Chlamydia & Mycoplasma Flashcards

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1
Q

obligate intracellular organism

A

requires the biochemical resources of a eukaryotic host cell for growth and replication

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2
Q

common host cells for Chlamydia

A

Non-ciliated, columnar or transitional epithelial cells

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3
Q

Chlamydia life forms

A
  1. Elementary body - infectious; extracellular; metabolically inert; resembles GNR
  2. Reticulate body - noninfectious; intracellular; resembles spore
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4
Q

trachoma

A

chronic eye infection with Chlamydia

Number one cause of preventable blindness

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5
Q

precursor to trachoma

follicular conjunctivitis
Chronic inflammation causes…

A

Eyelid to turn inward

Continual abrasion to the cornea from the eyelashes
Scarring and ulceration of the cornea
Secondary infection and blindness

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6
Q

Begins as a lesion that becomes enlarged groin lymph nodes (bubo) leading to draining sinuses, genital hyperplasia and rectal fistulas/strictures

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

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7
Q

Lymphogranuloma Venereum seen primarily in…

A

Africa, Asia, and South America

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8
Q

Most common sexually transmitted infection in U.S.

A

chlamydia

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9
Q

Chlamydia in mother causes ———– in infant

A

conjunctivitis, nasopharyngeal infection and pneumonia

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10
Q

Infants receive prophylactic eye drops (———–) at birth to prevent eye infections due to C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae

A

erythromycin

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11
Q

sample for Chlamydia ID

A

Collect infected epithelial cells from genitourinary tract, urethra, or conjunctiva

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12
Q

specimens of choice for Chlamydia

A

Urethral and endocervical cells

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13
Q

With Chlamydia culture, must keep viable by….

A

refrigerating specimens and limiting transport time

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14
Q

Advantage - immediate determination if columnar epithelial cells are present

A

Direct fluorescent antibody for genital tract Chlamydia specimens

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15
Q

Considered the gold standard for detection of C. trachomatis until the development of nucleic acid amplification tests

A

cell culture – McCoy cell line with cyclohexamide

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16
Q

Chlamydia cell culture has 80% sensitivity due to…

A

issues with inherent technical complexities

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17
Q

Enzyme immunoassay is based on monoclonal antibodies to Chlaymidia’s…

A

LPS

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18
Q

Positive result is only preliminary due to potential for false-positive results

A

Chlamydia immunoassay

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19
Q

Not used to test for Chlamydia in urine or vaginal swabs

A

immunoassay

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20
Q

NAAT for Chlamydia not approved for…

A

conjunctival, oropharyngeal and rectal specimens

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21
Q

Used to tx Chlamydia

A

Need antibiotics that can penetrate cells such as erythromycin, tetracyclines, and fluoroquinolones

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22
Q

bird pathogen

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

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23
Q

Pneumonia
Severe h/a
Mental status changes
Hepatosplenomegaly

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

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24
Q

dx is based on serology
1:32 titer indicates acute illness

A

C. psittaci

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25
Q

C. psittaci BSL

A

BSL 3

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26
Q

C. psittaci tx

A

tetracycline

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27
Q

C. psittaci fatal in —–% untreated cases

A

20

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28
Q

Pneumonia
Bronchitis
Pharyngitis
Sinusitis

90% cases asymptomatic

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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29
Q

dx based on PCR

sputum NOT an ideal specimen

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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30
Q

Chlamydophila pneumoniae tx

A

tetracycline
erythromycin

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31
Q

Smallest known free-living forms (0.3 x 0.8 μm)

no cell wall

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

32
Q

Small colonies embedded in
solid media

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

33
Q

require sterols and fatty acids

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

34
Q

Infections can occur singly or as outbreaks in closed populations such as families or dormitories - more common in young adults

A

M. pneumoniae CA pneumonia

35
Q

walking pneumonia; individual does not feel well but not sick enough to stay home

A

M. pneumoniae

36
Q

At/post puberty colonization occurs primarily through sexual contact

Can cause PID, BV, urethritis, prostatitis, amnionitis.

A

M. hominis
U. urealyticum

37
Q

Indicated in chorioamnionitis, early spontaneous abortions and premature deliveries.

