Chapter 10 nervous system Flashcards

1
Q

The nervous system is complex with ____________ nerve cells

A

10 billion

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2
Q

The NS carries ______ messages

A

electrical

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3
Q

The NS has _______ and _______ functions

A

involuntary
voluntary

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4
Q

What are microscopic cells collected together into macroscopic structures that carry electrical messages?

A

nerves/neurons

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5
Q

Two major NS divisions

A

CNS and PNS

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6
Q

The CNS is composed of (2)

A

brain
spinal cord

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7
Q

The PNS is composed of (4)

A

cranial nerves
spinal nerves
plexuses
Peripheral nerves

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8
Q

______ nerves carry messages towards the brain

A

sensory

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9
Q

____ nerves carry messages away from the brain

A

motor

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10
Q

______ nerves carry both sensory and motor fibers

A

mixed

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11
Q

What carries impulses from the CNS to the organs

A

ANS

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12
Q

What nerves stimulate the body under stress

A

sympathetic

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13
Q

What nerves balance the sympathetic system by slowing HR and lowering BP

A

Parasympathetic

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14
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there

A

12

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15
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

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16
Q

What is an individual nerve cell with dendrites, cell nucleus, and axon

A

neuron

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17
Q

What covers around the axon (2)

A

myelin sheath
neurilemma

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18
Q

What part of the neuron secretes neurotransmitters?

A

terminal end fibers

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19
Q

neurotransmitters transfer impulse across the _________ (gap at end)

A

synapse

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20
Q

What are small clusters of nerve cell bodies called?

A

ganglia

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21
Q

What cells maintain the health of the nervous system and do not transmit impulses?

A

Glial cells

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22
Q

What are the 4 types of glial cells?

A

Astrocytes
Microglia
Oligodendroglia
Ependymal Cells

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23
Q

What is the largest section of the brain that manages speech, vision, smell, movement, hearing, and thought?

A

cerebrum

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24
Q

The surface nerve cells of the cerebrum are called?

A

cerebral cortex

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25
Q

What part of the brain coordinates voluntary movement and maintains balance?

A

Cerebellum

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26
Q

What part of the brain integrates and monitors impulses from skin (pain)

A

thalamus

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27
Q

What part of the brain controls body temp, sleep, appetite, sexual desire, emotions hormones from the pituitary gland, and monitors sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

A

Hypothalamus

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28
Q

What are the 3 parts of the brainstem?

A

Pons, midbrain, medulla oblongata

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29
Q

What are of the brainstem bridges the cerebrum and cerebellum with the rest of the brain

A

pons

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30
Q

What part of the brainstem houses nerves for face and eyes

A

pons

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31
Q

What part of the brainstem is the uppermost portion and contains pathways connecting the cerebrum with lower portions of the brain

A

midbrain

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32
Q

What part of the brainstem connects the spinal cord to the brain and nerve tracts from side to side?

A

medulla oblongata

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33
Q

What are the 3 things the medulla oblongata regulates?

A

blood vessels
heart
respiratory

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34
Q

What neurotransmitter chemical is released at ends of nerve cells (starts with letter a)

A

acetylcholine

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35
Q

What neurons carry messages toward the brain and spinal cord (sensory)

A

afferent

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36
Q

What is the middle layer of the meninges?

A

arachnoid mater

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37
Q

What are glial cells that transport water and salts from capillaries

A

astrocytes

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38
Q

What are nerves that control involuntary body functions of muscles, glands, and internal organs

A

ANS

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39
Q

What are microscopic fibers that carries nervous impulse along a nerve cell

A

axon

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40
Q

What is the protective separation between the blood and brain cells the keeps substances (such as anticancer drugs) from penetrating capillary walls and entering the brain

A

blood brain barrier

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41
Q

What is the posterior portion of the brain that connects that cerebrum with the spinal cord

A

brainstem

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42
Q

What is the microscopic fiber collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve sell

A

cauda equina

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43
Q

What is the part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus

A

cell body

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44
Q

The brain and the spinal cord together make up the ________

A

CNS

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45
Q

What is the posterior part of the brain that coordinates muscle movements and maintains balance

A

cerebellum

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46
Q

What is the outer region of the cerebrum, that contains sheet of nerve cells; gray matter

