Chapter 14: MSK, Breast And Superficial Structures Flashcards

1
Q

Tendons connect what to what

A

Muscles to bone

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2
Q

Ligaments connect what to what

A

Bone to bone

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3
Q

Describe tendonitis

A

Inflammation of a tendon
Can be focal or diffuse
Hyperemic flow
Pain swelling and fever

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4
Q

What is tendosynovitis

A

Fluid within the synovial sheath

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5
Q

Describe partial tear of a tendon

A

Focal hypoechoic areas within tendon

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6
Q

Describe complete tear of a tendon

A

Anechoic or heterogenous area within the tendon, often indicative of hematoma

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7
Q

Complete ruptures may have _________ shadowing in the area of the separated tendon with gunk in the gap there like hematoma, fat

A

Refractive

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8
Q

Achilles tendon is also called

A

Calcaneal tendon

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9
Q

The Achilles tendon connects what to what

A

Calf muscle to heel

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10
Q

When the Achilles tendon is inflamed or ruptured, pts will complain of

A

Posterior ankle and leg pain, and they might say they heard a snap sound

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11
Q

What is the Thompson test

A

Performed to see if there’s a complete tear of Achilles tendon
Calf is squeezed and foot should plantar flex in a healthy pt

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12
Q

What is the gold standard for breast imaging

A

Mammography

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13
Q

Name the three layers of breast tissue from most superficial to deepest

A

Subcutaneous
Mammary
Retromammary

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14
Q

What is the functional layer of the breast

A

Mammary layer

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15
Q

Describe the echogenicity of the subcutaneous layer

A

Hypoechoic, mostly fat

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16
Q

Whats the echogenicity of the mammary layer

A

Hyperechoic, contains ducts of glandular tissue

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17
Q

Whats the echogenicity of the retromammary layer

A

Hypoechoic, contains fat

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18
Q

What is mastitis

A

Breast infection, often associated with lactation or trauma

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19
Q

What is puerperal mastitis

A

Type of mastitis associated with breastfeeding

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of mastitis

A

Pain redness fever leukocytosis swelling

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21
Q

What does mastitis look like on ultrasound

A

I’ll defined areas of echogenicity with diffuse edema and hypoechoic fluid within subcutaneous layer that outlines fat lobules
Enlarged lymph nodes may be seen

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22
Q

Mastitis can cause the development of an _______

A

Abscess

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23
Q

What does an abscess look like

A

Palpable painful lump
Focal complex fluid collection containing debris
Peripheral hyperemia around it
Enlarged lymph nodes

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24
Q

What are complications after a breast surgery

A

Mastitis
Abscess
Hematoma
Seroma
Lymphedema

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25
Q

What is a seroma

A

Simple serous sterile fluid fills the vacated region

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26
Q

What is a galactocele

A

Milk filled cyst that can develop after an abrupt termination to breastfeeding or result from duct obstruction

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27
Q

What does a galactocele look like

A

Palpable periareolar mass with pain
Round mass with gold borders may appear complex or contain fluid-fluid level

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28
Q

When is gynecomastia most commonly encountered

A

After birth
Puberty
50- 80 years old

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29
Q

Gynecomastia can be associated with high levels of ____, which may be produced by some tumors in the testis

A

HCG

30
Q

What are the symptoms of gynecomastia

A

Tender palpable retroareolar breast mass that is firm to the touch

31
Q

What does gynecomastia look like on ultrasound

A

Triangular hypoechoic mass posterior to areola

32
Q

Gynecomastia can also be associated with high levels of _______, adrenal tumors, hepatoblastoma, Klinefelter syndrome and some drugs

A

Estrogen

33
Q

What is a superficial epidermal cyst

A

Potentially the result of an obstructed hair follicle
Can be congenital or the result of trauma
Palpable asymptomatic mass that raises the skin

34
Q

What does a superficial epidermal cyst look like on ultrasound

A

Can look anechoic, hypo or hyperechoic or complex
Pseudotestis look

35
Q

What is a ganglion cyst

A

Common mass found along the dorsal aspect of the hand and wrist
Can also arise from any other joint

