Chp 13 Blood Flashcards

1
Q

transports food, gases, and wastes to and from the cells of the body

A

blood

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2
Q

what are the two other transported items by blood?

A
  1. Chemical messengers (hormones)
  2. Blood proteins, WBCs, platelets
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3
Q

what the percentage of cells in the blood volume (RBCs, WBCs, platlets)

A

45%

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4
Q

blast =

A

baby

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5
Q

red blood cells transport nutrients and oxygens

A

erythrocytes

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6
Q

immature RBCs are known as

A

erthroblast

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7
Q

where do RBCs originate?

A

bone marrow

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8
Q

a cell that destroys worn out erythrocytes in spleen, liver, and bone marrow

A

macrophages

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9
Q

white blood cells

A

leukocytes

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10
Q

platlets

A

thrombocytes

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11
Q

what WBC contains heparin and histamine

A

basophils

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12
Q

what WBC is a phagocytic cell involved in allergic responses and parasitic infections

A

eosinophils

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13
Q

what WBC is phagocytic cell that accumulates at sites of infection

A

neutrophils

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14
Q

what WBCs are phagocytic cells that become macrophages and digest bacteria and tissue debris

A

monocytes

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15
Q

what WBC controls the immune response and makes antibodies to antigens

A

lymphocytes

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16
Q

what plasma protein maintains proper proportion and concentration of water in blood

A

albumin

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17
Q

what plasma protein is another part of blood containing plasma proteins: alpha, beta, and gamma globulins

A

globulins

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18
Q

what plasma protein are antibodies that bind to and destroy antigens or foreign substances (IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD)

A

immunoglobulins

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19
Q

what plasma proteins (2) are clotting proteins

A

fibrinogen and prothrombin

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20
Q

A antigen (ag) and anti-B antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood

A

A

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21
Q

B antigen (ag) and anti-A antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood

A

B

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22
Q

A and B antigen (ag) and no antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood

A

AB

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23
Q

no antigen (ag) and anti-A and B antibody (ab) would be type ____ blood

A

O

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24
Q

what blood type is the universal recipient

A

Type AB

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25
Q

what blood type is the universal donor?

A

O

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26
Q

fibrin blood clotting from plasma protein fibrinogen is known as

A

coagulation

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27
Q

how long does coagulation usually take?

A

15 minutes

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28
Q

2 examples of anticoagulants are

A
  1. heparin
  2. warfarin (coumadin)
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29
Q

a specific protein produced by the lymphocytes in response to bacteria, viruses, or other antigens

A

anitbody

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30
Q

a substance that stimulates the production of an antibody

A

anitgen

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31
Q

orange yellow pigment in bile formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin when RBCs are destroyed

A

bilirubin

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32
Q

protein that stimulates the growth of WBCs

A

colony stimulating factor (CSF)

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33
Q

the change in structure and function of a cell as it matures, specialization

A

differenciation

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34
Q

a method of separating serum proteins by electrical charge

A

electrophoresis

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35
Q

a hormone secreted by the kidneys that stimulates RBC formation

A

erythropoietin

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36
Q

protein that forms the basis of a blood clot

A

fibrin

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37
Q

plasma protein that is converted to fibrin in the clotting process

A

fibrinogen

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38
Q

a cell in bone marrow that gives rise to all types of blood cells

A

hematopoietic stem cell

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39
Q

an anticoagulant found in blood and tissue cell

A

heparin

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40
Q

response of the immune system to foreign invasion

A

immune reaction

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41
Q

a protein with antibody activity

A

immunoglobulin

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42
Q

large platelet precursor cell found in the bone marrow

A

megakaryocyte

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43
Q

leukocyte with one large nucleus engulfs foreign material and debris, becomes a macrophage

A

monocyte

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44
Q

pertaining to cell with single round nucleus

A

mononuclear

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45
Q

immature bone marrow that gives rise to granulocytes

A

myeloblast

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46
Q

granulocytic leukocyte formed in bone marrow, polymorphonuclear leukocyte

A

neutrophil

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47
Q

removal of plasma from withdrawn blood by centrifuge

A

plasmapheresis

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48
Q

pertaining to a WBC with multi-shaped nucleus, neutrophil

A

polymorphonuclear

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49
Q

immature erythrocyte

A

reticulocyte

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50
Q

antigen on RBC of Rh positive individuals

A

Rh Factor

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51
Q

plasma minus clotting proteins and cells

A

serum

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52
Q

unspecialized cell that gives rise to mature, specialized forms

A

stem cell

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53
Q

enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin during coagulation

A

thrombin

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54
Q

medications used to dissolve clots, clot buster

A

thrombolytic therapy

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55
Q

centrifuge spins blood to remove plasma from other parts of the blood

A

plasmapheresis

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56
Q

what are the two reasons RBCs have a biconcave shape?