A

cerebral cortex

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47
Q

What fluid circulates through the brain and spinal cord

A

cerebrospinal fluid

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48
Q

12 pairs; carry messages to and from the brain with regard to the head and neck (except vagus nerve)

A

cranial nerves

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49
Q

What is the microscopic branching fiber of a nerve cell, the first part to receive the nerve impulse

A

dendrite

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50
Q

What is the thick outermost layer of the meninges surrounding and protecting the CNS

A

dura mater

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51
Q

What neuron carries messages away from the CNS (motor)

A

efferent nerve

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52
Q

What are glial cells that lines the membranes within the CNS and help form CSF

A

ependymal cell

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53
Q

What is the collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS

A

ganglion

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54
Q

What is the supportive and connective nerve cell that does not carry nervous impulses, that can reproduce itself

A

glial cells

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55
Q

What is the sheet of nerve cells that produces a rounded ridge on the surface of the cerebral cortex, convolution

A

gyrus

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56
Q

What are the 3 protective membrane layers that surround that brain and spinal cord

A

meninges

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57
Q

What glial cells of phagocytic and remove wastes from the CNS

A

microglial cell

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58
Q

What is a glial cell that forms the myelin sheath covering axons

A

Oligodendrocytes

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59
Q

What are involuntary, autonomic nerves that regulate normal body functions such as HR, breathing, and GI muscles

A

Parasympathetic nervous

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60
Q

what is the essential, distinguishing tissue of any organ or system

A

parenchyma

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61
Q

What is the thin delicate inner membrane of the meninges

A

pia mater

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62
Q

A large interlacing network of nerves

A

plexus

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63
Q

What is the nerve extending from the base of the spine down the thigh, lower leg, and foot

A

Sciatic nerve

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64
Q

What are the 31 pairs arising from the spinal cord called

A

spinal nerves

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65
Q

An agent of change in internal or external environment that evokes a response

A

Stimulus

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66
Q

what is the connective and supporting tissue of an organ

A

stroma (stromal tissue)

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67
Q

What is the depression or groove in the surface of the cerebral cortex; fissure

A

sulcus

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68
Q

What are the autonomic nerves that influence bodily functions involuntary in times of stress

A

sympathetic nerves

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69
Q

What is the main relay center of teh brain

A

thalamus

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70
Q

What is the 10th cranial nerve that branchs down into chest and abdomen

A

vagus nerve

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71
Q

What are the canals in the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid

A

ventricles of the brain

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72
Q

What is the abnormal accumulation of CSF fluid in the brain that causes enlarged head and small face

A

hydrocephalus

73
Q

What is placed to remove pressure on the brain for hydrocephalus

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

74
Q

Hydrocephalus can occur in adults from what 2 things?

A

infection
tumors

75
Q

What condition is the incomplete closure of the vertebral column during embryogenesis, resulting in exposure of meninges and spinal cord

A

spina bifida

76
Q

What are the 3 types of spina bifida

A

SB occulta
SB cystica with meningocele
SB cystica with myelomeningocele

77
Q

What spina bifida is where the posterior vertebrae have not fused, so may see mole, simple, or patch of hair over area

A

SB occulta

78
Q

What type of spina bifida has an external protruding sac containing meninges and CSF

A

SB cystica with meningocele

79
Q

What type of Spina bifida has an external protruding sac with meninges, CSF, and spinal cord, often associated with paralysis and hydrocephalus

A

SB cystica with myelomeningocele

80
Q

What are serious congenital anomalies of the NS, which occur during the first 4 weeks of gestation that result from faulty formation of the _________

A

neural tube

81
Q

What is a environmental factor that is strongly associated with neural tube defects

A

folic acid deficiency

82
Q

What is a chronic progressive disorder that causes progressive impairment of intellectual function that may compromise language and memory, behavior, and cognition

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

83
Q

Alzheimers disease accounts for ______% of all cases of dementia

84
Q

The cause of alzheimers is ______

85
Q

Alzheimers can be associated with a symptom of loss of expression also called

A

masked faces

86
Q

What is a degenerative disease which affects the upper and lower motor neurons

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

87
Q

ALS signs and symptoms

A

Debilitating motor functions
including difficulty walking, swallowing, atrophy

88
Q

What is an abnormal paroxysmal neuronal discharge in the brain, which may cause a transient disturbance of cerebral function

89
Q

Seizures are classified as ______ or _______

A

partial or generalized

90
Q

What seizures are limited to a part of a cerebral hemisphere and can be simple or complex

A

partial seizure

91
Q

What are the 4 types of generalized seizures

A

absence (petit mal)
Febrile
Tonoclonic (grand mal)
Status epilepticus (prolonged and not stopping)

92
Q

What is the condition of having seizures called?

