Chp 13 Blood Flashcards
1
Q
transports food, gases, and wastes to and from the cells of the body
A
blood
2
Q
what are the two other transported items by blood?
A
- Chemical messengers (hormones)
- Blood proteins, WBCs, platelets
3
Q
what the percentage of cells in the blood volume (RBCs, WBCs, platlets)
A
45%
4
Q
blast =
A
baby
5
Q
red blood cells transport nutrients and oxygens
A
erythrocytes
6
Q
immature RBCs are known as
A
erthroblast
7
Q
where do RBCs originate?
A
bone marrow
8
Q
a cell that destroys worn out erythrocytes in spleen, liver, and bone marrow
A
macrophages
9
Q
white blood cells
A
leukocytes
10
Q
platlets
A
thrombocytes
11
Q
what WBC contains heparin and histamine
A
basophils
12
Q
what WBC is a phagocytic cell involved in allergic responses and parasitic infections
A
eosinophils
13
Q
what WBC is phagocytic cell that accumulates at sites of infection
A
neutrophils
14
Q
what WBCs are phagocytic cells that become macrophages and digest bacteria and tissue debris
A
monocytes
15
Q
what WBC controls the immune response and makes antibodies to antigens
A
lymphocytes
16
Q
what plasma protein maintains proper proportion and concentration of water in blood
A
albumin
17
Q
what plasma protein is another part of blood containing plasma proteins: alpha, beta, and gamma globulins
A
globulins
18
Q
what plasma protein are antibodies that bind to and destroy antigens or foreign substances (IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD)
A
immunoglobulins
19
Q
what plasma proteins (2) are clotting proteins
A
fibrinogen and prothrombin
20
Q
A antigen (ag) and anti-B antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood
A
A
21
Q
B antigen (ag) and anti-A antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood
A
B
22
Q
A and B antigen (ag) and no antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood
A
AB
23
Q
no antigen (ag) and anti-A and B antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood
A
O
24
Q
what blood type is the universal recipient
A
Type AB
25
what blood type is the universal donor?
O
26
fibrin blood clotting from plasma protein fibrinogen is known as
coagulation
27
how long does coagulation usually take?
15 minutes
28
2 examples of anticoagulants are
1. heparin
2. warfarin (coumadin)
29
a specific protein produced by the lymphocytes in response to bacteria, viruses, or other antigens
anitbody
30
a substance that stimulates the production of an antibody
anitgen
31
orange yellow pigment in bile formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin when RBCs are destroyed
bilirubin
32
protein that stimulates the growth of WBCs
colony stimulating factor (CSF)
33
the change in structure and function of a cell as it matures, specialization
differenciation
34
a method of separating serum proteins by electrical charge
electrophoresis
35
a hormone secreted by the kidneys that stimulates RBC formation
erythropoietin
36
protein that forms the basis of a blood clot
fibrin
37
plasma protein that is converted to fibrin in the clotting process
fibrinogen
38
a cell in bone marrow that gives rise to all types of blood cells
hematopoietic stem cell
39
an anticoagulant found in blood and tissue cell
heparin
40
response of the immune system to foreign invasion
immune reaction
41
a protein with antibody activity
immunoglobulin
42
large platelet precursor cell found in the bone marrow
megakaryocyte
43
leukocyte with one large nucleus engulfs foreign material and debris, becomes a macrophage
monocyte
44
pertaining to cell with single round nucleus
mononuclear
45
immature bone marrow that gives rise to granulocytes
myeloblast
46
granulocytic leukocyte formed in bone marrow, polymorphonuclear leukocyte
neutrophil
47
removal of plasma from withdrawn blood by centrifuge
plasmapheresis
48
pertaining to a WBC with multi-shaped nucleus, neutrophil
polymorphonuclear
49
immature erythrocyte
reticulocyte
50
antigen on RBC of Rh positive individuals
Rh Factor
51
plasma minus clotting proteins and cells
serum
52
unspecialized cell that gives rise to mature, specialized forms
stem cell
53
enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin during coagulation
thrombin
54
medications used to dissolve clots, clot buster
thrombolytic therapy
55
centrifuge spins blood to remove plasma from other parts of the blood
plasmapheresis
56
what are the two reasons RBCs have a biconcave shape?
