Chp 15 Musculoskeletal Flashcards
1
Q
bones, muscles, and joints in the body make up the ______ system.
A
musculoskeletal
2
Q
structural support and protection of internal organs
A
bones
3
Q
internal and external movement is dictated by _____.
A
muscles
4
Q
where bones come together, the type is determined by need for flexibility
A
joints
5
Q
bind muscles to bones
A
tendons
6
Q
bone to bone connection
A
ligamentt
7
Q
replacement of cartilage with bone
A
ossification
8
Q
a cell that produces immature bony tissue that replaces cartilage
A
osteoblast
9
Q
a cell that nourishes and maintains bone
A
osteocyte
10
Q
a cell that reabsorbs or digests bone
A
osteoclast
11
Q
proper bone formation of bone depends on (3 minerals)
A
- Calcium
- Phosphorus
- Vit D
12
Q
what enzyme helps create hard bone?
A
Calcium phosphate enzyme
13
Q
the skeleton is a source of ______. (mineral)
A
calcium
14
Q
what two cells work together to deposit and tear down bone throughout life
A
osteoclasts and osteoblasts
15
Q
calcium is necessary for ____ ______ to muscle, including heart muscle and muscles attached to bones.
A
nerve transmittal
16
Q
Calcium level is maintained in the _____ by the ______ gland.
A
blood, parathyroid gland.
17
Q
what gland secretes a hormone to release calcium from bone?
A
parathyroid gland
18
Q
the diaphysis of the bone refers to the _____ (what area)
A
shaft
19
Q
the epiphysis of the bone refers to the _____ (what area)
A
ends
20
Q
cone like flared portion between the end and the shaft of the bone is called
A
metaphysis
21
Q
A
22
Q
growth plate where cartilage is replaced by bone for bone growth (in length)
A
epiphyseal line/plate
23
Q
the ends of the bone are covered by ______ cartilage (what kind of cartilage)
A
articular cartilage
24
Q
what kind of bone contains haversian systems for blood vessels, nerves, and yellow bone marrow
A
compact bone
25
what type of bone has spaces that contain red bone marrow with elements for blood formation
cancellous
26
what type of bone marrow is chiefly fat
yellow
27
what kind of bone marrow is rich with blood vessels and immature and mature blood cells in various stages of development
red
28
what is the production of all types of blood cells in the bone marrow
hematopoiesis
29
what serves as attachments for muscles, tendons, and ligaments
processes
30
what bone structure has openings or hollow regions to help join bones or serve as passageways for nerves or vessels
depressions
31
what is located in facial and cranial bone and lighten the skull and warm and moisten the air as it passes into the resp system
air cavities (sinuses)
32
26 bone segment from base of skull to tail bone, has five divisions and is separated by intervertebral discs
vertebrae
33
rounded depression in pelvis that joins the femur, forming the hip joint
acetabulum
34
outward extension of shoulder blade forming the point of the shoulder
acromion
35
dense, hard connective tissue composing the skeleton
bone
36
flexible, connective tissue
cartilage
37
dense connective tissue protein strands found in bone and other tissues
collagen
38
soft spot between the skull bones of an infant
fontanelle
39
opening of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes
foramen magnum
40
minute spaces filled with blood vessels, found in compact bone
haverisan canals
41
round process on both sides of the ankle joint
malleolus
42
upper portion of sternum
manubrium
43
round projection on temporal bone behind the ear
mastoid process
44
central hollowed out area in the shaft of a long bone
medullary cavity
45
large process on the proximal end of the ulna
olecranon
46
membrane surrounding bones, rich in blood vessels and nerve tissue
periosteum
47
area of confluence of the two pubic bones in pelviss
pubic symphysis
48
depression in sphenoid bone where pituitary gland is located
sella turcica
49
pole like process extending downward from temporal bone on each side of skull
styloid process
50
immovable joint between bones
suture
51
connection on either side of the head between temporal bone and mandibular bone
temporomandibular joint
52
supporting bundles of bony fibers in cancellous bone
trabeculae
53
lower, narrow portion of sternum
xiphoid process
54
what type of muscle is under voluntary control and moves all bones as well as facial and eye
striated
55
what type of muscle is involuntary and moves internal organs (not heart)
smooth
56
what type of muscle is not consciously controlled and found exclusively in the heart
cardiac
57
movement away from midline
abduction
58
movement toward midline
adduction
59
upper movement of foot
dorsiflexion
60
straightening of a flexed limb
extension
61
fibrous membrane separating and enveloping muscles
fascia
62
downward movement of the foot
flexion
63
connection of muscle to a bone that moves
insertion of a muscle
64
connection of muscle to stationary bone
origin of muscle
65
bending the sole of the foot downward toward the ground
plantar flexion
66
turning the palm down
pronation
67
circular movement around a central point
rotation
68
muscle connected to bone, voluntary or striated muscle
skeletal muscle
69
visceral muscle (which type of muscle)
smooth muscle
70
skeletal muscle (which type of muscle)
striated
71
turning palm up
supination
72
what is a malignant bone tumor arising in medullary tissue
ewing sarcoma
73
what type of sarcoma have symptoms such as pain, swelling of extremities, fever and leukocytosis?
ewing sarcoma
74
ewing sarcoma is more common in ____
males
75
when is the peak age for ewing sarcoma?
