Standard Supplementary Conditions (“Document 00 73 01”) is developed closely from EJCDC C-800.

Article 11 of A201 and A101-2017 Exhibit A, Insurance and Bonds

Article 11 of A503 2017-2019, Insurance and Bonds

Article about the release of the exhibit

53
Q

How many divisions are included in MasterFormat Procurement and Contracting Requirements?

A - Zero
B - One
C - Five
D - Forty Nine
E - Fifty

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.4, and MasterFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.3; also see CCAPG 1.3.3.

A

Answer: B - One. MasterFormat’s “Procurement and Contracting Requirements” is also known as “Division 00”. Also see PDPG 12.2 and 12.3, and CSPG 7.3.4 and CSPG Chapters 5 and 6, for more on Division 00.

The diagram

54
Q

How many Divisions are included in MasterFormat specifications?

A - Zero
B - One
C - Five
D - Forty-Nine
E - Fifty

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.4, and MasterFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.3.

A

Answer: D - Forty-nine. MasterFormat has 50 Divisions, but the first one, “Division 00, Procurement and Contracting Requirements”, is not Specifications. MasterFormat’s “Specifications Group” (e.g., Divisions 01 through 49) contains 49 Divisions.

The diagram

55
Q

How many total divisions does MasterFormat contain?

A - Zero
B - One
C - Five
D - Forty-Nine
E - Fifty

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.4, and MasterFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.3.

A

Answer: E - Fifty. As indicated in the comments on the answer for Question-of-the-Day No. 48, MasterFormat has a total of 50 Divisions, of which 49 are for Specifications. Recognizing this distinction may be worth a point or two on the CDT and CCS exams.

The diagram

56
Q
  1. MasterFormat, specifications are organized into how many Subgroups?

A - Zero

B - One

C - Five

D - Forty-Nine

E - Fifty

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.4, and MasterFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.3

A

Answer: C - Five. Starting with its 2004 edition, MasterFormat organizes its 50 Divisions into two “Groups” and five “Subgroups”; the Subgroups are all part of the “Specifications Group”. For the CDT and CCS exams, you should be able to name the five Subgroups.

The diagram

57
Q

An invitation to bid would most likely not be used on which of the following project delivery systems:

A - Design-negotiate-build
B - Design-bid-build
C - Design-build
D - Owner-build
E - None of the above

Reference: PDPG 12.2.1, PDPG Chapter 4 (“Project Delivery”), PDPG 13.4 through 13.7.

A

Answer: The best answer to this question is “B - Design-bid-build”. The keys to the question are: (1) The word “invitation” and (2) The words, “not used” (always read the question carefully!). However, the question is not worded very well—like some of the questions you may see on CSI’s exams!

Design-bid-build is often publicly-advertised (i.e., open to all qualified, potential bidders), but could also be done using an invitation (i.e., procurement documents are made available only to selected prospective Bidders).

Design-negotiate-build may involve an invitation to bid or a request for proposals (RFP); it does not usually involve a public advertisement.

Design-build includes design & construction and procurement of a Design-Builder usually involves some negotiation on scope and other matters, and therefore usually uses a RFP but could also include either an invitation or an advertisement to bid/propose. Furthermore, it is not unusual for a Design-Builder to procure some of its construction Subcontractors and Suppliers via a closed bidding process that involves the Design-Builder issuing an invitation to bid to firms it has prequalified.

Owner-build may include either invitations for Bids or advertisements for Bids for “subcontractors” that will be hired directly by the Owner.

58
Q

For this question, select the participant which is generally assigned the following duties and responsibilities by the Conditions of the Contract: Reviewing submittals for compliance with the Contract Documents, site conditions and dimensions.

A - Architect/Engineer
B - Owner
C - Contractor
D - Varies - as stated in the Supplementary Conditions
E - None of the above

Reference: EJCDC C-700 Para 7.16.A.1; AIA A201 Section 3.12.5 and 3.12.6; PDPG 15.8. Also see CCAPG Chapter 5.

A

Answer: C - Contractor. Both EJCDC C-700 Para. 7.16.A.1 and AIA A201 Section 3.12.5 and 6 state that the Contractor is responsible for reviewing submittals for compliance with the Contract Documents, Site conditions, dimensions, and construction means and methods; this is also reflected in PDPG 15.8.

For those that thought the A/E was the correct answer: PDPG 15.8 states the A/E is responsible for reviewing submittals for conformance with the Project’s design intent. This is supported by the language of EJCDC E-500 (Owner-Engineer Agreement) and AIA B101 (Owner-Architect Agreement)—neither of which are source material for CSI’s exams.

Submittals

59
Q

To be valid, the Contractor’s agreements with subcontractors must:

A - Permit the Owner to withhold payment to the Contractor for subcontractor work in the event the subcontractor’s work is defective
B - Protect the Owners rights under the Contract Documents with respect to work performed by the subcontractor
C - Be signed by the Owner
D - Be reviewed and approved by the A/E before being executed

Reference: PDPG 13.7.2 and PDPG 15.4.4; EJCDC C-700 Para 7.06.M and AIA A201 Section 5.3. Also see CCAPG 3.1.3.

