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Mercy CLS 2: Microbiology > 6. Enterobacteroides > Flashcards

6. Enterobacteroides Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Lactose fermenters (6)

A

Citrobacter
Cronobacter sakazakii
Enterobacter
E. coli
Klebsiella
Pantoea
Serratia

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2
Q

The only ox = GNR

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

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3
Q

LLFs

A

Citrobacter koseri
Pantoea agglomerans
Serratia marcescens

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4
Q

Cfre on HE

A

yellow
black centers

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5
Q

E. coli on HE

A

bright yellow
salmon orange

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6
Q

Proteus on HE

A

clear
blue-green
black centers

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7
Q

Salmonella on HE

A

blue-green
black centers

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8
Q

Shigella on HE

A

clear, blue-green

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9
Q

Yersinia on HE

A

yellow
salmon orange

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10
Q

Cfre on XLD

A

yellow
colorless
black centers

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11
Q

most LFs on XLD

A

yellow

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12
Q

Mmor on XLD

A

clear

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13
Q

Proteus on XLD

A

yellow
colorless
black centers

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14
Q

Providencia on XLD

A

clear

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15
Q

Salmonella on XLD

A

black
red rimmed

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16
Q

Serratia on XLD

A

yellow

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17
Q

Shigella on XLD

A

colorless/red

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18
Q

Yersinia on XLD

A

yellow

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19
Q

NLFs that give an A/A TSI reaction

A

Pvul
Yersinia

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20
Q

The only H2S + LF

A

Cfre

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21
Q

Triple = SIM LF

A

Kpne

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22
Q

Triple + SIM

A

Pvul

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23
Q

Triple = SIM NLFs

A

Shigella
Yersinia

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24
Q

Nonmotiles (35°)

A

Klebsiella
Yersinia
Shigella

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25
Q

The only = citrate LF

A

E. coli

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26
Q

Citrate, urease and PAD ===

A

E. coli
Shigella
Y. pestis

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27
Q

Arginine +

A

Citrobacter
Cronobacter
E. cloacae

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28
Q

The only A/L/O triple = LF

A

Pantoea agglomerans

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29
Q

ONPG + NLFs

A

Shigella sonnei
Yersinia

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30
Q

The only ases +

A

Smar

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31
Q

Koxy vs Kpne

A

Koxy indole +
Kpne indole =

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32
Q

Cfre vs Ckos

A

Cfre H2S +
Ckos H2s =

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33
Q

Pvul vs Pmir

A

Pvul indole +
Pmir indole =

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34
Q

Pret vs Pstu

A

Pret urea +
Pstu urea =

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35
Q

Y. pestis vs other Yersinia

A

Y. pestis urea =
other Yersinia urea +

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36
Q

Yent vs other Yersinia

A

Yent ornithine +

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37
Q

misleading nonpathogenic appearance on XLD and HE

A

Yersinia

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38
Q

Definition of Enterobacteriaceae (5)

A

GNR
Ox =
Glucose-fermenting
Grow on MAC
Nitrate +

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39
Q

3 enterics that are always pathogenic

A

Salmonella, Shigella and Yersinia

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40
Q

cytotoxin-producing E. coli

A

E. coli O157:H7

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41
Q

Infections caused by Enterobacteriaceae

A

UTI
Pyelonephritis
Diarrhea
Respiratory infection
Wound infections
Sepsis

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42
Q

BAP enteric colonies

A

Large wet, gray colonies

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43
Q

LPS causes…

A

shock, fever, hypotension, circulatory collapse, capillary hemorrhage, DIC

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44
Q

toxic part of LPS

A

lipid A

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45
Q

3 antigens used to differentiate Salmonella strains

A

K (capsule)
O (outer membrane)
H (flagellar)

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46
Q

—- is heat-labile and has to be boiled away to reach other antigens

A

K

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47
Q

K antigen present on Sent Typhi

A

Vi antigen

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48
Q

HE and XLD used to isolate —— in stool

A

Salmonella
Shigella

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49
Q

CHO in HE agar

A

lactose, sucrose and salicin

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50
Q

2 pH indicators in HE

A

Brom-thymol blue
Acid fuchsin

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51
Q

Potential pathogens on HE

A

Colorless and take on green color of medium due to the lack of CHO fermentation

Black due production of hydrogen sulfide

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52
Q

Sugar fermented by Yersinia that gives a misleading HE result

A

sucrose

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53
Q

indicator in XLD

A

phenol red

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54
Q

CHO in XLD agar

A

lactose, xylose and sucrose

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55
Q

added to XLD to help detect salmonella

A

lysine

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56
Q

potential pathogens on XLD

A

Colorless and take on the red color of the medium (Shigella)

