Chp 15 Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

bones, muscles, and joints in the body make up the ______ system.

A

musculoskeletal

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2
Q

structural support and protection of internal organs

A

bones

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3
Q

internal and external movement is dictated by _____.

A

muscles

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4
Q

where bones come together, the type is determined by need for flexibility

A

joints

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5
Q

bind muscles to bones

A

tendons

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6
Q

bone to bone connection

A

ligamentt

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7
Q

replacement of cartilage with bone

A

ossification

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8
Q

a cell that produces immature bony tissue that replaces cartilage

A

osteoblast

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9
Q

a cell that nourishes and maintains bone

A

osteocyte

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10
Q

a cell that reabsorbs or digests bone

A

osteoclast

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11
Q

proper bone formation of bone depends on (3 minerals)

A
  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Vit D
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12
Q

what enzyme helps create hard bone?

A

Calcium phosphate enzyme

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13
Q

the skeleton is a source of ______. (mineral)

A

calcium

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14
Q

what two cells work together to deposit and tear down bone throughout life

A

osteoclasts and osteoblasts

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15
Q

calcium is necessary for ____ ______ to muscle, including heart muscle and muscles attached to bones.

A

nerve transmittal

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16
Q

Calcium level is maintained in the _____ by the ______ gland.

A

blood, parathyroid gland.

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17
Q

what gland secretes a hormone to release calcium from bone?

A

parathyroid gland

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18
Q

the diaphysis of the bone refers to the _____ (what area)

A

shaft

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19
Q

the epiphysis of the bone refers to the _____ (what area)

A

ends

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20
Q

cone like flared portion between the end and the shaft of the bone is called

A

metaphysis

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21
Q
A
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22
Q

growth plate where cartilage is replaced by bone for bone growth (in length)

A

epiphyseal line/plate

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23
Q

the ends of the bone are covered by ______ cartilage (what kind of cartilage)

A

articular cartilage

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24
Q

what kind of bone contains haversian systems for blood vessels, nerves, and yellow bone marrow

A

compact bone

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25
Q

what type of bone has spaces that contain red bone marrow with elements for blood formation

A

cancellous

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26
Q

what type of bone marrow is chiefly fat

A

yellow

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27
Q

what kind of bone marrow is rich with blood vessels and immature and mature blood cells in various stages of development

A

red

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28
Q

what is the production of all types of blood cells in the bone marrow

A

hematopoiesis

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29
Q

what serves as attachments for muscles, tendons, and ligaments

A

processes

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30
Q

what bone structure has openings or hollow regions to help join bones or serve as passageways for nerves or vessels

A

depressions

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31
Q

what is located in facial and cranial bone and lighten the skull and warm and moisten the air as it passes into the resp system

A

air cavities (sinuses)

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32
Q

26 bone segment from base of skull to tail bone, has five divisions and is separated by intervertebral discs

A

vertebrae

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33
Q

rounded depression in pelvis that joins the femur, forming the hip joint

A

acetabulum

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34
Q

outward extension of shoulder blade forming the point of the shoulder

A

acromion

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35
Q

dense, hard connective tissue composing the skeleton

A

bone

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36
Q

flexible, connective tissue

A

cartilage

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37
Q

dense connective tissue protein strands found in bone and other tissues

A

collagen

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38
Q

soft spot between the skull bones of an infant

A

fontanelle

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39
Q

opening of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes

A

foramen magnum

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40
Q

minute spaces filled with blood vessels, found in compact bone

A

haverisan canals

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41
Q

round process on both sides of the ankle joint

A

malleolus

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42
Q

upper portion of sternum

A

manubrium

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43
Q

round projection on temporal bone behind the ear

A

mastoid process

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44
Q

central hollowed out area in the shaft of a long bone

A

medullary cavity

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45
Q

large process on the proximal end of the ulna

A

olecranon

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46
Q

membrane surrounding bones, rich in blood vessels and nerve tissue

A

periosteum

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47
Q

area of confluence of the two pubic bones in pelviss

A

pubic symphysis

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48
Q

depression in sphenoid bone where pituitary gland is located

A

sella turcica

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49
Q

pole like process extending downward from temporal bone on each side of skull

A

styloid process

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50
Q

immovable joint between bones

A

suture

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51
Q

connection on either side of the head between temporal bone and mandibular bone

A

temporomandibular joint

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52
Q

supporting bundles of bony fibers in cancellous bone

A

trabeculae

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53
Q

lower, narrow portion of sternum

A

xiphoid process

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54
Q

what type of muscle is under voluntary control and moves all bones as well as facial and eye