A

Answer: B - Protect the Owners rights under the Contract Documents with respect to work performed by the subcontractor. In EJCDC C-700 and AIA A201, this is done by requiring that all Subcontractors and Suppliers be retained under a written agreement (subcontract for Subcontractors; purchase order for Suppliers) that binds the Subcontractor or Supplier to the applicable terms of the Owner-Contractor Contract.

To further support such coordination between the prime Contract and the subcontracts, both the AIA and EJCDC provide model subcontract agreements (EJCDC C-523 and AIA A401 for design-bid/negotiate-build projects; and EJCDC D-523 and AIA A142 for design-build projects; in addition, in 2018, EJCDC will publish a Contractor-Supplier purchase order form (EJCDC C-524)). None of these subcontract forms are source material for CSI’s exams.

13.2.1 The Owner and Contractor respectively bind themselves, their partners, successors, assigns, and legal representatives to covenants, agreements, and obligations contained in the Contract Documents. Except as provided in Section 13.2.2, neither party to the Contract shall assign the Contract as a whole without written consent of the other. If either party attempts to make an assignment without such consent, that party shall nevertheless remain legally responsible for all obligations under the Contract.

60
Q

On a certain construction project, all the contracts are between various trade “subcontractors” and a large fast-food chain, which will hold title to the building. This is an example of what type of project delivery method?

A - Owner-build
B - Turnkey
C - Design-build
D - Construction management.

Reference: PDPG 4.7, PDPG 15.2.3.4

A

Answer: A - Owner-build. The question describes owner-build because the construction contracts are between the Owner and various trade “subcontractors”.

For construction manager as advisor (CMa), the Owner has a prime construction contract with one or more Contractors, with other prime contracts between the Owner and A/E, and the Owner and the CMa. For construction manager at risk (CMAR), the Owner has a prime construction contract with the CMAR itself. For design-build delivery, the owner has a prime contract with the Design-Builder. “Turnkey” or “turn-key” is not a method of project delivery, but rather describes a form of either design-build or integrated project delivery (IPD) in which the Owner has relatively little involvement until taking occupancy of the completed Project.

61
Q

Which term or word is appropriate to use in specification text?

A - Work
B - As per
C - As required
D - Any

Reference: PDPG 11.3.6 (particularly PDPG 11.3.6.9). Also see CSPG Chapter 2 (particularly CSPG 2.12).

A

Answer: A - “Work”. “Work” is a defined term (indicated with an initial capital letter) in EJCDC C-700 Para 1.01.A.47 and AIA A201 Section 1.1.3, and therefore is certainly appropriate. Answer “B”, “C”, and “D” are all either ill-defined terms or, at best, open to interpretation, and should therefore be avoided. Specifications language should be clear, concise, complete, and correct.

62
Q

Apportionment of the Work among multiple prime contracts is specified in:

A - Special Conditions
B - Instructions to Bidders
C - Division 01, General Requirements
D - Supplementary Conditions

Reference: PDPG 5.8.4.2 and PDPG 11.3.16; CSI MasterFormat. Also see CSPG Chapter 7 (particularly CSPG 7.5.1)

A

Answer: C - Division 01, General Requirements. See CSI MasterFormat’s Division 01 organization, particularly Section 01 12 00, Multiple Contract Summary.

Answer “A - Special Conditions” is incorrect because, in AIA and EJCDC documents, and in CSI MasterFormat, there is no document called, “Special Conditions” (instead, the term “Supplementary Conditions” is used—also see “The Diagram” from our CDT slides). Answer “B - Instructions to Bidders” is incorrect because Instructions to Bidders present requirements on the processes of bidding, awarding the Contract, and signing the Contract, and does not concern multiple-prime contracting. Answer “D - Supplementary Conditions” is incorrect because the General Conditions and Supplementary Conditions together present general requirements regarding roles and responsibilities under the Contract, and do not include requirements apportioning specific Work among multiple, separate prime Contractors.

63
Q

In the standard General Conditions and Supplementary Conditions, furnishing property insurance for a project is the responsibility of the:

A - Specifier
B - Owner
C - Surety
D - Contractor’s insurance consultant

Reference: PDPG 12.5.2; AIA A201 Section 11.2.2; AIA A101 Insurance Exhibit Section A.2.3 (AIA A101 and its related insurance exhibit document are not source materials for the CDT exam). Also see CSPG 17.4, which is a comprehensive introduction to property insurance.

A

Answer: B - Owner. Construction property insurance is a separate policy that is different from the Contractor’s and Owner’s own general liability policies; property insurance covers losses to the Work and other property at the Site. There are two broad types of property insurance: (1) “normal” property insurance, maintain by the property’s owner, and (2) construction stage property insurance covering the materials and equipment to be incorporated into the construction, typically called, “builder’s risk” insurance. Builder’s risk insurance is typically in effect only through Substantial Completion of the construction, after which property insurance coverage should be transitioned to the Owner’s regular property insurance policy.

Builder’s risk insurance is typically desirable when the Project includes construction of or modifications to some type of structure or building. A special form of builder’s risk insurance—called an “installation floater”—can be obtained to cover materials to be installed into construction that is not in a building or structure; for example, for protection against loss to waterline pipe stored trench-side.