A
  1. large surface area
  2. flexibility
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57
Q

what is the lifespan of a RBC

A

120 days

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58
Q

what 3 areas of the body destroy old RBCs

A
  1. spleen
  2. liver
  3. bone marrow
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59
Q

a deficiency in erythrocytes / hemoglobin would be called

A

anemia

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60
Q

an anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce adequate numbers of peripheral blood elements

A

aplastic anemia

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61
Q

aplastic anemia often results in (3)

A
  1. anemia
  2. hemorrhage
  3. infections
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62
Q

aplastic anemia is a failure of the ____ _____

A

bone marrow

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63
Q

do males or females get aplastic anemia more?

A

males

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64
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of aplastic anemia? (5)

A
  1. dyspnea
  2. ecchymosis / petechiae
  3. menorrhagia
  4. epistaxis
  5. retinal hemorrhages
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65
Q

the general term covering a large group of anemias in which there is a shortened life span of RBCs

A

hemolytic anemia

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66
Q

signs and symptoms of hemolytic anemias (8)

A
  1. chills, fever
  2. pain in back and abdomen
  3. prostration
  4. shock
  5. jaundice
  6. splenomegaly
  7. hemoglobinuria
  8. reticulocytosis
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67
Q

what are the three main types of hemolytic anemia?

A
  1. hemolytic disease of the newborn
  2. abnormal red blood cell membranes
  3. abnormal hemoglobin
68
Q

guess the hemolytic anemia: usually by blood group incompatibility between mother and baby

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn

69
Q

guess the hemolytic anemia: hereditary spherocytosis and hereditary eliptocytosis

A

Abnormal red cell membrane

70
Q

guess the hemolytic anemia: sickle cell anemia and thalassemia

A

abnormal hemoglobin

71
Q

red blood cells that are almost spherical in shape, they have no area of central pallor like a normal RBC

A

hereditary spherocytosis

72
Q

a condition characterized by irreversibly crescent or sickle-shaped RBCs, increased hemolysis, painful crisis, and increased susceptibility to infections

A

sickle cell anemia

73
Q

T/F: Sickle cell Anemia is autosomal recessive and mainly occurs in African American patients

74
Q

What are some cases that would induce sickling? (4)

A
  1. hypoxia
  2. high altitude
  3. acidosis
  4. infections
  5. dehydration
75
Q

Signs and symptoms of sickle cell anemia (8)

A
  1. jaundice
  2. initial splenomegaly turned hyposplenism
  3. pigmented gallstones
  4. poor healing ulcers on legs
  5. PAIN
  6. priapism
  7. stroke
  8. delayed puberty
76
Q

what condition is a group of inherited disorders that affect the synthesis of hemoglobin (specifically globin production)

A

thalassemia

77
Q

what condition leads to deficient hemoglobin, resulting in hypochromic and microcytic red cells

A

thalassemia

78
Q

what condition is characterized as a megaloblastic anemia (big cells) and lack intrinsic factor from parietal cells in gastric mucosa

A

pernicious anemia

79
Q

the intrinsic factor allows _______ (what vitamin) to be absorbed in the blood

80
Q

Vitamin B12 is necessary for ________ and ________ of RBCs

A
  1. Development
  2. Maturation
81
Q

Signs and symptoms of pernicious anemia (6)

A
  1. weakness/fatigue/pallor
  2. glossitis
  3. abdominal disturbances
  4. paresthesias
  5. decrease sense of position and vibration
  6. dementia
82
Q

the treatment for pernicious anemia would be

A

B12 injections

83
Q

What condition is characterized as a megaloblastic anemia produced by the deficiency of folic acid

A

Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia

84
Q

Folic acid is essential for ________ ________

A

DNA Synthesis

85
Q

where (what foods) can you find folic acids

A

fruits and veggies

86
Q

Some causes of a folic acid deficiency would be (3)

A
  1. dietary insufficiency (alcoholism)
  2. medications that interfere with absorption
  3. parenteral nutrition
87
Q

signs and symptoms folic acid deficiency anemia

A
  1. malaise/fatigue/weakness
  2. no neurologic defects
88
Q

what condition is characterized by hypochromic, microcytic anemia and is the most common anemia and is commonly caused by an underlying condition