10-20
76
how do you treat ewing sarcoma (2)?
1. surgery
2. chemotherapy
77
bony growth arising from the surface of the bone
exostosis
78
what is the most common type of exostosis
bunion
79
where does swelling occur in a bunion?
metatarsophalangeal joint, near base of great toe
80
how does someone get bunions?
wearing improper shoes
81
Tx Exostosis (bunion)
bunionectomy
82
break in bone or bones
fracture
83
what type of fracture: no open wound
closed fx
84
what type of fracture: open wound
open fx
85
what type of fracture: distal radial fracture
Colles fx
86
what type of fracture: bone is in multiple pieces
comminuted fx
87
what type of fracture: bone collapses
compression fx
88
what type of fracture: bone is partially broken
Greenstick fx
89
what type of fracture: one fragmnet driven into another
impacted fx
90
what type of fracture: twisting injury, most common is the tibia
spiral fx
91
reduction of a fracture can either be ____ or ______.
open or closed
92
malignant tumor arising from the bone
osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)
93
what area of the long bones does osteosarcoma typically occur?
metaphyseal region of long bone
94
Symptoms of osteosarcoma (3)
1. pain (with weight bearing)
2. mass
3. fracture (minor trauma)
95
where does osteosarcoma commonly metastasize?
lungs
96
what is the age distribution for osteosarcoma called (it affects adolescents and <65 y/o)
bimodal age distributtion
97
excess organic bone matrix secondary to defective or inadequate bone mineralization, known as rickets in children.
osteomalacia
98
osteomalacia usually affects the ____ population
older
99
what are the deficiencies in osteomalacia? (what minerals are hyper/hypo?)
1. increased alkaline phosphatase
2. low serum calcium
100
what are symptoms of osteomalacia? (3)
1. bone pain
2. tenderness
3. muscle weakness
101
cause of osteomalacia vitamin D deficiency (how do people get Vit D deficiency) (3)
1. decreased sunlight exposure
2. poor nutrition
3. drug induced - dilantin
102
acute or chronic infection of hte bone and its structures caused by bacteria
osteomyelitis
103
how can the osteomyelitis infection be acquired? (3)
1. hematogenous
2. contagious
3. direct inoculation (trauma or surgery)
104
osteomyelitis infection is commonly seen in
older adults
105
signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis (5)
1. abrupt onset of fever
2. irritability
3. restriction of movement in involved extremity
4. local inflammation / joint destruction
5. malaise
106
106
multifactorial skeletal disease characterized by severe bone loss
osteoporosis
107
where are the most common atraumatic fractures seen in osteoporosis pts (6)
1. vertebral column
2. upper femur
3. distal radius
4. proximal humerus
5. pubic rami
6. ribs
108
signs and symptoms in osteoporosis (4)
1. back pain
2. kyphosis
3. scoliosis
3. atraumatic fx
4. loss of height
109
what are the risk factors for osteoporosis?
1. malnourishment / malabsorption
2. immobilization
3. smoking
4. caffeine
5. excess thyroid hormone
110
osteoporosis is most common in
postmenopausal asian and caucasian women
111
congenital abnormality of the hind of foot, also known as club foot
talipes
112
in talipes the patient cannot stand with the __(part of foot)__ of the foot flat on the ground
sole
113
a chronic, progressive condition which inflammatory changes and new bone formation occurs at attachment of tendons and ligaments to bone is known as
Ankylosing Spondylitis
114
what joint involvement is the hallmark of ankylosing spondylitis?
sacroiliac joint
115
what are signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis? (4)
1. subgluteal / low back pain
2. morning stiffness, awake at night from stiffness
3. pleuritic chest pain
4. loss of lumbar lordosis
116
when do S/S usually occur for ankylosing spondylitis?
early 20s, last >3 months
117
inflammatory reaction to urate crystal in joints, bones, and subcutaneous structures is known as
gout
118
what is the predominant age to get gout?
30-60 YO, males > females
119
Signs and Symptoms of Gout include (4)
1. pain/swell/redness/warmth
2. tenderness (extreme)
3. Propensity for first MTP joint
4. recurrent attacks last long/occur more frequently
120
what is the most common form of joint disease that involves progressive loss of articular cartilage and reactive changes at joint margins and in subchondral bone?
Osteoarthritis (OA)
121
what is the predominant age for OA, what age does this disease cause a disability most often?
>40, 65
122
do males or females get OA more?
equal, haha trick question
123
signs and symptoms of OA? (5)
1. slow developing joint pain, pain with use
2. morning stiffness
3. joint enlargement
4. decreased ROM
5. creptius = LATE sign, NO tenderness
124
what is joint enlargement symptoms known as in OA?