Black due to hydrogen sulfide production (Salmonella)

Red rimmed if lysine is decarboxylated (Salmonella)

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57
Q

present in TSI for H2S production

A

Sodium thiosulfate

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58
Q

pH indicator in TSI

A

phenol red

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59
Q

——- react with hydrogen sulfide gas to form a black precipitate

A

Iron salts

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60
Q

—– environment required to make H2S

A

acid

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61
Q

Mustache

A

S. enterica typhi

62
Q

Explain indole reaction

A

Metabolism of the amino acid, tryptophan, creates indole, pyruvic acid and ammonia

63
Q

para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

A

Ehrlich’s or Kovac’s reagent
used to detect indole

64
Q

Indole spot can be performed on which agars?

A

SBA, CHOC

not MAC (no tryptophan present)

65
Q

What does citrate determine?

A

Determines if organism is capable of using sodium citrate as the sole source of carbon for metabolism and growth (versus fermentation of carbohydrates)

66
Q

Citrate pH indicator

A

Bromothymol blue

67
Q

heavy inoculum for citrate can give false —— results

A

positive
(bring over CHOs or dying organisms release C and N)

68
Q

Urease indicator

A

phenol red

69
Q

Explain urease reaction

A

Organisms that possess urease are able to hydrolyze urea to produce ammonia, creating alkaline pH

70
Q

Explain PAD reaction

A

Determines the organism’s ability to deaminate phenylalanine to produce phenylpyruvic acid

71
Q

VP + metabolic pathway

A

glycolysis -> pyruvate -> acetyl-methyl carbinol

72
Q

MR + metabolic pathway

A

glycolysis -> pyruvate -> mixed acids at pH <4.4

73
Q

——- can use both pathways, but the VP reaction can be delayed so it appears as MR+/VP= at 48 hours

A

Proteus

74
Q

Why does VP give a false positive if read after 1 hour?

A

After 1 hour, KOH reacts with alpha-naphthol to produce a copper color

75
Q

At 24 hours, all Enterics will give a —- MR

A

+

76
Q

2 types of positives for nitrate test

A

either the presence of one of the detectable end products, or the absence of nitrate

77
Q

drop in pH required to turn on enzymes for Decarb reactions is accomplished by….

A

adding a small amount of glucose to the medium for fermentation

78
Q

Decarb pH indicator

A

bromocresol purple

79
Q

Forgetting to oil Decarb tubes gives a false ——

A

positive

80
Q

ONPG long

A

Ortho-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside

81
Q

ONPG detects…

A

Beta-D-galactosidase

82
Q

If you can’t determine if LLF or NLF on MAC and do not have the ONPG result….

A

use TSI tubes

83
Q

IMViC

A

Indole/MR/VP/Citrate

84
Q

E. coli IMViC

A

+/+/=/=

85
Q

Klebsiella IMViC

A

=/=/+/+

86
Q

PAD +

A

Proteus
M. morganii
Providencia

87
Q

Rapid E. coli ID (5)

A

Nonswarming GNR
Dark, dry LF
Spot indole +
Oxidase =
Beta-hemolytic

88
Q

E. coli PYR

A

=

89
Q

best test for lazy E. coli

A

serotyping

90
Q

Most common cause of infections of the urinary bladder, renal pelvis and kidneys

A

E. coli

91
Q

5 types of E. coli gastroenteritis

A

Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
Enteroaggregative (EAEC)
Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)

92
Q

Profuse, watery diarrhea that is not bloody
Similar to Cholera

A

enterotoxigenic E. coli

93
Q

Causes dysentery
Invades intestine like Shigella but organism does not leave the intestine to travel systemic in the body

A

enteroinvasive E. coli

94
Q

Bind to cell and cause changes in the cell surface to produce lesions

Watery diarrhea with no blood and possibly a few WBCs

A

enteropathogenic E. coli

95
Q

Several organisms bind together like a stack of bricks

Watery diarrhea but no blood or WBCs

A

enteroaggregative E. coli

96
Q

Toxin destroys intestinal microvilli and damages vascular endothelium to produce bloody diarrhea without WBC

A

enterohemorrhagic E. coli

97
Q

E. coli strain causing EHEC

A

Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)

98
Q

About 4% of EHEC cases progress to…

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

99
Q

Tx for HUS

A

do NOT use Ab (more LPS released)

100
Q

Best method to dx EHEC

A

Shiga-toxin detection in stool via molecular methods

101
Q

Unique about O157:H7

A

does not ferment sorbitol

102
Q

SMAC used to…

A

differentiate O157:H7, which does not ferment sorbitol

103
Q

enzymes for Ab resistance in Klebsiella

A

Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (EXBL)
Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemase (KPC)

