Chapter 7 Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists.

A

Sesamoid

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2
Q

The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.

A

Diaphysis

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3
Q
During osteogenesis, which of the following cells would appear first?
A)	fibroblast
B)	osteocyte
C)	osteoblast
D)	osteoclast
A

Osteoblast

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4
Q

Which bone developed by endochondral ossification?

A

Tibia

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5
Q

When do the bones of the sternum become completely ossified?

A

25 years

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6
Q

During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.

A

4%

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7
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.

A

Osteomalacia

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8
Q

A deficiency of _____ hormone could result in reduced physical size as well as mental retardation.

A

Thyroid

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9
Q
Which of the following is an axial bone?
A)	femur
B)	vertebra
C)	ilium
D)	tibia
A

Vertebra

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10
Q

Which bone has no direct bony articulation with the skeleton?

A

Hyoid

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11
Q

The _____ bone supports the lower jaw structures such as the tongue.

A

Hyoid

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12
Q

The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.

A

Frontal

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13
Q
Which of the following does not contain a sinus?
A)	ethmoid
B)	sphenoid
C)	frontal
D)	occipital
A

Occipital

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14
Q

There are _____ bones that make up the cranium.

A

8

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15
Q

What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?

A

Passage of blood vessels

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16
Q

The _____ suture separates the occipital from parietal bones.

A

Lambdoidal

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17
Q

Which bone contains the ear structures?

A

Temporal

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18
Q

Which bone has the mandibular fossa?

A

Temporal

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19
Q

Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?

A

Mastoid

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20
Q

What is found only on the cervical vertebrae?

A

Transverse Foramen

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21
Q

The _____ allows a bone to increase its diameter during periods of growth.

A

Periosteum

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22
Q

The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue.

A

Hyaline Cartilage

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23
Q

Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.

A

Cancellous

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24
Q

The center of each osteon contains the _____.

