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Physiology & Anatomy > Chapter 7 Test Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 7 Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists.

A

Sesamoid

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2
Q

The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.

A

Diaphysis

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3
Q 
During osteogenesis, which of the following cells would appear first?
A)	fibroblast
B)	osteocyte
C)	osteoblast
D)	osteoclast
A

Osteoblast

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4
Q

Which bone developed by endochondral ossification?

A

Tibia

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5
Q

When do the bones of the sternum become completely ossified?

A

25 years

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6
Q

During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.

A

4%

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7
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.

A

Osteomalacia

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8
Q

A deficiency of _____ hormone could result in reduced physical size as well as mental retardation.

A

Thyroid

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9
Q 
Which of the following is an axial bone?
A)	femur
B)	vertebra
C)	ilium
D)	tibia
A

Vertebra

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10
Q

Which bone has no direct bony articulation with the skeleton?

A

Hyoid

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11
Q

The _____ bone supports the lower jaw structures such as the tongue.

A

Hyoid

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12
Q

The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.

A

Frontal

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13
Q 
Which of the following does not contain a sinus?
A)	ethmoid
B)	sphenoid
C)	frontal
D)	occipital
A

Occipital

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14
Q

There are _____ bones that make up the cranium.

A

8

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15
Q

What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?

A

Passage of blood vessels

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16
Q

The _____ suture separates the occipital from parietal bones.

A

Lambdoidal

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17
Q

Which bone contains the ear structures?

A

Temporal

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18
Q

Which bone has the mandibular fossa?

A

Temporal

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19
Q

Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?

A

Mastoid

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20
Q

What is found only on the cervical vertebrae?

A

Transverse Foramen

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21
Q

The _____ allows a bone to increase its diameter during periods of growth.

A

Periosteum

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22
Q

The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue.

A

Hyaline Cartilage

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23
Q

Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.

A

Cancellous

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24
Q

The center of each osteon contains the _____.

A

Haversian Canal

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25
Q

Osteons have a _____, which provides a means of communication between them.

A

Volkmann Canal

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26
Q 
Which of these is the most differentiated and oldest?
A)	fibroblast
B)	osteoblast
C)	osteocyte
D)	chondroblast
A

Osteocyte

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27
Q

The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.

A

Epiphyseal Disk

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28
Q

The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.

A

Osteoclasts

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29
Q

When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?

A

3rd Month

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30
Q

When do secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses?

A

Birth to 5 years

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31
Q

Most cases of bone cancer probably involve an increase in the activity of the _____ cells.

A

Osteoclast

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32
Q

The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.

A

Vitamin D

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33
Q

The most important vitamin required for proper bone resorption and modeling is _____.

A

D

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34
Q

Vitamin _____ is required to produce the organic matrix that allows bones to be pliable or hold teeth in their sockets.

A

C (or C1?)

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35
Q

An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.

A

Acromegaly

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36
Q

The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.

A

Sex

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37
Q

An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.

A

Hypertrophy

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38
Q

A _____ fracture occurs when the broken bone is exposed to the outside by an opening in the skin.

A

Compound

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39
Q 
Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture?
A)	migration of fibroblasts
B)	formation of a hematoma
C)	osteoblast proliferation
D)	development of granulation tissue
A

Formation of a Hematoma

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40
Q

The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.

A

Fibrocartilage

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41
Q

A forceps is an example of a _____ lever arrangement.

A

Third-Class

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42
Q

When the arm is straightened at the elbow, the bones and muscles are acting as a _____ lever.

A

First-Class

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43
Q

The origin of blood cells is the _____.

A

Yolk Sac

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44
Q 
Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult?
A)	spleen
B)	liver
C)	bone marrow
D)	lymph nodes
A

Bone Marrow

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45
Q

The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____.

A

Hemoglobin

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46
Q

Which type of bone is the primary source of red marrow in an adult?

A

Flat

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47
Q

The most prevalent salt in bone matrix is _____.

A

Hydroxyapatite

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48
Q 
Which of the following require calcium for normal functioning the least?
A)	bone matrix
B)	nerve tissue
C)	muscles
D)	blood clotting
A

Bone Matrix

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49
Q 
Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
A)	diet deficient in calcium
B)	lack of exercise
C)	normal aging
D)	hormone deficiencies
A

Normal Aging

50
Q

Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.

A

70%

51
Q 
Which of the following is an appendicular bone?
A)	frontal
B)	ethmoid
C)	ulna
D)	sacrum
A

Ulna

52
Q

The pectoral girdle is comprised of the clavicle and _____.

A

Scapula

53
Q 
The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one?
A)	os coxa
B)	innominate
C)	sacrum
D)	ilium
A

Sacrum

54
Q 
Which of the following does not belong with the rest?
A)	sacrum
B)	coccyx
C)	femur
D)	os coxa
A

Femur

55
Q

The term for finger bones is _____.

A

Phalange

56
Q

How many phalanges are there in the body?

A

56

57
Q 
Which of the following is not a bone process?
A)	trochanter
B)	tubercle
C)	tuberosity
D)	fossa
A

Fossa

58
Q

What is the largest foramen in the body?

A

Obturator

59
Q

The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.

A

Zygomatic

60
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?
A)	frontal
B)	lacrimal
C)	sphenoid
D)	ethmoid
A

Lacrimal

61
Q

What is the location of the pituitary gland?

A

Sella Turcica

62
Q

Which bone has the crista galli projection?

A

Ethmoid

63
Q

The nasal septum is comprised of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____.