PDPG 12.5.2 presents a basic overview of property insurance, and indicates that the Owner “typically” obtains the builder’s risk insurance. AIA A201 implies, and AIA A101-Insurance Exhibit states that the Owner furnishes the builder’s risk insurance unless expressly indicated otherwise in the Contract. In private work, it is perhaps most-common for the Owner to furnish the builder’s risk insurance, and thus the best answer choice is “B - Owner”.

That said, many projects, including most public works projects, require that the Contractor furnish the builder’s risk insurance. In fact, this is the default requirement of EJCDC C-700 Para. 6.05.

The reality is that public owners typically desire to not procure builder’s risk insurance. But in certain circumstances—such as work to modify or rehabilitate an existing facility that remains in operation during construction—it may be advantageous to the Owner to furnish the builder’s risk insurance. In the event of a loss under the builder’s risk policy, the Owner can coordinate with its own property insurance to proceed swiftly toward having the loss remedied and to get the facility back into service, as opposed to having to work with both the Owner’s normal property insurance carrier and the Contractor’s builder’s risk insurance carrier. However, each project is different and Owner’s preferences and direction relative to the procurement of builder’s risk insurance are to be respected by the A/E or other entity drafting the construction documents’ Division 00 requirements (where provisions on insurance are located).

Insurance is a very complex topic and most A/Es and owners’ project personnel are typically unfamiliar and perhaps uncomfortable with the topic. However, it is important for A/Es and owners to understand the basics of construction insurance. CSI’s PDPG and CSPG present very good, basic overviews of the topic.

The Owner should always direct the A/E in the types of insurance and coverage amounts required. EJCDC C-051 and EJCDC C-052, or AIA G612 are useful documents for documenting the Owner’s instructions relative to insurance requirements. A/Es are design professionals—not risk advisors or insurance counselors—and should avoid giving, and appearing to give, insurance advice.

64
Q

The term day is defined in the General Conditions as which of the following?

A - Eight-hour day
B - Calendar day
C - Business day
D - Working day

Reference: EJCDC C-700 Para. 1.02.C and AIA A201 Section 8.1.4. Also see CSPG 5.4. Also see CCAPG 3.4.8.13

A

Answer: B - Calendar day. EJCDC C-700 Para. 1.02.C further defines a “day” as being from midnight-to-midnight.

65
Q

In what part of a specification section would shop testing requirements of the fabricated products be located?

A - Part 1 - General
B - Part 2 - Products
C - Part 3 - Execution
D - None; shop testing requirements should be on the Drawings
E - None of the above.

Reference: PDPG 11.3.5.6, and CSI SectionFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.4 (particularly Figure 4.3), among other parts of the CSPG.

A

Answer: B - Part 2 - Products, is where requirements for shop testing also known as source quality control, are to be specified. Field (or Site) testing, also known as field quality control, is in Part “3 - Execution”.

Unfortunately, it is surprising how frequently specifiers indicate quality control requirements in the wrong location in a spec section. SectionFormat is an exceedingly important—and possibly under-regarded—organizational format. Knowing it’s basic outline will be worth several points on all of CSI’s exams.

66
Q

Which of the following is in the proper order, relative to the construction stage?

A - Claim, mediation, binding arbitration
B - Change order, litigation, mediation, arbitration
C - Dispute, change order, termination
D - Termination, binding arbitration, dispute review board, change order

Reference: PDPG 15.15; AIA A201 Article 15; EJCDC C-700 Para 11.06 and Articles 12 and 17. Also see CCAPG Chapter 10.

A

Answer: A - Claim, mediation, and binding arbitration. When the parties (Owner, Contractor) disagree on entitlement or other issue relative to the Contract, the first step is filing a Claim in accordance with C-700 Article 12 and AIA A201 Sections 15.1 and 15.2. (Actually, in EJCDC C-700—2013 and later, the first step is a Change Proposal per EJCDC C-700 Para. 11.06, but AIA documents do not address Change Proposals or the amicable negotiation of Change Orders.)

If one of the parties disagrees with the decision regarding entitlement in the Claim, then either party may invoke the alternative dispute resolution procedures under the Contract. EJCDC C-700 Para. 12.01.D invites the parties to resort to mediation to resolve a Claim; mediation is a mandatory step in dispute resolution per AIA A201 Section 15.3. If mediation is unsuccessful, then final (binding) dispute resolution is available.

EJCDC C-700 Para. 17.01 indicates that final dispute resolution is in the Supplementary Conditions (model language for binding arbitration is presented in EJCDC C-800, Guide to Supplementary Conditions (Arcadis Water’s Standard Document 00 73 01)); if no method is indicated in the Supplementary Conditions, the parties may resort to any mutually-agreeable method, including litigation in court. AIA A201 Section 15.4 indicates requirements for final dispute resolution via binding arbitration per the rules of the American Arbitration Association (AAA); whether final dispute resolution by arbitration per AAA is required or some other method is set forth in AIA A101 (Owner-Contractor Agreement) Section 6.2.

“B - Change order, litigation, mediation, arbitration” is incorrect because both litigation and binding arbitration are final (non-appealable) methods of dispute resolution; no process can have two final methods of dispute resolution.

“C - Dispute, change order, termination” is simply in the wrong order. An amicable change order process virtually always takes place, followed by a claim, before the process becomes a dispute. Termination is not (really) a dispute resolution method.

“D - Termination, binding arbitration, dispute review board, change order” is pretty much as backward as it can get. A disputes review board is an alternative, non-binding method of dispute resolution, sometimes implemented in place of mediation or other non-binding dispute resolution method.