A

Haversian Canal

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25
Osteons have a _____, which provides a means of communication between them.
Volkmann Canal
26
``` Which of these is the most differentiated and oldest? A) fibroblast B) osteoblast C) osteocyte D) chondroblast ```
Osteocyte
27
The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.
Epiphyseal Disk
28
The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.
Osteoclasts
29
When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?
3rd Month
30
When do secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses?
Birth to 5 years
31
Most cases of bone cancer probably involve an increase in the activity of the _____ cells.
Osteoclast
32
The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.
Vitamin D
33
The most important vitamin required for proper bone resorption and modeling is _____.
D
34
Vitamin _____ is required to produce the organic matrix that allows bones to be pliable or hold teeth in their sockets.
C (or C1?)
35
An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.
Acromegaly
36
The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.
Sex
37
An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.
Hypertrophy
38
A _____ fracture occurs when the broken bone is exposed to the outside by an opening in the skin.
Compound
39
``` Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture? A) migration of fibroblasts B) formation of a hematoma C) osteoblast proliferation D) development of granulation tissue ```
Formation of a Hematoma
40
The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.
Fibrocartilage
41
A forceps is an example of a _____ lever arrangement.
Third-Class
42
When the arm is straightened at the elbow, the bones and muscles are acting as a _____ lever.
First-Class
43
The origin of blood cells is the _____.
Yolk Sac
44
``` Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult? A) spleen B) liver C) bone marrow D) lymph nodes ```
Bone Marrow
45
The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____.
Hemoglobin
46
Which type of bone is the primary source of red marrow in an adult?
Flat
47
The most prevalent salt in bone matrix is _____.
Hydroxyapatite
48
``` Which of the following require calcium for normal functioning the least? A) bone matrix B) nerve tissue C) muscles D) blood clotting ```
Bone Matrix
49
``` Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis? A) diet deficient in calcium B) lack of exercise C) normal aging D) hormone deficiencies ```
Normal Aging
50
Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.
70%
51
``` Which of the following is an appendicular bone? A) frontal B) ethmoid C) ulna D) sacrum ```
Ulna
52
The pectoral girdle is comprised of the clavicle and _____.
Scapula
53
``` The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one? A) os coxa B) innominate C) sacrum D) ilium ```
Sacrum
54
``` Which of the following does not belong with the rest? A) sacrum B) coccyx C) femur D) os coxa ```
Femur
55
The term for finger bones is _____.
Phalange
56
How many phalanges are there in the body?
56
57
``` Which of the following is not a bone process? A) trochanter B) tubercle C) tuberosity D) fossa ```
Fossa
58
What is the largest foramen in the body?
Obturator
59
The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.
Zygomatic
60
``` Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone? A) frontal B) lacrimal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid ```
Lacrimal
61
What is the location of the pituitary gland?
Sella Turcica
62
Which bone has the crista galli projection?
Ethmoid
63
The nasal septum is comprised of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____.
Vomer
64
The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.
Maxilla
65
The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.
Alveolar Process
66
The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.
Intervertebral
67
The first vertebra is called the _____.
Atlas
68
The _____ can be felt during a vaginal examination and be used for obstetric measurements.
Sacral Promontory
69
A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.
Scoliosis
70
Which is the largest of the tarsal bones?
Calcaneous
71
The outer covering of each bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the ________________.
Periosteum
72
Inside the epiphyses of each long bone, mostly ________________ can be found.
Spongy Bone
73
Several layers of cells reside within epiphyseal disks of developing long bones. Which layer is responsible for anchoring the disk to the bony epiphysis?
Resting Cells
74
The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the ________________.
Osteoclasts
75
A soft spot in a newborn's skull is called a __________________.
Fontanel
76
The _______________ suture joins the temporal and parietal bones of the skull.
Squamosal
77
The membranes that surround the brain attach to the crista galli, found on the ________________ bone of the skull.
Ethmoid
78
The prominent portions of the cheeks are made up of the _________________ bones.
Zygomatic
79
The ______________ of a typical vertebra projects posteriorly, and is thickest and most blunt in appearance in lumbar vertebrae.
Spinous Process
80
Two kinds of bones form the pectoral girdle: the clavicle and the ________________.
Scapula
81
Another name for the wrist bones is _______________.
Carpals
82
The femur inserts into the coxal bone at the ____________________.
Acetabulum
83
Which bone would contain significant amounts of red bone marrow in an adult?
Sternum
84
By morphology, the parietal bone can be classified as a _____ bone.
Flat
85
The medullary cavity in the diaphysis of an adult bone would contain _____.
Yellow Bone Marrow
86
The part of the bone that the articular cartilage covers directly is the _____.
Epiphysis
87
The junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing bone is called the _____.
Epiphyseal Plate
88
Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?
Greenstick
89
Which type of fracture breaks the bone into several fragments?
Comminuted
90
What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?
Bony Callus
91
Which sinus inflammation in the skull could most commonly lead to deafness?
Mastoid Sinus
92
Which skull bone is not part of the cranium?
Maxilla
93
Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
Occipital
94
``` Which of these bones has a prominent spine? A) femur B) humerus C) pubis D) scapula ```
Scapula
95
Bone processes are genetically produced for the purpose of serving as attachment points for later muscles. T/F?
False
96
Rickets is a condition, which causes bones to bend because of the lack of vitamin D and calcium. T/F?
True
97
Excess pituitary growth hormone will cause an 18-year-old to become a giant. T/F?
False
98
Active exercise can actually cause an increase in the mass and strength of bone. T/F?
True
99
Yellow bone marrow has lost its hematopoietic ability. T/F?
True
100
A low level of blood calcium could be the cause that increases the activity of the osteoclasts. T/F?
True
101
A Wormian bone is an extra bone in the skull usually found in the mandible. T/F?
False
102
The mandibular foramen is located on the deep surface of the mandible and is a common dental anesthetic injection site. T/F?
True
103
The anterior fontanel is a neonatal area of fibrous membrane that is the first to close. T/F?
False
104
There is a frontal or metopic suture that separates the frontal bone into two parts. T/F?
True
105
There are more vertebrae in a fetus than there will be in the adult stage. T/F?
True
106
The cervical flexure in the neck region will develop during a secondary process as the infants raise their heads. T/F?
True
107
Rib pair number eight is called vertebrochondral ribs because they attach to the cartilage of the seventh rib. T/F?
True
108
The angle of Louis occurs between the first two parts of the sternum and has diagnostic value. T/F?
True
109
The lower ribs are firmly attached to the xiphoid process. T/F?
False
110
The surgical neck is an area just below the head of the humerus. T/F?
False
111
The deltoid tuberosity is a ridge on the ulna for attachment of a muscle. T/F?
False
112
The olecranon process of the humerus articulates with the olecranon fossa of the ulna. T/F?
False
113
The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. T/F?
True
114
There are seven carpals and eight tarsals. T/F?
False
115
Bone is comprised of several tissues including cartilage and blood. T/F?
True
116
Although the bones in an elderly person represent dead tissue, they still perform a function of support. T/F?
False
117
The acetabulum is made up of the ilium and pubis bone. T/F?
False
118
The angle of the pubic arch is probably greater in the female than in the male. T/F?
True
119
The tibial tuberosity acts as an attachment for the head of the fibula. T/F?
False
120
The skeletal system plays key roles in the function of the circulatory system and immunity. T/F?
True
121
Most of the skeleton is comprised of fibrous membrane before birth. T/F?
False
122
The soft spots on a newborn skull are called fontanels and are comprised of dense connective tissue. T/F?
True