A

Vomer

64
Q

The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.

A

Maxilla

65
Q

The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.

A

Alveolar Process

66
Q

The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.

A

Intervertebral

67
Q

The first vertebra is called the _____.

A

Atlas

68
Q

The _____ can be felt during a vaginal examination and be used for obstetric measurements.

A

Sacral Promontory

69
Q

A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.

A

Scoliosis

70
Q

Which is the largest of the tarsal bones?

A

Calcaneous

71
Q

The outer covering of each bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the ________________.

A

Periosteum

72
Q

Inside the epiphyses of each long bone, mostly ________________ can be found.

A

Spongy Bone

73
Q

Several layers of cells reside within epiphyseal disks of developing long bones. Which layer is responsible for anchoring the disk to the bony epiphysis?

A

Resting Cells

74
Q

The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the ________________.

A

Osteoclasts

75
Q

A soft spot in a newborn’s skull is called a __________________.

A

Fontanel

76
Q

The _______________ suture joins the temporal and parietal bones of the skull.

A

Squamosal

77
Q

The membranes that surround the brain attach to the crista galli, found on the ________________ bone of the skull.

A

Ethmoid

78
Q

The prominent portions of the cheeks are made up of the _________________ bones.

A

Zygomatic

79
Q

The ______________ of a typical vertebra projects posteriorly, and is thickest and most blunt in appearance in lumbar vertebrae.

A

Spinous Process

80
Q

Two kinds of bones form the pectoral girdle: the clavicle and the ________________.

A

Scapula

81
Q

Another name for the wrist bones is _______________.

A

Carpals

82
Q

The femur inserts into the coxal bone at the ____________________.

A

Acetabulum

83
Q

Which bone would contain significant amounts of red bone marrow in an adult?

A

Sternum

84
Q

By morphology, the parietal bone can be classified as a _____ bone.

A

Flat

85
Q

The medullary cavity in the diaphysis of an adult bone would contain _____.

A

Yellow Bone Marrow

86
Q

The part of the bone that the articular cartilage covers directly is the _____.

A

Epiphysis

87
Q

The junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing bone is called the _____.

A

Epiphyseal Plate

88
Q

Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?

A

Greenstick

89
Q

Which type of fracture breaks the bone into several fragments?

A

Comminuted

90
Q

What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?

A

Bony Callus

91
Q

Which sinus inflammation in the skull could most commonly lead to deafness?

A

Mastoid Sinus

92
Q

Which skull bone is not part of the cranium?

A

Maxilla

93
Q

Which bone contains the foramen magnum?

A

Occipital

94
Q 
Which of these bones has a prominent spine?
A)	femur
B)	humerus
C)	pubis
D)	scapula
A

Scapula

95
Q

Bone processes are genetically produced for the purpose of serving as attachment points for later muscles. T/F?

A

False

96
Q

Rickets is a condition, which causes bones to bend because of the lack of vitamin D and calcium. T/F?

A

True

97
Q

Excess pituitary growth hormone will cause an 18-year-old to become a giant. T/F?

A

False

98
Q

Active exercise can actually cause an increase in the mass and strength of bone. T/F?

A

True

99
Q

Yellow bone marrow has lost its hematopoietic ability. T/F?

A

True

100
Q

A low level of blood calcium could be the cause that increases the activity of the osteoclasts. T/F?

A

True

101
Q

A Wormian bone is an extra bone in the skull usually found in the mandible. T/F?

A

False

102
Q

The mandibular foramen is located on the deep surface of the mandible and is a common dental anesthetic injection site. T/F?

A

True

103
Q

The anterior fontanel is a neonatal area of fibrous membrane that is the first to close. T/F?

A

False

104
Q

There is a frontal or metopic suture that separates the frontal bone into two parts. T/F?

A

True

105
Q

There are more vertebrae in a fetus than there will be in the adult stage. T/F?

A

True

106
Q

The cervical flexure in the neck region will develop during a secondary process as the infants raise their heads. T/F?

A

True

107
Q

Rib pair number eight is called vertebrochondral ribs because they attach to the cartilage of the seventh rib. T/F?

A

True

108
Q

The angle of Louis occurs between the first two parts of the sternum and has diagnostic value. T/F?

A

True

109
Q

The lower ribs are firmly attached to the xiphoid process. T/F?

A

False

110
Q

The surgical neck is an area just below the head of the humerus. T/F?

A

False

111
Q

The deltoid tuberosity is a ridge on the ulna for attachment of a muscle. T/F?

A

False

112
Q

The olecranon process of the humerus articulates with the olecranon fossa of the ulna. T/F?

A

False

113
Q

The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. T/F?

A

True

114
Q

There are seven carpals and eight tarsals. T/F?

A

False

115
Q

Bone is comprised of several tissues including cartilage and blood. T/F?

A

True

116
Q

Although the bones in an elderly person represent dead tissue, they still perform a function of support. T/F?

A

False

117
Q

The acetabulum is made up of the ilium and pubis bone. T/F?

A

False

118
Q

The angle of the pubic arch is probably greater in the female than in the male. T/F?

A

True

119
Q

The tibial tuberosity acts as an attachment for the head of the fibula. T/F?

A

False

120
Q

The skeletal system plays key roles in the function of the circulatory system and immunity. T/F?

A

True

121
Q

Most of the skeleton is comprised of fibrous membrane before birth. T/F?

A

False

122
Q

The soft spots on a newborn skull are called fontanels and are comprised of dense connective tissue. T/F?

A

True

Physiology & Anatomy (19 decks)

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