67
Q

Allowance amounts are specified in:

A - The Supplementary Conditions
B - The specification section governing the product
C - The Bidding Documents
D - Division 01, General Requirements

Reference: PDPG 13.8.1, PDPG 11.3.16.3, CSI MasterFormat. Also see CSPG 7.5.2; CSPG 7.6.

A

Answer: D - Division 01, General Requirements. Also see CSIs MasterFormat, Section 01 21 00, Allowances.

Answer “B - The specification section governing the product” makes this one a bit tricky, because CSI SectionFormat includes in Part “1 - General”, a provision (often numbered “1.02” for “price and Payment Procedures”, under which is an optional subparagraph, “Allowances”. However, Part “1 - General” of the section in which the Work is specified is not the proper place to indicate the amount of the allowance; rather, this allocation under SectionFormat is intended for: “List products and work included in the section that is covered by quantity allowances or cash amounts. State the actual quantity or cash amounts in Division 01. Descriptions of products and execution may be included in the appropriate Articles of Part 2 and Part 3, and should provide information affecting the cost of the work not included under the allowance, e.g., generic types or sizes affecting installation.” (from CSI SectionFormat, emphasis added)

As worded, this question could still be subject to protest, because Answer “C - Bidding Documents”, is also correct, because the Bidding Documents include the proposed Contract Documents which in turn include Division 01 Specifications. However, for CSI’s exam, always select the best answer which, for this question, is clearly “D - Division 01, General Requirements”.

AIA documents and CSI’s references (including the PDPG and CSPG) do not account for EJCDC’s concept of “contingency allowance”. Although it is common practice to indicate the required amount of a contingency allowance, when used, in both the Bid Form and in Section 01 21 00, Allowances, the best answer for this question remains “D - Division 01, General Requirements”. Remember to answer the exam questions according to CSI’s recommended practices instead of relying on how you “usually do things”.

68
Q

Unless otherwise provided in the contract documents, cash allowances shall include:

A - Handling and storage costs
B - Contractors overhead and profit mark-up
C - Required taxes
D - Labor

Reference: PDPG 13.8.1, EJCDC C-700 Para 13.02.B; AIA A201 Section 3.8. Also see CSPG 7.4.1; CSPG 7.6

A

Answer: C - Required taxes. Also see EJCDC C-700 Para.7.09 and AIA A201 Section 3.6 regarding taxes. This question could be tricky unless one is aware of the different types of allowances: cash allowances, quantity allowances, and (in EJCDC documents only) contingency allowances. A quantity allowance is essentially Unit Price Work and thus includes all the costs listed in the various answer choices presented for this question. Cash allowances, on the other hand, in accordance with AIAA201 and EJCDC C-700, do not include handling and storage costs, Contractor overhead and profit, or installation labor.

69
Q

Which drawings are scaled views of vertical planes?

A - Perspectives
B - Plans
C - Details
D - Elevations

Reference: PDPG 11.2.5

A

Answer: D - Elevations. Answer “A” is incorrect because perspectives are not scaled drawings. Answer “B” is incorrect because plans depict a horizontal plane, not a vertical plane. Answer “C” is incorrect because details can be either to-scale or not-to-scale, schematic, or plans. Answer “D” is correct. Had one of the answer choices been “section views”, it too would be correct.

70
Q

Where are the limits of the Work of each alternate defined?

A - Bid Form
B - Agreement
C - Division 01, General Requirements
D - Sections in Divisions 02-49

Reference: PDPG 13.8.2; CSI MasterFormat; CSI SectionFormat. Also see CSPG 7.5.2; CSPG 7.7 (particularly Figure 7.9)

A

Answer: Either “C - Division 01, General Requirements” or “D - Sections in Divisions 02-49”.

As worded, this question could be contestable because both Answers “C” and “D” are correct. Depending on the alternate and how it is specified in the Contract Documents, the alternate’s limits may be indicated in Specifications Section 01 23 00, Alternates (at Arcadis, it’s “Section 01 23 00, Alternatives”), or its limits may be specified in the associated Specifications section in Divisions 02-49, in the Part “1 - General” article titled, “Price and Payment Procedures”, in the paragraph on alternates (see CSI SectionFormat page SF-10).

71
Q

Which information should not be found on a set of contract drawings?

A - Location
B - Identification
C - Connection details
D - Required quality level

Reference: PDPG 11.2. Also see CSPG 1.8; CSPG 12.11

A

Answer: D - Required quality level. Quality is indicated in the Specifications, not on the Drawings. The location(s) of the Work (Answer “A”) and connection details (Answer “C”) are shown on the Drawings. Answer “B”, Identification, is ill-defined because the Drawings show and identify elements of the Work, but identification requirements are also included in the Specifications.

72
Q

Graphic scales used on construction drawings:

A - Are required for accurate shop drawings
B - Indicate nominal dimensions
C - Remain accurate if drawing is enlarged
D - Are the same as numeric scales

Reference: PDPG 11.2.5.2

A

Answer: C - Remain accurate if drawing is enlarged. While this one is addressed in PDPG 11.2.5.2, hopefully it’s also pretty intuitive. Answer “A” is incorrect because requirements for Shop Drawings differ from project to project. For answer “B”, nominal dimensions are usually written and are therefore not indicated with a scale. Answer “D” is obviously incorrect without further explanation.