93
Q

After seizures (postictal) patients often have _______

94
Q

What is contralateral postictal paralysis called

A

Todds paralysis

95
Q

What is an inherited disease characterized by dementia and chorea that has a gradual onset and slow progress

A

Huntingtons disease

96
Q

Huntington’s disease symptoms typically dont develop until after what age

97
Q

Huntingtons disease is autosomal dominant with a marker on chromosome ________

98
Q

S/S of Huntington’s (theres a million)

A

chorea
Dysphagia
dysarthria
mind impairment
Excretion incompetance

99
Q

There is a cure for Huntintons (T/F)

100
Q

What is an inflammatory progressive demyelination of the white matter of the brain and spinal cord resulting in multiple neurological signs and symptoms?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

101
Q

The cause of MS is known? (T/F)

102
Q

What are risk factors for MS (4)

A

<55y/old, western European, possibly familial, immunologic basis

103
Q

S/S of MS

A

weaknss
numbness
tingling
unsteadiness
spastic paraparesis
diplopia
disequillibrium
optic neuritis
—– WAX AND WANING

104
Q

What is used to Dx MS

A

lesions on MRI
use LP

105
Q

What is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction resulting in a pure motor syndrome characterized by weakness and fatigue of eyes, face, respiratory ect

A

myasthenia gravis

106
Q

Myasthenia gravis is what kind of disorder

A

autoimmune

107
Q

In Myasthenia gravis, Ab block the ability of _____ to transmit neural impulse from nerve to muscle cell

A

Acetylcholine

108
Q

Myasthenia gravis peaks in what decade:

Females ___
Males ___

109
Q

S/S of Myasthenia gravis

A

ptosis
diplopia
facial weakness
chewing fatigue
dysphagia, phonia, arthria
weakness in limbs, neck, repiratory failure

110
Q

What is a partial or complete loss of motor function called?

A

Palsy / paralysis

111
Q

What palsy involved damage to the cerebrum during gestation/birth

A

cerebral palsy

112
Q

What palsy is unilateral facial paralysis secondary to a problem with the facial nerve

A

Bells palsy

114
Q

What is a chronic degenerative disease of basal ganglia , characterized by fine slowly spreading tremor, muscle weakness, shuffling gait, and postural instability

A

parkinsons

115
Q

What is parkinsons also called

A

paralysis agitans

116
Q

What are the causes of parkinsons (3)

A

unknown
associated dopamine depletion
exposure to toxins

117
Q

Parkinsons S/S

A

masked facies
positive myerson sign ( blink from tapping nose)
Pill rolling resting tremor
shuffling gait
bradykinesia

118
Q

What is a hereditary chronic neuromuscular disorder consisting of various motor and vocal tics

A

tourette syndrome

119
Q

Tourettes tics stay the same all the time (T/F)

120
Q

What is a disease usually presenting as a painful unilateral dermatomal eruption

A

Shingles (herpes Zoster)

121
Q

Shingles is a reactivation of what dormant virus

A

Varicella zoster

122
Q

S/S of shingles

A

Prodromal phase
-tingling
-itching
-boring knifelike pain

acute phase
- fatigue
-HA
-dermatomal rash

123
Q

What is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord

A

meningitis

124
Q

What are causes of meningitis

A

viral, bacterial, or fungal infections

125
Q

S/S of meningitis

A

HA
fever
sensorial disturbances
neck and back stiffness
positive kerning and Brudzinski sign

126
Q

What Dx meningitis

A

CBC
blood culture
CXR
LP

—-CT BEFORE LP if space occupying lesion

126
Q

What is the most common type of brain tumor in adults, and most common cause of new onset seizure in middle age

A

glioblastoma

126
Q

What are the two neurologic complications from the human immunodeficiency virus?