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

89
Q

Cause of iron deficiency anemia (4)

A
  1. blood loss (usually GI)
  2. Dietary deficiency (in veg diets)
  3. malabsorption
  4. gastrectomy
90
Q

signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia (2)

A
  1. tachycardia/palpitations
  2. pallor/brittle nails
91
Q

severe s/s iron deficiency anemia (3)

A
  1. smooth tongue
  2. cheilosis
  3. dysphagia (caused by esophageal webs)
92
Q

what is a genetic condition causing excessive deposits of iron throughout the body, iron overload

A

hemochromatosis

93
Q

Symptoms of hemochromatosis (4)

A
  1. hepatomegaly
  2. skin pigmented bronze
  3. joint pain
  4. erectile dysfunction
94
Q

what conditions can hemochromatosis lead to (3)

A
  1. diabetes
  2. heart failure
  3. liver failure
95
Q

treatment of hemochromatosis

A

phlebotomy

96
Q

what condition causes a general increase in RBC, WBC, and platelets causing hyperviscosity

A

polycythemia vera

97
Q

does polycythemia vera occur in males or females more?

A

males more

98
Q

what is the treatment for polycythemia vera

A
  1. phlebotomy
  2. myelotoxic drugs
98
Q

signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera (early stages produce no symptoms) (8)

A
  1. headache/tinnitus/vertigo
  2. blurred vision
  3. spontaneous bruising
  4. upper GI bleed
  5. arterial and venous occlusive events
  6. pruritis
  7. splen/hepatomegaly
  8. bone tenderness
99
Q

what condition is an inherited bleeding disorder secondary to clotting factor deficiency

A

hemophilia

100
Q

types of hemophilia (3)

A
  1. von willebrands
  2. hemophilia A
  3. hemophilia B
101
Q

Causes of hemophilia (2)

A
  1. genetic
  2. vitamine K deficiency
102
Q

signs and symptoms of hemophilia (4)

A
  1. easy bruising
  2. bleeding tendencies
  3. tissue hemorrhages
  4. hemarthrosis
103
Q

what condition causes bleeding under the skin, multiple pinpoint hemorrhages and accumulation of blood under the skin

104
Q

ITP means

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

105
Q

a decrease in platlets after infection causing bruising, bleeding gums, GI bleeds, and gyn bleeds and a prolonged bleeding time would be called

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

106
Q

what condition is when immature blood cells in the bone marrow and peripheral circulation produces an array of neoplastic disorders

107
Q

leukemia is classified based on what ______ of immature cells predominate in an ______ or ______ manifestation

A

Type, acute or chronic

108
Q

what are causes of leukemia (4)

A
  1. unknown
  2. excessive radiation
  3. toxins
  4. drugs
109
Q

signs and symptoms of leukemia (7)

A
  1. bleeding
  2. infection
  3. gingival hypertrophy
  4. dyspnea
  5. pale skin, purpura, petechiae
  6. stomatitis
  7. lymphadenopathy
110
Q

the presence of what chromosome is diagnositic for chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

philadelphia chromosome

111
Q

treatment of leukemia would be (2)

A
  1. chemotherapy
  2. bone marrow transplant
112
Q

acute luekemia types (2)

A
  1. acute myeloid leukemia
  2. acute lymphoid leukemia
113
Q

what condition is caused by an abnormal increase in granulocytes in the blood

A

granulocytosis

114
Q

eosinophilia is seen with _____ _____ (what condition)

A

allergic reactions

115
Q

basophilia is seen with ______ (what condition)

116
Q

what condition is an acute, self limited infection that occurs mainly in adolescents

A

mononucleosis (mono)

117
Q

what is the cause of mononucleosis and how is it transmitted?

A

Cause: Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Transmitted: saliva

118
Q

what is the incubation period for mononucleosis

A

incubation

119
Q

how long is the course of illness usually in mononucleosis?

120
Q

Epstein Barr Virus is indicated in ____ (what %) of African Burkett’s lymphoma cases

121
Q

signs and symptoms of mononucleosis (gazillion - 9)

A
  1. malaise
  2. anorexia
  3. fever
  4. sore throat
  5. pharyngitis/tonsillitis
  6. headache
  7. lymphadenopathy
  8. splenomegaly
  9. maculopapular rash
122
Q

rare manifestations of mononucleosis includes (3)

A
  1. hepatitis
  2. bell’s palsy
  3. encephalitis
123
Q

treatment of mononucleosis

A

supportive care

124
Q

what condition is a malignant tumor of the bone (tumor of plasma cells)

A

multiple myeloma

125
Q

what protein is affected by multiple myeloma?