73
Q

Preliminary project descriptions are organized according to:

A - Construction trades
B - UniFormat
C - MasterFormat
D - SectionFormat

Reference: PDPG 11.3.8.2 and PDPG 11.3.8.3. Also see CSPG 4.2.2.

A

Answer: B - UniFormat. Answer “A” is incorrect because none of CSI’s format documents are organized according to construction trades. For the intent of MasterFormat and SectionFormat, see, respectively, PDPG 11.3.8.4 and PDPG 11.3.8.5, as well as CSPG 4.2.3 and CSPG 4.2.4, and the introduction sections of CSI MasterFormat and CSI SectionFormat

For more on preliminary project descriptions, also see CSI’s PPDFormat, which is not one of the study materials for CSI’s exams.

74
Q

The primary purpose of CSI MasterFormat is to:

A - Provide a uniform system for the organization of work results or construction practices in project manuals
B - Create a master list of Level 3 and Level 4 section titles
C - Create a system to secure more-accurate bids
D - Establish a coordinated system relating to cost and technical data filing

Reference: CSI MasterFormat or MasterFormat Numbers and Titles; PDPG 11.3.8.4. Also see CSPG 4.2.3

A

Answer: A - Provide a uniform system for the organization of work results or construction practices in project manuals. MasterFormat 2016 edition, “Introduction”, says in part, “MasterFormat® is a master list of numbers and titles identifying work results and construction practices, primarily used to organize project manuals, organize detailed cost information, and relate drawing notations to specifications.”.

The MasterFormat 2016 “Application Guide” section says in part, “The principle application for MasterFormat is titling and arranging the parts of project manuals that contain combinations of procurement requirements, contracting requirements, or construction specifications. Participants in the construction process may use MasterFormat for other applications by adapting the organizing principles to those applications. Examples of applications include organizing information such as construction cost databases, drawing notations in coordination with specifications, collections of technical data, construction market data, and facilities management data.”

However, MasterFormat Numbers and Titles (2016), pg. 1, says, “MasterFormat is the specifications-writing standard for most commercial building design and construction projects in North America. It lists titles and section numbers for organizing data about construction requirements, products, and activities. By standardizing such information, MasterFormat facilitates communication among architects, specifiers, contractors and suppliers, which helps them meet building owners’ requirements, timelines and budgets.”

75
Q

Which levels in CSI MasterFormat have assigned numbers and titles?

A - Levels 1 and 2
B - Levels 2 and 3
C - Levels 1, 2, and 3
D - Levels 2, 3, and 4

Reference: CSI MasterFormat; PDPG 11.3.8.4. Also see CSPG 4.2.3

A

Answer: C - Levels 1, 2, and 3. MasterFormat assigns Levels 1, 2, and 3; however, MasterFormat also includes numerous Level 4 numbers and titles. The key to this question is knowing that, at minimum, MasterFormat assigns Levels 1, 2, and 3. Answer “D” is obviously incorrect because MasterFormat most certainly includes Level 1 assignments; Level 1 is the first two digits of a document number and represents the Division number: 03 30 00, Concrete.

76
Q

CSI MasterFormat key word index is used to:

A - Identify Level 4 sections
B - Specify correct word usage
C - Locate subject titles and numbers
D - Identify specification format

Reference: CSI MasterFormat; PDPG 11.3.8.4. Also see CSPG 4.2.3

A

Answer: C - Locate subject titles and numbers. See CSI MasterFormat’s “Keyword Index” near the back of MasterFormat. The keyword index is specifically not used for locating Level 4 work results/sections. The introductory paragraph to the keyword index says, “The following alphabetical subject list will enable the user of MasterFormat to find a proper location for the construction work results listed in MasterFormat. The references within this index are to MasterFormat Level 2 or Level 3 numbers. They provide a convenient means to bring the user’s attention to the proper grouping of titles.”

The keyword index is not included in the MasterFormat Numbers and Titles document, which is used by many CSI exam registrants for study preparation.

77
Q

UniFormat is most useful for:

A - Specifying small projects
B - Classifying manufacturers data
C - Constructing a project schedule
D - Organizing a preliminary project description

Reference: PDPG 11.1.1; PDPG 11.3.7.2; and UniFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2

A

Answer: D - Organizing a preliminary project description. CSI’s MasterFormat is typically used for the applications referred to in Answers “A”, “B”, and “C”; refer to PDPG 11.3.7.3 and CSPG 4.2.3 regarding MasterFormat applications. Although it is not one of the study materials for CSI’s exams, also see CSI’s PPDFormat document, regarding preliminary project descriptions.

78
Q

MasterFormat numbering is used for which of the following? (Select the correct combination of the following items)

  1. Product identification
  2. Cost estimating
  3. Element identification
  4. Specifications
  5. Filing

A - 1, 2, 3, 4
B - 1, 2, 4, 5
C - 2, 3, 4, 5
D - 1, 3, 4, 5

Reference: MasterFormat; PDPG 11.3.7.3. Also see CSPG 4.2.3

A

Answer: B - 1, 2, 4, 5. Item 3, Element Identification, is an application of CSI’s UniFormat (see PDPG 11.1.1; PDPG 11.3.7.2; and UniFormat and CSPG 4.2); accordingly, Answers “A”, “C”, and “D” are incorrect.