1. large surface area
2. flexibility
57
what is the lifespan of a RBC
120 days
58
what 3 areas of the body destroy old RBCs
1. spleen
2. liver
3. bone marrow
59
a deficiency in erythrocytes / hemoglobin would be called
anemia
60
an anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce adequate numbers of peripheral blood elements
aplastic anemia
61
aplastic anemia often results in (3)
1. anemia
2. hemorrhage
3. infections
62
aplastic anemia is a failure of the ____ _____
bone marrow
63
do males or females get aplastic anemia more?
males
64
what are the signs and symptoms of aplastic anemia? (5)
1. dyspnea
2. ecchymosis / petechiae
3. menorrhagia
4. epistaxis
5. retinal hemorrhages
65
the general term covering a large group of anemias in which there is a shortened life span of RBCs
hemolytic anemia
66
signs and symptoms of hemolytic anemias (8)
1. chills, fever
2. pain in back and abdomen
3. prostration
4. shock
5. jaundice
6. splenomegaly
7. hemoglobinuria
8. reticulocytosis
67
what are the three main types of hemolytic anemia?
1. hemolytic disease of the newborn
2. abnormal red blood cell membranes
3. abnormal hemoglobin
68
guess the hemolytic anemia: usually by blood group incompatibility between mother and baby
hemolytic disease of the newborn
69
guess the hemolytic anemia: hereditary spherocytosis and hereditary eliptocytosis
Abnormal red cell membrane
70
guess the hemolytic anemia: sickle cell anemia and thalassemia
abnormal hemoglobin
71
red blood cells that are almost spherical in shape, they have no area of central pallor like a normal RBC
hereditary spherocytosis
72
a condition characterized by irreversibly crescent or sickle-shaped RBCs, increased hemolysis, painful crisis, and increased susceptibility to infections
sickle cell anemia
73
T/F: Sickle cell Anemia is autosomal recessive and mainly occurs in African American patients
True
74
What are some cases that would induce sickling? (4)
1. hypoxia
2. high altitude
3. acidosis
4. infections
5. dehydration
75
Signs and symptoms of sickle cell anemia (8)
1. jaundice
2. initial splenomegaly turned hyposplenism
3. pigmented gallstones
4. poor healing ulcers on legs
5. PAIN
6. priapism
7. stroke
8. delayed puberty
76
what condition is a group of inherited disorders that affect the synthesis of hemoglobin (specifically globin production)
thalassemia
77
what condition leads to deficient hemoglobin, resulting in hypochromic and microcytic red cells
thalassemia
78
what condition is characterized as a megaloblastic anemia (big cells) and lack intrinsic factor from parietal cells in gastric mucosa
pernicious anemia
79
the intrinsic factor allows _______ (what vitamin) to be absorbed in the blood
B12
80
Vitamin B12 is necessary for ________ and ________ of RBCs
1. Development
2. Maturation
81
Signs and symptoms of pernicious anemia (6)
1. weakness/fatigue/pallor
2. glossitis
3. abdominal disturbances
4. paresthesias
5. decrease sense of position and vibration
6. dementia
82
the treatment for pernicious anemia would be
B12 injections
83
What condition is characterized as a megaloblastic anemia produced by the deficiency of folic acid
Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia
84
Folic acid is essential for ________ ________
DNA Synthesis
85
where (what foods) can you find folic acids
fruits and veggies
86
Some causes of a folic acid deficiency would be (3)
1. dietary insufficiency (alcoholism)
2. medications that interfere with absorption
3. parenteral nutrition
87
signs and symptoms folic acid deficiency anemia
1. malaise/fatigue/weakness
2. no neurologic defects
88
what condition is characterized by hypochromic, microcytic anemia and is the most common anemia and is commonly caused by an underlying condition
Iron Deficiency Anemia
89
Cause of iron deficiency anemia (4)
1. blood loss (usually GI)
2. Dietary deficiency (in veg diets)
3. malabsorption
4. gastrectomy
90
signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia (2)
1. tachycardia/palpitations
2. pallor/brittle nails
91
severe s/s iron deficiency anemia (3)
1. smooth tongue
2. cheilosis
3. dysphagia (caused by esophageal webs)
92
what is a genetic condition causing excessive deposits of iron throughout the body, iron overload
hemochromatosis
93
Symptoms of hemochromatosis (4)
1. hepatomegaly
2. skin pigmented bronze
3. joint pain
4. erectile dysfunction
94
what conditions can hemochromatosis lead to (3)
1. diabetes
2. heart failure
3. liver failure
95
treatment of hemochromatosis
phlebotomy
96
what condition causes a general increase in RBC, WBC, and platelets causing hyperviscosity
polycythemia vera
97
does polycythemia vera occur in males or females more?