A

bence jones protein

126
Q

what is the average age of diagnosis in multiple myeloma

127
Q

how is multiple myeloma diagnosed? (1)

A

serum or urine protein electrophoresis

128
Q

what do most patients present with in multiple myeloma

129
Q

symptoms of multiple myeloma (4)

A
  1. weakness/fatigue
  2. bleeding
  3. recurrent infections
  4. weight loss
130
Q

findings (lab findings) in multiple myeloma (4)

A
  1. hypercalcemia
  2. anemia
  3. elevated Cr
  4. lytic bone lesions
131
Q

treatment of multiple myeloma (3)

A
  1. analgesics
  2. radiation
  3. palliation with chemotherapy
132
Q

what test detects antigen antibody complexes on the red blood cell membrane in vivo as well as red blood cell sensitization

A

antiglobulin test (coombs test)

133
Q

antiglobulin test is diagnostic for what conditions? (4)

A
  1. hemolytic disease of the newborn
  2. acquired hemolytic anemia
  3. transfusion reaction
  4. RBC sensitization caused by drugs
134
Q

what is test that tests the rate at which erythrocytes settle out of anti-coagulated blood in 1 hour

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

135
Q

the faster the settling of RBCs, the higher the _____ (what test)

136
Q

what test indirectly measures the RBC mass and is important when determining if your patient has anemia or polycythemia?

A

Hematocrit

137
Q

the main component of erythrocytes, serves as the vehicle for transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

Hemoglobin

138
Q

what cell is the smallest formed element in the blood?

A

thrombocytes

139
Q

_______ activity is necessary for blood clotting, vascular integrity, and vasoconstriction

140
Q

what test is a one-stage clotting test, screens for coagulation disorders

A

Partial Thromboplastin time (PTT)

141
Q

the partial thromboplastin time can specifically detect deficiencies of the ______ _______ _______

A

intrinsic thromboplastin system

142
Q

what tests the ability of the blood to clot?

A

Prothrombin time (PT)

143
Q

prothrombin production depends on adequate vitamin _____ intake and absorption

144
Q

during clotting process, prothrombin is converted to ______

145
Q

what test is used to evaluate therapy with heparin and coumadin?

146
Q

what test is paired with INR

147
Q

what test is an important measurement in the evaluation of anemia or polycythemia and determine the total number of erythrocytes in a microliter of blood

A

Red blood cell count (RBC)

148
Q

the examination to determine variations and abnormalities in erythrocytes size, shape, structure, Hb content and staining properties is called

A

red blood cell morphology

149
Q

red cell indices defines the size and Hb content of RBC and consist of 3 tests (list them)

A
  1. Mean Corpuscular Volume
  2. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin concentration
  3. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
150
Q

individual ____ _____ is the best index for classifying anemias

151
Q

what volume expresses the volume occupied by a single erythrocyte and is a measure in cubic micrometers

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume

152
Q

what indicates whether RBC size appears normal , smaller than normal, or larger than normal

153
Q

what measures the average concentration of Hb in the RBCs

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

154
Q

What test is the most valuable in monitoring therapy for anemia

155
Q

what test is a measure of the average weight of Hb per RBC

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin

156
Q

what test is a value in diagnosing severely anemic patients

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin

157
Q

what is a measurement of white blood cells in mm3

A

white blood cell count

158
Q

White blood cells serves as a useful guide to the severity of _______ ______

A

disease processes

159
Q

what is usually caused by an increase of only one type of leukocyte

A

leukocytosis

160
Q

what is a differential count that is expressed as a percentage of the total number of leukocytes

A

WBC differential

161
Q

what is the separation of blood into component parts called?

162
Q

in apheresis, what are the components separated into (3 things)

A
  1. plasma
  2. platelet
  3. leukocytes
163
Q

what is it called when donor blood is transfused into a patient and a compatibility test must be preformed to prevent a possible transfusion reaction

A

blood transfusion

164
Q

examination of the bone marrow, valuable diagnostic test to evaluate hematologic disorders

A

bone marrow biopsy

165
Q

a technique in which stem cells are obtained from a patients blood and used in bone marrow transplant

A

hematopoietic stem cell transplant

166
Q

before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant the patient must receive a high dose of _____ or ______ to destroy diseased cells

A

Chemotherapy or radiation