A

striated

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55
Q

what type of muscle is involuntary and moves internal organs (not heart)

A

smooth

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56
Q

what type of muscle is not consciously controlled and found exclusively in the heart

A

cardiac

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57
Q

movement away from midline

A

abduction

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58
Q

movement toward midline

A

adduction

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59
Q

upper movement of foot

A

dorsiflexion

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60
Q

straightening of a flexed limb

A

extension

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61
Q

fibrous membrane separating and enveloping muscles

A

fascia

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62
Q

downward movement of the foot

A

flexion

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63
Q

connection of muscle to a bone that moves

A

insertion of a muscle

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64
Q

connection of muscle to stationary bone

A

origin of muscle

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65
Q

bending the sole of the foot downward toward the ground

A

plantar flexion

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66
Q

turning the palm down

A

pronation

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67
Q

circular movement around a central point

A

rotation

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68
Q

muscle connected to bone, voluntary or striated muscle

A

skeletal muscle

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69
Q

visceral muscle (which type of muscle)

A

smooth muscle

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70
Q

skeletal muscle (which type of muscle)

71
Q

turning palm up

A

supination

72
Q

what is a malignant bone tumor arising in medullary tissue

A

ewing sarcoma

73
Q

what type of sarcoma have symptoms such as pain, swelling of extremities, fever and leukocytosis?

A

ewing sarcoma

74
Q

ewing sarcoma is more common in ____

75
Q

when is the peak age for ewing sarcoma?

76
Q

how do you treat ewing sarcoma (2)?

A
  1. surgery
  2. chemotherapy
77
Q

bony growth arising from the surface of the bone

78
Q

what is the most common type of exostosis

79
Q

where does swelling occur in a bunion?

A

metatarsophalangeal joint, near base of great toe

80
Q

how does someone get bunions?

A

wearing improper shoes

81
Q

Tx Exostosis (bunion)

A

bunionectomy

82
Q

break in bone or bones

83
Q

what type of fracture: no open wound

84
Q

what type of fracture: open wound

85
Q

what type of fracture: distal radial fracture

86
Q

what type of fracture: bone is in multiple pieces

A

comminuted fx

87
Q

what type of fracture: bone collapses

A

compression fx

88
Q

what type of fracture: bone is partially broken

A

Greenstick fx

89
Q

what type of fracture: one fragmnet driven into another

A

impacted fx

90
Q

what type of fracture: twisting injury, most common is the tibia

91
Q

reduction of a fracture can either be ____ or ______.

A

open or closed

92
Q

malignant tumor arising from the bone

A

osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)

93
Q

what area of the long bones does osteosarcoma typically occur?

A

metaphyseal region of long bone

94
Q

Symptoms of osteosarcoma (3)

A
  1. pain (with weight bearing)
  2. mass
  3. fracture (minor trauma)
95
Q

where does osteosarcoma commonly metastasize?

96
Q

what is the age distribution for osteosarcoma called (it affects adolescents and <65 y/o)

A

bimodal age distributtion

97
Q

excess organic bone matrix secondary to defective or inadequate bone mineralization, known as rickets in children.

A

osteomalacia

98
Q

osteomalacia usually affects the ____ population

99
Q

what are the deficiencies in osteomalacia? (what minerals are hyper/hypo?)