104
Q

Klebsiella colonizes…

A

URT of hospitalized patients

105
Q

Bloody jelly sputum

A

Necrotizing pneumonia
Klebsiella

106
Q

unusual sites of infection, potential for metastatis

A

hypervirulent Klebsiella

107
Q

Hypermucoviscous colonies

A

hypervirulent Klebsiella

108
Q

Common nosocomial organism in ICU

A

enterobacter

109
Q

AmpC
enzyme
organism
induced by…

A

cephalosporinases
Enterobacter
cefoxitin, imipenem and ampicillin

110
Q

pigment of Cronobacter sakazakii

A

yellow

111
Q

Can survive under very dry conditions, like powdered infant formula, and cause neonatal meningitis/sepsis

A

Cronobacter sakazakii

112
Q

red pigment of Smar indicates (high/low) virulence

A

low

113
Q

Smar colonizes…

A

hospital patients’ respiratory and urinary tracts

especially after respiratory instrumentation and catheters

114
Q

LLF with high MDR

A

Smar

115
Q

1970’s nationwide outbreak of septicemia due to IV fluid contaminated with…

A

Pagg endotoxin

115
Q

Pagg pigment

A

light yellow

116
Q

causes most Proteus infections

A

Pmir

117
Q

Kidney stone formation

A

Proteus

118
Q

Seen primarily in those with long-term indwelling urinary catheters

A

Pstu

119
Q

Poultry and reptile pathogen

A

Prett

120
Q

Citrobacter is serologically similar to….

A

Salmonella

121
Q

2400 serotypes based on the Kaufmann-White scheme

A

Salmonella

122
Q

S. enterica Typhi is serotype —

A

D

123
Q
A

Salmonella

124
Q

Differentiates Typhi serotype from other Salmonella

A

TSI mustache

125
Q

5 F’s for spreading Salmonella

A

Friends, flies, fingers, food, feces

126
Q

Typhoid fever has a (high/low) infectious dose

A

low

(other Salmonella infections are high)

127
Q

High fever and constipation with positive Salmonella blood cultures but negative stool cultures

A

week 1-2 of typhoid fever

128
Q

Invades peyer’s patches (lymph nodes) of ileum then invades liver, spleen, lymph nodes , bone marrow and gallbladder

A

week 2-3 of typhoid fever

129
Q

Diarrhea phase (similar to pea soup) with negative blood cultures and positive stool cultures

A

week 3 of typhoid fever

130
Q

carries of Sent Typhi have organisms hiding in the….

A

gallbladder

131
Q

Nontyphoidal Salmonella tx

A

Often resolves in 5-7 days without treatment
Fluid and electrolyte replacement

Antibiotics do not shorten the course of the disease

132
Q

Groups of Shigella O antigen serotypes

A

S. dysenteriae – group A
S. flexneri – group B
S. boydii – group C
S. sonnei – group D

(dead flies on boy scouts)

133
Q

Shigella has a (high/low) infectious dose

A

low

134
Q

disease of armies

A

Shigella

135
Q

Bloody diarrhea with WBC (dysentery)

A

Shiga toxin
Shigella and E. coli

136
Q

Most dysentery is due to ——-, but the most severe is due to ——

A

S. sonnei
S. flexneri

S. dysenteriae

137
Q

Retains methylene blue or Wayson stain at ends of rods

Safety pin

A

Yersinia pestis

138
Q
A

Yersinia pestis

139
Q

how to select/differentiate for Yersinia

A

CIN (Cefsulodin, Irgasan, Novobiocin) agar at room temperature

140
Q

Yersinia appearance on CIN

A

bull’s eye

141
Q

3 forms of plague

A

bubonic
pneumonic
septicemic (black death)

142
Q

Contaminates swine food products
Infects Peyer’s patches

A

Y. enterocolicita

143
Q

Mimics appendicitis

A

Y. enterocolitica

144
Q

High risk individuals for septicemia from Yent

A

Iron overload

145
Q
A

Yersinia on CIN

146
Q

uses a mixture of colored beads to serotype Salmonella and Shigella

A

Wellcolex Colour kit

147
Q

mini biochemicals for enterics

A

API20E

148
Q

test that follows a suspicious SMAC

A

latex agglutination for O157:H7

149
Q

transmission of the 3 types of plague

A

bubonic—Organism from flea bite travels to the lymph nodes inside macrophages

pneumonic—Direct exposure to respiratory droplets

septicemic—Organism is inoculated directly into bloodstream via flea bite or spread from lymph nodes

Mercy CLS 2: Microbiology (16 decks)

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