79
Q

Under the three-part SectionFormat where would Accessories be specified?

A - Division 01
B - Part 1 - General
C - Part 2 - Products
D - Part 3 - Execution

Reference: PDPG 11.3.7.4 (particularly Figure 11.13), and SectionFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.4 (particularly Figure 4.3), among other parts of the CSPG

A

Answer: C - Part 2 - Products. Accessories are material items to be furnished, and are therefore part of Part “2 - Products”; certainly materials are not specified in Part “1 - General” (which includes administrative and procedural requirements) or in Part “3 - Execution” which generally includes requirements on how the products specified in Part 2 are to be installed and protected at the Site. See SectionFormat 2007 edition page SF-7 and page SF-22; also see the PDPG and CSEP figures indicated above.

80
Q

Under the three-part SectionFormat where would warranty requirements be specified?

A - Division 01
B - Part 1 - General
C - Part 2 - Products
D - Part 3 - Execution

Reference: PDPG 11.3.7.4 (particularly Figure 11.13), and SectionFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.4 (particularly Figure 4.3), among other parts of the CSPG

A

Answer: B - Part 1 - General. Warranty requirements are administrative in nature (e.g., they are neither product requirements nor execution/site requirements) and hence are specified in Part “1 - General”. See SectionFormat 2007 edition page SF-6 and page SF-19; also see the PDPG and CSPG figures indicated above.

81
Q

Under the three-part SectionFormat where would surface preparation for shop-applied coatings be specified?

A - Division 01
B - Part 1 - General
C - Part 2 - Products
D - Part 3 - Execution

Reference: PDPG 11.3.7.4 (particularly Figure 11.13), and SectionFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.4 (particularly Figure 4.3), among other parts of the CSPG

A

Answer: C - Part 2 - Products. The key to this question are the words, “shop-applied”. Surface preparation is part of the requirements for a finishing (usually painting) system. The application of shop-applied finishes is specified in Part “2 - Products” whereas application requirements for finishes (including, but not limited to painting) performed in the field (at the Site) are specified under Part “3 - Execution”. However, all finishing products, whether shop-applied or field-applied, are specified under Part “2 - Products”. See SectionFormat 2007 edition page SF-7 and page SF-22, under Finishes. Also see the PDPG and CSPG figures indicated above.

82
Q

Under the three-part SectionFormat where would manufacturer’s services be specified?

A - Division 01
B - Part 1 - General
C - Part 2 - Products
D - Part 3 - Execution

Reference: PDPG 11.3.7.4 (particularly Figure 11.13), and SectionFormat. Also see CSPG 4.2.4 (particularly Figure 4.3), among other parts of the CSPG

A

Answer: D - Part 3 - Execution. The key to understanding this question is knowing that “manufacturer’s services” refers to services performed by the manufacturer or their representative at the Site, rather than referring to the actual materials or equipment (“products”) furnished by the manufacturer. Products are, of course, specified under Part “2 - Products”. Manufacturer’s services at the Site are part of the “Field [or Site] Quality Control” Article in Part “3 - Execution”. See SectionFormat 2007 edition page SF-7 and page SF-25, under Field Quality Control. Also see the PDPG and CSPG figures indicated above.

83
Q

Which of the following is not a project delivery system?

A - Design-bid-build
B - Guaranteed maximum price
C - Integrated project delivery
D - Construction manager as contractor

Reference: PDPG 3.3; PDPG Chapter 7: AIA IPD Guide Section 7.

A

Answer: B - Guaranteed maximum price. Both design-bid-build and construction manager as contractor (CMc) are obviously project delivery systems in accordance with the PDPG. Guaranteed maximum price is a method of pricing, not a project delivery method (see PDPG 7.1.6.3 and CCAPG 11.3 and CSPG 5.2). However, whether integrated project delivery (IPD) is considered an actual project delivery system or, alternatively, is merely a set of techniques applied to other delivery systems—as implied in the AIA IPD Guide Section 7 and on the second page of the AIA IPD Guide—could be a matter of opinion, subject to interpretation while use of IPD and its variants increases in the coming years. In contrast, PDPG 7.7 appears to indicate that IPD is, indeed, a distinct project delivery system. Of the possible answer choices provided with this question, Answer “B” is clearly the BEST answer option.

84
Q

Which of the following are well-suited to building information modeling?

1 - Laser scanning
2 - Single-point responsibility
3 - 4D models
4 - Geographic information systems
5 - Rapid resolution of construction claims
6 - Asset management

From the above six items, choose the correct answer from the following:

A - 1, 2, 3
B - 1, 3, 6
C - 3, 4, 5
D - 2, 3, 5

Reference: GSA BIM Modeling Guide Section 2.2.

A

Answer: B - 1, 3, 6 (laser scanning, 4D models, asset management). See the GSA BIM Modeling Guide, Section 2.2, including Figure 5. Also see PDPG 11.2.8.