A
  1. increased alkaline phosphatase
  2. low serum calcium
100
Q

what are symptoms of osteomalacia? (3)

A
  1. bone pain
  2. tenderness
  3. muscle weakness
101
Q

cause of osteomalacia vitamin D deficiency (how do people get Vit D deficiency) (3)

A
  1. decreased sunlight exposure
  2. poor nutrition
  3. drug induced - dilantin
102
Q

acute or chronic infection of hte bone and its structures caused by bacteria

A

osteomyelitis

103
Q

how can the osteomyelitis infection be acquired? (3)

A
  1. hematogenous
  2. contagious
  3. direct inoculation (trauma or surgery)
104
Q

osteomyelitis infection is commonly seen in

A

older adults

105
Q

signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis (5)

A
  1. abrupt onset of fever
  2. irritability
  3. restriction of movement in involved extremity
  4. local inflammation / joint destruction
  5. malaise
106
Q

multifactorial skeletal disease characterized by severe bone loss

A

osteoporosis

107
Q

where are the most common atraumatic fractures seen in osteoporosis pts (6)

A
  1. vertebral column
  2. upper femur
  3. distal radius
  4. proximal humerus
  5. pubic rami
  6. ribs
108
Q

signs and symptoms in osteoporosis (4)

A
  1. back pain
  2. kyphosis
  3. scoliosis
  4. atraumatic fx
  5. loss of height
109
Q

what are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  1. malnourishment / malabsorption
  2. immobilization
  3. smoking
  4. caffeine
  5. excess thyroid hormone
110
Q

osteoporosis is most common in

A

postmenopausal asian and caucasian women

111
Q

congenital abnormality of the hind of foot, also known as club foot

112
Q

in talipes the patient cannot stand with the __(part of foot)__ of the foot flat on the ground

113
Q

a chronic, progressive condition which inflammatory changes and new bone formation occurs at attachment of tendons and ligaments to bone is known as

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

114
Q

what joint involvement is the hallmark of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

sacroiliac joint

115
Q

what are signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis? (4)

A
  1. subgluteal / low back pain
  2. morning stiffness, awake at night from stiffness
  3. pleuritic chest pain
  4. loss of lumbar lordosis
116
Q

when do S/S usually occur for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

early 20s, last >3 months

117
Q

inflammatory reaction to urate crystal in joints, bones, and subcutaneous structures is known as

118
Q

what is the predominant age to get gout?

A

30-60 YO, males > females

119
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Gout include (4)

A
  1. pain/swell/redness/warmth
  2. tenderness (extreme)
  3. Propensity for first MTP joint
  4. recurrent attacks last long/occur more frequently
120
Q

what is the most common form of joint disease that involves progressive loss of articular cartilage and reactive changes at joint margins and in subchondral bone?

A

Osteoarthritis (OA)

121
Q

what is the predominant age for OA, what age does this disease cause a disability most often?

122
Q

do males or females get OA more?

A

equal, haha trick question

123
Q

signs and symptoms of OA? (5)

A
  1. slow developing joint pain, pain with use
  2. morning stiffness
  3. joint enlargement
  4. decreased ROM
  5. creptius = LATE sign, NO tenderness
124
Q

what is joint enlargement symptoms known as in OA?

A

Heberben’s node of DIP

125
Q

chronic systemis inflammatory disease of unknown etiology with a predilection for joint involvement is known as?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

126
Q

are women or men more affected by RA?

127
Q

signs and symptoms of RA? (5)

A
  1. swelling
  2. joint deformities
  3. joint destruction occurs earlier
  4. pain with ROM
  5. morning stiffness
128
Q

what joints are most oftenly involved in RA? (5)

A
  1. wrist
  2. knee
  3. elbow
  4. shoulder
  5. ankle
129
Q

the most common cause of peripheral nerve compression is known as?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)

130
Q

what nerve is compressed as it traverses the carpal tunnel in the wrist/hand in CTS

A

median nerve

131
Q

what is the “tunnel” comprised of in the carpal tunnel?

A

carpal bones dorsally, transverse carpal ligament ventrally (contains flexor tendons and median nerve)

132
Q

what hand do symptoms affect most?

133
Q

what are signs and symptoms of CTS?

A
  1. tingling sensation in fingers
  2. burning pain (relieved by hand movement)
  3. tinel’s sign positive
  4. phalens sign positive
134
Q

displacement of bone from its joint is known as

A

dislocation

135
Q

common locations for a dislocation are (3)

A
  1. acromioclavicular
  2. shoulder
  3. hip
136
Q

restoration of bones to normal positions is known as

137
Q

partial or incomplete dislocation is known as

A

subluxation

138
Q

fluid filled cyst arising from the joint capsule or tendon is known as

139
Q

where are ganglions most common?