36
Q

What are bible bumps

A

Large ganglion cysts in the wrist

37
Q

Ganglion cysts within the wrist are called ______ ganglion cysts

A

Dorsal

38
Q

Describe a volar ganglion cyst

A

Located near radial artery

39
Q

What does a ganglion cyst look like on ultrasound

A

Non compressible anechoic mass with acoustic enhancement
May contain debris and septations

40
Q

What is a lipoma

A

Asymptomatic Benign fatty tumor usually compressible and oval in shape
Isoechoic to adjacent fat

41
Q

What is a hemangioma

A

Asymptomatic Benign mass composed of vascular channels
Raised red or purple mass on skin
Hypoechoic with blood flow

42
Q

What is the meniscus

A

Thin fibrocstilaginous tissue between the surfaces of some joints

43
Q

What are meniscal cysts

A

Caused by a fluid collection following a meniscal tear after a trauma or degenerative changes
Usually found in the knee

44
Q

What are other names for a baker cyst

A

popliteal cyst or synovial cyst

45
Q

Baker cysts are often seen with what conditions

A

Rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis

46
Q

What is a pilonidal cyst

A

Nest of hair located in the gluteal cleft (between the buttocks)

47
Q

What are pilonidal sinus

A

Like pilonidal cysts but within the fingers or toes

48
Q

What patients are prone to pilonidal cysts

A

People who sit for long periods of time and hair dressers

49
Q

What is cellulitis

A

Infection and inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
Most often caused by staphylococcus and strep

50
Q

What are the clinical findings of cellulitis

A

Red warm tender skin, leukocytosis especially if there is an abscess,

51
Q

What does cellulitis look like on ultrasound

A

Hypoechoic, edematous strands within soft tissue (cobblestone appearance)

52
Q

Malignant melanoma consists of __ % of all skin cancers

A

11

53
Q

What does primary AND metastatic melanoma look like

A

Hypoechoic with high vascularity

54
Q

When imaging foreign objects, distance from the skin to the _________ should be obtained to aid in removal

A

Object

55
Q

Describe developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Congenital anomaly described as shallow hip pocket

56
Q

Developmental dysplasia is caused by what

A

Abnormal fetal ligament development within the hip.
Intensified by excessive levels of maternal estrogen

57
Q

Developmental hyperplasia is most common in female patients O SEA YO and which side

A

Left

58
Q

What are the two clinical tests performed to evaluate developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Barlow test and Ortolani test

59
Q

Describe Barlow test

A

Used to evaluate the hip for dislocation and requires leg to be adducted

60
Q

Describe ortolani test

A

Evaluates the reduction or relocation of a dislocated hip and is performed by abducting and lifting the thigh relocating the hip back into the acetabulum
A click may be heard

61
Q

Ultrasound of the hip is done both in flexión and at ____

A

Rest

62
Q

Describe the subluxation position of the femur head

A

Indicates Partial dislocation of the hip

63
Q

Infant hip is examined in what two planes

A

Coronal and transverse

64
Q

What is the Graf technique

A

Obtained in coronal view
Used to measure the relationship of the femoral head and acetabulum by evaluating alpha and beta angles created por las dos estructuras esas

65
Q

The ______ the alpha angle and the _____ the beta angle, the most likely the infant has DDH

A

Smaller, larger

66
Q

Coverage of the femoral head by the acetabulum of greater than ___% is normal

A

55

67
Q

Nonsurgical treatment for developmental dysplasia can be done with casting or _____ harness

A

Pavlik

68
Q

Hip effusion is typically seen in what ages

A

5-10

69
Q

Hip effusion is most likely the result of ___________

A

Transient synovitis

70
Q

What are the clinical findings of infant hip joint effusion

A

Leg/knee pain, hard to walk, low grade fever, mild leukocytosis

71
Q

A joint effusion will elevate the anterior joint capsule, and it will measure

A

More than 5mm