childrens orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

how many bones does a child skeleton have

A

270

is a system that is a continuous change

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2
Q

how are flat bones e.g cranial/clavicle bones formed

A

intramembranous

mesenchymal cells -> bones

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3
Q

how are long bones formed

A

endochondral

mesenchymal -> cartilage -> bone

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4
Q

what happens in intramembranous ossification

A

condensation of mesenchymal cells which differentiate to osteoblasts
these secrete osteoids which trap osteoblasts becoming osteocytes
trabecular matrix and periosteum form
compact bone develops superficial to cancellous bone
crowded blood vessels condense into red bone marrow

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5
Q

where does endochondral ossification occur

A

1.primary ossification centres- sites of pre natal bone growth through endochondral ossification from central part of bone
2.secondary - occurs post natal after primary ossification centre
long bones often have several. (physis)

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6
Q

what are some primary ossification centres

A

middle of diaphysis
or shaft of bone
occurs in prenatal period

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7
Q

describe primary ossification

A

mesenchymal differentiation of primary centre
cartilage model of bony skeleton forms
capillaries penetrate cartilage
calcification - spongy bone forms
cartilage and chondrocytes continue to form end of bone
secondary ossification centres form

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8
Q

describe secondary ossification

A

happens at physis

proliferation of chondrocytes and calcification of cartilage which dies and is replaced by bone

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9
Q

why can childrens bone bend more

increased elasticity

A

increased density of haversian canals

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10
Q

what can an increased elasticity in childrens bones cause

A
  1. plastic deformity - bends before breaks
  2. buckle fracture -
  3. greenstick - like tree, one cortex fractures but does not break other side
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11
Q

when does growth stop in children

A

when physis closes

depends on gradual physeal closure, puberty, menarche, parental height

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12
Q

what can physeal injuries lead to

A

growth arrest

which can form deformities

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13
Q

what is the speed and remodelling potential dependent on

A

location
and age of patient
younger child heals more quickly

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14
Q

what is developmental dysplasia of hip

A

group of disorders of neonatal hip where head of femur is unstable/incongruous in relation to acetabulum
e.g. subluxation, dislocation, dysplasia

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15
Q

what are some risk factors for developmental dysplasia of hip

A

female 6:1
first born
fh
oligohydramnios

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16
Q

how to examine for developmental dysplasia of hip

A

usually picked up on baby check - screening in uk

range of motion of hip

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17
Q

what would you see in the examination of baby with ddh

A

usually limitation in hip abduction
leg length - galeazzi
in those 3mnths+ barlow and ortalani are non-sensitive

18
Q

what are the investigations for developmental dysplasia of hip

A

ultrasound - effective and sensitive from 0-4mnths

measures acetabular dysplasia and position of hip

19
Q

what is the treatment of ddh

A

reducible hip for <6mnths
pavlik harness is 92% effective
if failed pavlik harness/6-18mnths
mua and closed reduction and spica

20
Q

what is congenital talipes equinovarus

A

congenital deformity of foot
highest in hawaiians
50% are bilateral
genetic - pitx1 gene

21
Q

what are the features of congenital talipes equinovarus

A
cave deformity due to muscle contracture
cavus - high arch, tight intrinsic muscles
adductus of foot
varus - tight tendoachillies, 
equinous - tight tendoachilles
clubfoot
22
Q

treatment for clubfoot

A

ponseti method - gold standard

  1. series of casts to correct deformity
  2. many require operative treatment usually in form of soft tissue release
  3. foot orthosis brace
  4. some require further operative intervention
23
Q

what is achondroplasia

A

most common skeletal dysplasia
autosomal dominant - g380 mutation of fgfr3
inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in proliferative zone of physis
- results in defect in endochondral bone formation

24
Q

what is rhizomelic dwarfism

A

humerus shorter than forearm
femur shorter than tibia
normal trunk

25
what is osteogenesis imperfecta
brittle bone disease hereditary - autosomal dominant/recessive decreased type 1 collagen due to decreased secretion/production of abdominal collagen - insufficient osteoid production
26
effects of osteogenesis imperfecta
bones: fragility fractures, short stature, scoliosis non orthopaedic manifestations: heart, blue scalera, dentinogenesis imperfecta, wormian skull, hypermetabolism
27
how can you describe a paediatric fracture
``` Pattern Anatomy Intra/extra articular Displacement Salter-Harris(affects physis) ```
28
how does primary bone healing occur
heals by direct union no callus formation preferred healing pathway in intraarticular fracture as minimises risk of post traumatic arthritis
29
how does secondary bone healing occur
bone healing by callus | remember physis!
30
what is salter harris
classification of physeal injuries(salt) 1. physeal separation 2. fracture transverses physis and exits metaphysis 3. fracture tranverses physis and exits epiphysis 4. fracture passes through epiphysis, physis and metaphysis 5. crush injury to physis
31
what is growth arrest
injuries to physis can cause growth arrest location and timing is key whole physis - limb length discrepancy partial - angulation as non affected side keeps growing
32
treatment for growth arrest
aim is to correct deformity minimise angular deformity minimise limb length difference
33
4 Rs for fracture management
resuscitate reduce restrict rehabilitate
34
how do you reduce fracture
correct deformity and displacement | reduce secondary injury to soft tissue
35
how to restrict a fracture
external - splints and plasters internal - plate and screws intramedullary device
36
what are some differentials for limping child
septic arthritis transient synovitis perthes sufe
37
what is septic arthritis
orthopaedic emergency can cause irreversible long term problems in joint kochers classification can help score probability history is key - duration,other recent illness, associated joint pain
38
what is transient synovitis
diagnosis once septic arthritis has been excluded inflmaed joint in response to systemic illness supportive treatment with antibiotics
39
what is perthes diseases
idiopathic necrosis of proximal femoral epiphysis usually in those 4-8yrs old male : female 4:1 septic arthritis needs to be excluded first treatment usually supportive in first instance
40
what is sufe
slipped upper femoral epiphysis proximal epiphysis slips in relation to metaphysis usually in obese adolescent males during rapid growth septic arthritis must be excluded can be acute/chronic
41
what is the treatment for sufe
operative fixation with screw to prevent further slip and minimise long term growth problems