140
Q

do we know where ganglions come from?

A

no, unknown etiology

141
Q

abnormal protrusion of a fibrocartilagenous intervertebral disc into the neural canal or spinal canal is known as

A

herniation of intervertebral disc

142
Q

most common herniation of intervertebral disc is known as

A

posterolateral herniation

143
Q

mutli-system infection caused by spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is known as

A

Lyme disease

144
Q

how is lymes disease most commonly transmitted?

A

lxoid ticks

145
Q

stage 1 of Lyme’s disease shows as (2 signs/ymptoms)

A
  1. erythema migrans rash (bullseye)
  2. flu-like symptoms
146
Q

stage 2 lymes disease shows as (1 sign/symptom)

A
  1. one or more organ system not working to fullest capability (ex. neuro 15%, cardiac 8%)
147
Q

stage 3 lymes disease shows with

A
  1. chronic arthritis
  2. neurologic symptoms
148
Q

risk factors to lymes disease includes

A

exposure to tick infected area from May-September

149
Q

an injury to the ligaments around a joint is known as

150
Q

multi-system, autoimmune inflammatory condition characterized by a fluctuating chronic course is known as

A

Systemic Lupus Erthematosus (SLE)

151
Q

signs and symptoms SLE (a literal gazillion)

A
  1. arthritis
  2. fever
  3. anorexia
  4. malaise
  5. weight loss
  6. skin lesion
  7. oral ulcers
  8. eye pain
  9. chest pain/SOB
  10. pallor
  11. Malar Rash
  12. Photosensitivity
152
Q

inherited progressive diseases of muscle with wide ranges of clinical expression is known as

A

muscular dystrophy

153
Q

signs and symptoms of muscular dystropy? (3)

A
  1. motor dysfunction
  2. muscle weakness
  3. muscle atrophy
154
Q

what is the most common type of muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchene muscular dystrophy

155
Q

systemic connective tissue disease characterized by inflammatory and degenerative changes in proximal muscles sometime accompanied by a characteristic skin rash is known as

A

polymyositis

156
Q

signs and symptoms of polymyositis (6)

A
  1. symmetrical proximal muscle weakness (difficult when sitting/standing)
  2. difficulty with movement
  3. joint pain
  4. swelling
  5. dysphagia
  6. respiratory impairment
157
Q

what is it called when a needle is inserted into a joint in order to remove fluid

A

arthrocentesis

158
Q

what is the purpose of a arthrocentesis?

A

removal of fluid to decrease symptoms of pain and improve mobility in joint.
also to diagnose

159
Q

the radiographic exam of a joint after injecting dye-like contrast material and/or air to outline the soft tissue and joint structures on the images is known as

A

arthrography

160
Q

the operation for construction of a new moveable joint is known as

A

arthroplasty

161
Q

what are the the three types of arthroplasty

A
  1. excision arthroplasty
  2. half-joint replacement arthroplasty
  3. total replacement arthroplasty
162
Q

the visual exam of the interior of the joints with special surgical instruments is known as

A

arthroscopy

163
Q

dual energy absorptiometry used to measure bone density is known as

A

DEXA, bone densitometry scan

164
Q

why are DEXA scans preferred?

A

precision, low radiation exposure

165
Q

Bone density scans are reported with two types of scores, what are they?

A

T and Z scores

166
Q

what score is known as number of standard deviations for patient compared to normal

167
Q

what score is defined as number of SDs fro pt compared to normal

168
Q

what type of scan is a nuclear scanning test that identifies new areas of bone growth or breakdown

169
Q

bone scans can detect problems _____ to _____ earlier than X ray

A

days to months

170
Q

a test that assesses the health of the muscles and nerves controlling the muscles. Electrode is inserted into muscle

A

electromyography (EMG)

171
Q

what type of diseases do muscle biopsies identify?

A

neuromuscular disease

172
Q

used to image tendons, muscle, joints and often used with joint injections to visualize proper site for injection and or aspiration is known as

A

musculoskeletal US