males more
98
what is the treatment for polycythemia vera
1. phlebotomy
2. myelotoxic drugs
98
signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera (early stages produce no symptoms) (8)
1. headache/tinnitus/vertigo
2. blurred vision
3. spontaneous bruising
4. upper GI bleed
5. arterial and venous occlusive events
6. pruritis
7. splen/hepatomegaly
8. bone tenderness
99
what condition is an inherited bleeding disorder secondary to clotting factor deficiency
hemophilia
100
types of hemophilia (3)
1. von willebrands
2. hemophilia A
3. hemophilia B
101
Causes of hemophilia (2)
1. genetic
2. vitamine K deficiency
102
signs and symptoms of hemophilia (4)
1. easy bruising
2. bleeding tendencies
3. tissue hemorrhages
4. hemarthrosis
103
what condition causes bleeding under the skin, multiple pinpoint hemorrhages and accumulation of blood under the skin
purpura
104
ITP means
idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
105
a decrease in platlets after infection causing bruising, bleeding gums, GI bleeds, and gyn bleeds and a prolonged bleeding time would be called
idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
106
what condition is when immature blood cells in the bone marrow and peripheral circulation produces an array of neoplastic disorders
leukemia
107
leukemia is classified based on what ______ of immature cells predominate in an ______ or ______ manifestation
Type, acute or chronic
108
what are causes of leukemia (4)
1. unknown
2. excessive radiation
3. toxins
4. drugs
109
signs and symptoms of leukemia (7)
1. bleeding
2. infection
3. gingival hypertrophy
4. dyspnea
5. pale skin, purpura, petechiae
6. stomatitis
7. lymphadenopathy
110
the presence of what chromosome is diagnositic for chronic myelogenous leukemia
philadelphia chromosome
111
treatment of leukemia would be (2)
1. chemotherapy
2. bone marrow transplant
112
acute luekemia types (2)
1. acute myeloid leukemia
2. acute lymphoid leukemia
113
what condition is caused by an abnormal increase in granulocytes in the blood
granulocytosis
114
eosinophilia is seen with _____ _____ (what condition)
allergic reactions
115
basophilia is seen with ______ (what condition)
leukemia
116
what condition is an acute, self limited infection that occurs mainly in adolescents
mononucleosis (mono)
117
what is the cause of mononucleosis and how is it transmitted?
Cause: Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Transmitted: saliva
118
what is the incubation period for mononucleosis
incubation
119
how long is the course of illness usually in mononucleosis?
2-4 weeks
120
Epstein Barr Virus is indicated in ____ (what %) of African Burkett's lymphoma cases
90%
121
signs and symptoms of mononucleosis (gazillion - 9)
1. malaise
2. anorexia
3. fever
4. sore throat
5. pharyngitis/tonsillitis
6. headache
7. lymphadenopathy
8. splenomegaly
9. maculopapular rash
122
rare manifestations of mononucleosis includes (3)
1. hepatitis
2. bell's palsy
3. encephalitis
123
treatment of mononucleosis
supportive care
124
what condition is a malignant tumor of the bone (tumor of plasma cells)
multiple myeloma
125
what protein is affected by multiple myeloma?