CSI’s exams, particularly the advanced exams (CCS, CCCA) often include questions organized like this one, which take time to evaluate. The best approach is to deciding which of the six items are NOT true about BIM; in this case, “2 - Single-point responsibility” is incorrect (and is an advantage of the design-build delivery system) relative to BIM, and “5 - Rapid resolution of construction claims” is also either untrue or arguable relative to BIM; thus far there is no evidence that BIM fosters rapid resolution of claims. Items “1”, “3”, “4”, and 6” are all technologies used with and/or uses well-suited to BIM.

Look for patterns in answer choices “A” through “D”. For example, Item “3” is included in all of them and so Item “3” must be well-suited to BIM. Observing the patterns in questions like this can help you determine the correct answer.

85
Q

The Owner’s facility manager has which of these responsibilities?

1 - Planning for the Owner’s future needs
2 - Represent the Owner’s interests.
3 - Reviewing shop drawings
4 - Coordinating Owner-supplied equipment and furnishings such as carpeting

From the above four items, choose the correct answer from the following:

A - 1, 2
B - 2, 3, 4
C - 1, 2, 4
D - 1, 3, 4

Reference: PDPG 14.1 and PDPG 14.2. Also see CCAPG 12.1.

A

Answer: C - 1, 2, 4 (planning for Owner’s future needs, resenting the Owner’s interests, and coordinating Owner-supplied equipment and furnishings)

Item “1” is explicitly the facility manager’s responsibility, in accordance with PDPG 14.2.3.

Item “2” is the facility manager’s responsibility, in accordance with PDPG 14.2.2.

Item “3” is the responsibility of the Contractor and the A/E and, therefore, any answer alternative that includes Item ‘3” is incorrect.

Item “4” is usually the facility manager’s responsibility during project closeout; see PDPG 14.1.2, which states that the facility manager coordinates installation of Owner-furnished products, and implies that the facility manager will often be responsible for coordinating delivery of Owner-furnished products, unless such coordination is explicitly made the responsibility of the Contractor via the Contract Documents.

86
Q

Which of the following is included under the Facilities Services Subgroup?

A - Lighting
B - Irrigation
C - Food service equipment
D - Composting equipment

Reference: MasterFormat; MasterFormat Numbers and Titles; PDPG 11.3.7.3. Also see CSPG 4.2.3

A

Answer: A - Lighting. This question tests your knowledge of the basic organization of CSI’s MasterFormat. Lighting is electrical construction, which is in MasterFormat’s Division 26, Electrical. The “20-series” Divisions include plumbing, fire protection, HVAC, electrical, and three divisions for instrumentation-control-communications, all of which are collectively the “Facility Services Subgroup”. This subgroup name implies that its contents are the “infrastructure” that serves a building or facility from within the building, as opposed to site work infrastructure such as buried waterlines or sewers.

Answer “B - Irrigation” is incorrect because irrigation is in MasterFormat’s Site and Infrastructure Subgroup (“30-series Divisions”). Answer “C - Food service equipment” is incorrect because food service equipment is in Division 11, Equipment, which is in MasterFormat’s Facility Construction Subgroup. Answer “D - Composting equipment” is incorrect because composting equipment is in Division 11 (for equipment at a facility who’s primary purpose is not composting or solid waste handling) and in Division 44, Pollution and Waste Control Control Equipment, in MasterFormat’s Process Equipment Subgroup (“40-series Divisions”).

87
Q

What is green building?

A - The practice of constructing a building or structure with a green roof comprised of plants and underlying nutrient, drainage, and moisture barrier layers, which reduces solar heat reflection and reduces storm water runoff rates
B - The practice of using plants to cover a building’s exterior envelope to better-blend with the surrounding natural environment
C - The practice of creating structures and using processes that are environmentally responsible and resource-efficient throughout a building’s life-cycle
D - O’Beirne’s un-vacuumed office space

Reference: USEPA’s “About Green Buildings”. Also see PDPG 9.10

A

Answer: C - The practice of creating structures and using processes that are environmentally responsible and resource-efficient throughout a building’s life-cycle. This definition is on page 1 of the USEPA “About Green Buildings” document.

Answer “A” describes a green roof system, not “green building”. Answer “B” is just plain wrong and is closer to the definition of camouflage rather than “green building”. While Answer “D” is probably true, it will most likely not be on the exam.

88
Q

During what project stage would constructability be reviewed?

A - Project Conception Stage
B - Design Stage/Conceptual-Schematic Design Phase
C - Design Stage/when sufficient details are available but prior to completion of Construction Documents Phase
D - Design Stage/Construction Documents Phase
E - Procurement Stage
F - Construction Stage
G - Facility Management Stage

Reference: PDPG 11.7

A

Answer: C - Design Stage/when sufficient information is available but prior to completion of Construction Documents Phase
Obviously, it is to the Project’s benefit to have its constructability evaluated prior to completion of the Construction Documents Phase—preferably much earlier. In actual practice, however, it is always worthwhile to, when possible, bear constructability in mind throughout the Project’s Conception Stage and all phases of the Design Stage.

A prior edition of the PDPG assigned constructability reviews to a specific phase of the design. CSI has correctly changed its thinking about constructability reviews.

89
Q

In what stage are the budget and program produced?

A - Project Conception Stage
B - Design Stage/Conceptual-Schematic Design Phase
C - Design Stage/Design Development Phase
D - Design Stage/Construction Documents Phase
E - Procurement Phase
F - Construction Phase
G - Facility Management Phase

Reference: PDPG 8.1 and 8.2

A

Answer: A - Project Conception. See PDPG 8.1 and 8.2. Having a good understanding of what decisions on a project are made at appropriate times in the CSI-defined project life cycle is worth several points on the CDT exam.