A

HIV encephalopathy and AIDS dementia

126
Q

HIV complications can occur from HIV itself or other ________

A

opportunistic infections

128
Q

Less than ______th glioblastoma patients survive >1 year

129
Q

S/S of glioblastoma

A

hemiparesis
seizures
confusion
obtundation
HA

130
Q

DX glioblastoma what two ways

131
Q

What is a benign brain tumor arising from arachnoid cells

A

meningiomas

132
Q

Meningiomas are usually asymptomatic (T/F)

133
Q

Meningiomas usually do not produce bone erosion (T/F)

134
Q

What diagnoses meningiomas (2)

135
Q

What is traumatic damage to the brain where the patient has a loss of consciousness >2 minutes

A

CNS trauma

136
Q

What injury may cause increased ICP, seizure, cerebral edema, and intracranial hematoma

A

cerebral injury

137
Q

What is caused by a tear of the veins between the dura and arachnoid membrane, usually from blunt trauma

A

Subdural hematoma

138
Q

Subdural hematoma S/S

A

change in mental status
Focal neurological signs
unreactive pupils with ophthalmoplegia
possible seizure

139
Q

What is caused by a tear of the middle meningeal artery or venous sinus, between the skull and dura, after skull fracture

A

epidural hematoma

140
Q

Epidural hematomas are lethal if ______

141
Q

What is it called with epidural hematomas where there is a recovery followed by a progressive gradual decline until coma (what is the recovery called)

142
Q

Epidural hematomas show a __________ on CT and MRI

A

concave blood clot

143
Q

What is a sudden developing neurological deficit usually related to impaired cerebral blood flow

A

stroke/ CVA

144
Q

Stroke is the _______ leading cause of death in the US

145
Q

What are causes of strokes

A

carotid atherosclerosis
hypercoagulable states
oral contraceptive
HTN
drugs

146
Q

What are the 3 kinds of strokes

A

thrombotic
embolic
hemorrhagic

147
Q

Risk factors for stroke include

A

7/8th decade
HTN
DM
hypercoagulable (smoker)
family Hx

148
Q

What are neurological deficits caused by ischemia that lasts <24 hrs , usually less than 2 hours and are related to CVA

A

Transient cerebral ischemia

149
Q

What are causes of TIA

A

embolus formation
cardiac causes
hematologic causes

150
Q

TIA S/S

A

onset and abrupt
vertebrobasilar ischemia vs carotid artery ischemia

151
Q

What is a severe reoccurring unilateral vascular headache

152
Q

What are the 3 types of migraine

A

classic
common
basilar

153
Q

Migraine POUND acronym

A

pulsatile,
onset abrupt
unilateral
N/V
Duration 4-72 hours

154
Q

What is a clear colorless fluid formed within the ventricles of the brain

155
Q

What produces 70% of CSF

A

choroid plexus

156
Q

How much CSF is produced daily

157
Q

how much CSF is present in the system at 1 time

158
Q

Where does reabsorption of CSF occur

A

arachnoid villi

159
Q

Fxns of CSF

A

shock absorber
regulate ICP
supply nervous tissue nutrients
remove wastes

160
Q

What is CSF removed with?

161
Q

What is Xray imaging of arterial blood vessels in the brain

A

cerebral angiography

162
Q

Cerebral angiogrpahy injects contrast to Dx these 3 things

A

hemorrhage
aneurysm
occulsions

163
Q

CT is better than MRI of the brain for acute hemorrhage and subarachnoid space (T/F)

164
Q

CT is best after trauma for how long

165
Q

MRI is better than CT for posterior fossa tumors and brain stem glioma (and tumors) (T/F)

166
Q

MRI is the best for imaging the cervical ________

167
Q

What is a nuclear medicine technique that produces a 3D image of function processes in the body

A

PET scan
(Positron emission tomography)

168
Q

PET scans detect pairs of gamma rays emitted indirectly by what?

A

Positron emitting radioisotope 1qa2az

169
Q

PET scans get images of what kind of activity?

170
Q

What tests use sound waves to detect blood flow in the carotid and intracranial arteries

A

Doppler/ultrasound studies

171
Q

what are the 2 types of doppler studies

A

duplex carotid ultrasound
transcranial doppler

172
Q

What test is a measurement of electrical activity produced by the brain as recorded from electrodes placed on the scalp

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

173
Q

What is a highly precise form of radiation therapy used primarily to treat tumors and other abnormalities of brain

A

stereotactic Radiosurgery

174
Q

Stereotactic radiosurgery is actually non _____

175
Q

Stereotactic radiosurgery can be used to treat what stroke causer in young people

A

arteriovenous malformation