bence jones protein
126
what is the average age of diagnosis in multiple myeloma
66
127
how is multiple myeloma diagnosed? (1)
serum or urine protein electrophoresis
128
what do most patients present with in multiple myeloma
bone pain
129
symptoms of multiple myeloma (4)
1. weakness/fatigue
2. bleeding
3. recurrent infections
4. weight loss
130
findings (lab findings) in multiple myeloma (4)
1. hypercalcemia
2. anemia
3. elevated Cr
4. lytic bone lesions
131
treatment of multiple myeloma (3)
1. analgesics
2. radiation
3. palliation with chemotherapy
132
what test detects antigen antibody complexes on the red blood cell membrane in vivo as well as red blood cell sensitization
antiglobulin test (coombs test)
133
antiglobulin test is diagnostic for what conditions? (4)
1. hemolytic disease of the newborn
2. acquired hemolytic anemia
3. transfusion reaction
4. RBC sensitization caused by drugs
134
what is test that tests the rate at which erythrocytes settle out of anti-coagulated blood in 1 hour
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
135
the faster the settling of RBCs, the higher the _____ (what test)
ESR
136
what test indirectly measures the RBC mass and is important when determining if your patient has anemia or polycythemia?
Hematocrit
137
the main component of erythrocytes, serves as the vehicle for transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide
Hemoglobin
138
what cell is the smallest formed element in the blood?
thrombocytes
139
_______ activity is necessary for blood clotting, vascular integrity, and vasoconstriction
platelet
140
what test is a one-stage clotting test, screens for coagulation disorders
Partial Thromboplastin time (PTT)
141
the partial thromboplastin time can specifically detect deficiencies of the ______ _______ _______
intrinsic thromboplastin system
142
what tests the ability of the blood to clot?
Prothrombin time (PT)
143
prothrombin production depends on adequate vitamin _____ intake and absorption
K
144
during clotting process, prothrombin is converted to ______
thrombin
145
what test is used to evaluate therapy with heparin and coumadin?
PT
146
what test is paired with INR
PT
147
what test is an important measurement in the evaluation of anemia or polycythemia and determine the total number of erythrocytes in a microliter of blood
Red blood cell count (RBC)
148
the examination to determine variations and abnormalities in erythrocytes size, shape, structure, Hb content and staining properties is called
red blood cell morphology
149
red cell indices defines the size and Hb content of RBC and consist of 3 tests (list them)
1. Mean Corpuscular Volume
2. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin concentration
3. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
150
individual ____ _____ is the best index for classifying anemias
cell size
151
what volume expresses the volume occupied by a single erythrocyte and is a measure in cubic micrometers
Mean Corpuscular Volume
152
what indicates whether RBC size appears normal , smaller than normal, or larger than normal
MCV
153
what measures the average concentration of Hb in the RBCs
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
154
What test is the most valuable in monitoring therapy for anemia
MCHC
155
what test is a measure of the average weight of Hb per RBC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
156
what test is a value in diagnosing severely anemic patients
mean corpuscular hemoglobin
157
what is a measurement of white blood cells in mm3
white blood cell count
158
White blood cells serves as a useful guide to the severity of _______ ______
disease processes
159
what is usually caused by an increase of only one type of leukocyte
leukocytosis
160
what is a differential count that is expressed as a percentage of the total number of leukocytes
WBC differential
161
what is the separation of blood into component parts called?
apheresis
162
in apheresis, what are the components separated into (3 things)
1. plasma
2. platelet
3. leukocytes
163
what is it called when donor blood is transfused into a patient and a compatibility test must be preformed to prevent a possible transfusion reaction
blood transfusion
164
examination of the bone marrow, valuable diagnostic test to evaluate hematologic disorders
bone marrow biopsy
165
a technique in which stem cells are obtained from a patients blood and used in bone marrow transplant
hematopoietic stem cell transplant
166
before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant the patient must receive a high dose of _____ or ______ to destroy diseased cells
Chemotherapy or radiation