90
Q

If bid security is required with a bid for a publicly-funded project, and the apparent low bidder does not submit appropriate bid security with their bid, the Owner should do which of the following?

A - Not accept any Bids and rebid the entire Project
B - Give the apparent low Bidder 24 hours to submit bid security in accordance with the Bidding Documents
C - Deem the Bid unresponsive and consider accepting the next-lowest Bid
D - Contact the surety usually used by the apparent low Bidder to request a copy of the Bidder’s status with that particular surety

Reference: PDPG 13.4.2.13 and PDPG 13.4.3 (for public bidding)

A

Answer: C - Deem the bid unresponsive and consider accepting the next-lowest bid. To reduce the potential for bid protests, the Owner should enforce and strictly comply with the provisions of the Instructions to Bidders in the Bidding Documents. A Bid is non-responsive when it omits a substantive element, such as bid security (e.g., bid bond or other form of acceptable bid security), when bid security is required by the Bidding Documents. Failure to include the required bid security with the Bid may indicate that the Bidder does not have a surety and would therefore be unable to furnish the required performance bond and payment bond simultaneous with signing the Owner-Contractor Agreement.

In the scenario presented in this question, Answer “C” is the best answer. Answer “A” is also within the Owner’s rights, but there is no requirement that the Owner reject all Bids and incur the substantial delays and expenses associated with rebidding the Project because one Bid was non-responsive.

Answer “B” is incorrect because it is contrary to the requirements of the standard Instructions to Bidders (such as EJCDC C-200—2013 and AIA A701—1997, neither of which are source material for any of CSI’s exams) and is unfair to those Bidders who submitted responsive Bids. Answer “D” is incorrect for obvious reasons: the Owner may not be aware of the Bidder’s current status with any surety and, even if the Owner was able to determine the Bidder’s status with its surety, such information does nothing to address the matter of who should be awarded the Contract.

See PDPG 13.4.2.13 which indicates that a Bid not accompanied by all the required bid supplements, such as bid security, is non-responsive, which are typically grounds for not awarding the Contract to that Bidder. Also see EJCDC C-200—2013, Instructions to Bidders (Arcadis US Water’s Standard Document 00 21 13), Article 8 and Article 15, and see AIA A701—1997, Instructions to Bidders, Sections 4.2 and 5.2.

91
Q

Which of the following is false regarding building information modeling (BIM)?

A - BIM includes three-dimensional modeling of the project
B - BIM is a data rich digital representation cataloging the physical and functional characteristics of design and construction
C - BIM makes the design information explicit and allows rapid understanding of the design intent
D - BIM is suitable only for the design-bid-build project delivery method

Reference: PDPG 11.2.9.

A

Answer: D - BIM is suitable only for the design-bid-build project delivery system. Answers “A”, “B”, and “C” are all true statements about BIM. For more information on BIM, see the GSA’s BIM Modeling Guide (formerly—but no longer—source material for the CDT exam); see its “Forward”, Section 1.0, and Section 1.1. Even though the GSA BIM Modeling Guide is no longer source material for the CDT exam, this question is—in the modern day of design documents and BIM use—nearly intuitive.

In contrast, Answer “D” is a false statement, and therefore is the correct answer, because BIM can be used with various project delivery methods. In fact, integrated project delivery (IPD) as a newer type of project delivery, particularly the “single purpose entity” approach of IPD, was created in part as a project delivery method ideally suited to the legal challenges posed by interactively sharing the BIM throughout a project’s various stages. Conversely, while BIM can and is used on design-bid-build projects, design-bid-build is perhaps less well-suited to BIM than other delivery methods because of the territorial, partisan contractual relationships inherent in design-bid-build. To fully realize its technological potential, BIM is best used in a collaborative project delivery method such as IPD.

BONUS INFORMATION NOT FOR THE EXAM: In actual practice today, relatively few A/Es are fully sharing building information models with construction contractors, let alone with construction subcontractors and suppliers, due to, among other things, concerns about the A/E’s professional liability and professional licensure. When IPD and BIM are taken to their ultimate potential, all parties on the project have access to the BIM throughout the project and can modify and update it. When anyone other than the A/E’s personnel acting under the direct, personal supervision and control of the design-professional-of-record, modifies the design expressed in the Contract Documents (which may be the BIM itself), questions of professional liability arise, as does the question of whether such changes were made under the personal control and supervision of the design-professional-of-record, as required by each state’s professional licensing statutes. In other words, who has the professional liability (and valid licensure) for changing the Contract Documents/BIM during construction? The answer is unclear and, to date, has not yet been sufficiently tested in the courts. Accordingly, many A/Es may be reluctant to fully share BIM with other project participants until there is more case law on BIM and IPD. It is unlikely that it will move to “full collaboration” without changes in statutes to significantly weaken professional licensing statutes.

92
Q

Disclaimer

A

Priscilla Lee is not responsible for any errors or omissions, or for the results obtained from the use of the information in the flashcards. All information in these flashcards is provided “as is”, with no guarantee of completeness, accuracy, timeliness or of the results obtained from the use of this information.