A

M. hominis
U. urealyticum

38
Q

Can dry out very quickly, need prompt transport

Avoid cotton swabs with wooden sticks

A

Mycoplasmas

39
Q

Mycoplasma specimens

A

body fluids, tissue, swab of throat, nasopharynx, urethra, cervix/vaginal, tracheal aspirate, and placenta

40
Q

Media contains beef/soybean protein (sterols)

SP4, Shepard 10B broth or 2SP

A

Mycoplasmas

41
Q

M. pneumoniae and M. genitalium require ——– and can take 21 days to appear

M. hominis requires ——– and appear in 2 to 4 days

U. urealyticum requires ——- and appear in 2 to 4 days

A

glucose

arginine

urea

42
Q

Production of … after overnight incubation of a urogenital specimen suggests U. urealyticum

A

an alkaline reaction in media with urea

43
Q

On subculture, extremely small colonies which require stereomicroscope to see

Look like a bird’s nest

A

Ureaplasma

44
Q

Alkaline reaction in media with ——– within 24 to 72 hours is likely M. hominis

A

arginine

45
Q

fried egg colony; light edge, dark center

A

M. hominis

46
Q

infections are usually self limited and don’t require treatment

A

M. pneumoniae

47
Q

Sensi testing reference lab usually recommended for significant infections

A

M. hominis

48
Q

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma intrinsically R to B-lactams because

A

they don’t have a cell wall

49
Q

Maybe more prevalent than Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Association with HIV infection

A

M. genitalum

50
Q

Treatment of choice is azithromycin but developing increasing resistance

Moxifloxacin can also be used

A

M. genitalum

51
Q

Multiply by binary fission in cytoplasm of host cells
Release of mature organism causes lysis of host cells

A

Rickettsiaceae

52
Q

Rickettsiaceae

A

Rickettsia
Ehrlichia
Anaplasma

53
Q

Cannot be grown on cell-free media but have been grown in the yolk sac of embryonated eggs and several cell lines

A

Rickettsiaceae

54
Q

Tick, mite, louse, flea or other insects

A

Rickettsia

55
Q

Ehrlichia and Anaplasma are transmitted by…

A

ticks

56
Q

3 groups of Rickettsial diseas

A

spotted fever
typhus
scrub typhus

57
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever - most severe of rickettsial infections

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

58
Q

Murine Typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

59
Q

Rickettsial Pox

A

Rickettsia akari

60
Q

Epidemic Typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

61
Q

induce vasculitis in internal organs, including brain, heart, lungs and kidneys

Pneumonitis, CNS manifestations, Myocarditis, DIC, low blood volume and hypotension

A

R. rickettsii

62
Q

triad of RMSF sx

A

Headache, fever, spotted centripetal rash
(due to vascular damage)

63
Q

Potential bioterrorism organism due to low dose aerosols

A

R. rickettsii

64
Q

Rumpel-Leede phenomenon

A

petechiae after blood pressure taken

RMSF

65
Q

Only performed in a few specialized labs using embryonated eggs and tissue culture.

A

R. rickettsii culture

66
Q

Collect blood, in heparin vials, and skin biopsies for culture early in disease process

A

RMSF

67
Q

Upon entry into WBCs, develop in morulae (mulberry-like bodies).

A

Ehrlichia and Anaplasma

68
Q

infects monocytes and causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME).

A

E. chaffeensis

69
Q

infects neutrophils causing human granulocytic anaplasmosis.

A

A. phagocytophilum

70
Q

Rickettsial disease tx

A

doxycycline or another tetracycline antibiotic

71
Q

Causes Q (query) fever

A

Coxiella burnettii

72
Q

Most common reservoirs are cattle, sheep and goats

A

Coxiella burnettii

73
Q

Required to be reported within 7 days and either destroyed or transferred to lab registered to possess agent

Potential for use as a bioweapon

A

Coxiella burnettii

74
Q

Shell vial assay with human lung fibroblasts

A

Coxiella burnettii

75
Q

Coxiella burnettii culture

A

can be done in cell-free media but discouraged because lab worker infections can occur

BSL 3 required