Heberben's node of DIP
125
chronic systemis inflammatory disease of unknown etiology with a predilection for joint involvement is known as?
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
126
are women or men more affected by RA?
women
127
signs and symptoms of RA? (5)
1. swelling
2. joint deformities
3. joint destruction occurs earlier
4. pain with ROM
5. morning stiffness
128
what joints are most oftenly involved in RA? (5)
1. wrist
2. knee
3. elbow
4. shoulder
5. ankle
129
the most common cause of peripheral nerve compression is known as?
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)
130
what nerve is compressed as it traverses the carpal tunnel in the wrist/hand in CTS
median nerve
131
what is the "tunnel" comprised of in the carpal tunnel?
carpal bones dorsally, transverse carpal ligament ventrally (contains flexor tendons and median nerve)
132
what hand do symptoms affect most?
dominant
133
what are signs and symptoms of CTS?
1. tingling sensation in fingers
2. burning pain (relieved by hand movement)
3. tinel's sign positive
4. phalens sign positive
134
displacement of bone from its joint is known as
dislocation
135
common locations for a dislocation are (3)
1. acromioclavicular
2. shoulder
3. hip
136
restoration of bones to normal positions is known as
reduction
137
partial or incomplete dislocation is known as
subluxation
138
fluid filled cyst arising from the joint capsule or tendon is known as
ganglion
139
where are ganglions most common?
wrist
140
do we know where ganglions come from?
no, unknown etiology
141
abnormal protrusion of a fibrocartilagenous intervertebral disc into the neural canal or spinal canal is known as
herniation of intervertebral disc
142
most common herniation of intervertebral disc is known as
posterolateral herniation
143
mutli-system infection caused by spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is known as
Lyme disease
144
how is lymes disease most commonly transmitted?
lxoid ticks
145
stage 1 of Lyme's disease shows as (2 signs/ymptoms)
1. erythema migrans rash (bullseye)
2. flu-like symptoms
146
stage 2 lymes disease shows as (1 sign/symptom)
1. one or more organ system not working to fullest capability (ex. neuro 15%, cardiac 8%)
147
stage 3 lymes disease shows with
1. chronic arthritis
2. neurologic symptoms
148
risk factors to lymes disease includes
exposure to tick infected area from May-September
149
an injury to the ligaments around a joint is known as
sprain
150
multi-system, autoimmune inflammatory condition characterized by a fluctuating chronic course is known as
Systemic Lupus Erthematosus (SLE)
151
signs and symptoms SLE (a literal gazillion)
1. arthritis
2. fever
3. anorexia
4. malaise
5. weight loss
6. skin lesion
7. oral ulcers
8. eye pain
9. chest pain/SOB
10. pallor
11. Malar Rash
12. Photosensitivity
152
inherited progressive diseases of muscle with wide ranges of clinical expression is known as
muscular dystrophy
153
signs and symptoms of muscular dystropy? (3)
1. motor dysfunction
2. muscle weakness
3. muscle atrophy
154
what is the most common type of muscular dystrophy?
Duchene muscular dystrophy
155
systemic connective tissue disease characterized by inflammatory and degenerative changes in proximal muscles sometime accompanied by a characteristic skin rash is known as
polymyositis
156
signs and symptoms of polymyositis (6)
1. symmetrical proximal muscle weakness (difficult when sitting/standing)
2. difficulty with movement
3. joint pain
4. swelling
5. dysphagia
6. respiratory impairment
157
what is it called when a needle is inserted into a joint in order to remove fluid
arthrocentesis
158
what is the purpose of a arthrocentesis?
removal of fluid to decrease symptoms of pain and improve mobility in joint.
also to diagnose
159
the radiographic exam of a joint after injecting dye-like contrast material and/or air to outline the soft tissue and joint structures on the images is known as
arthrography
160
the operation for construction of a new moveable joint is known as
arthroplasty
161
what are the the three types of arthroplasty
1. excision arthroplasty
2. half-joint replacement arthroplasty
3. total replacement arthroplasty
162
the visual exam of the interior of the joints with special surgical instruments is known as
arthroscopy
163
dual energy absorptiometry used to measure bone density is known as
DEXA, bone densitometry scan
164
why are DEXA scans preferred?
precision, low radiation exposure
165
Bone density scans are reported with two types of scores, what are they?
T and Z scores
166
what score is known as number of standard deviations for patient compared to normal
T score
167
what score is defined as number of SDs fro pt compared to normal
Z score
168
what type of scan is a nuclear scanning test that identifies new areas of bone growth or breakdown
bone scan
169
bone scans can detect problems _____ to _____ earlier than X ray
days to months
170
a test that assesses the health of the muscles and nerves controlling the muscles. Electrode is inserted into muscle
electromyography (EMG)
171
what type of diseases do muscle biopsies identify?
neuromuscular disease
172
used to image tendons, muscle, joints and often used with joint injections to visualize proper site for injection and or aspiration is known as
musculoskeletal US
