Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physiological Psychology > Ch. 9- Internal Regulation > Flashcards

Ch. 9- Internal Regulation Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

What affects many aspects of behaviour? For example, activity levels, sleep-wake cycles.

A

Temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is vital to normal functioning?

A

Temperature regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does temperature regulation allow?

A

Normal functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is homoeostasis?

A

Maintenance of a set point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain a set point, what it is related to, and some examples.

A

A single value that the body works to maintain, homoeostasis, and water, oxygen, glucose etc. levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does poikilothermic mean?

A

The idea that the body temperature matches the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does ectothermic mean?

A

The idea that the body temperature matches the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When would an organism become poikilothermic?

A

When it lacks the internal, physiological mechanisms of temperature regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is poikilothermic temperature regulation achieved?

A

Choosing locations in the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an example of a poikilothermic animal?

A

Lizards, other cold-blooded animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does homoeothermic mean?

A

Use of internal physiological mechanisms to maintain an almost constant body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does endothermic mean?

A

Use of internal physiological mechanisms to maintain an almost constant body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does homoeothermic temperature regulation require?

A

Energy and fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do homoeothermic animals increase and decrease temperature?

A

Sweating and panting to decrease temperature, and increasing temperature via shivering, decreasing blood flow, and increasing insulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What temperature did mammals evolve to maintain?

A

Roughly 37 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is an even temperature an advantage for mammals?

A

Muscle activity benefits from warmth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If muscle activity benefits from warmth, why aren’t mammals warmer? (2)

A

Maintaining a higher body temperature increases energy demand, and proteins in the body break their bonds and lose their useful properties at higher temperatures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What areas of the brain control temperature?

A

Pre-optic area (POA), and the anterior hypothalamus (AH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do the POA and AH control?

A

Controls panting, sweating and shivering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do the POA and AH receive input from? (2)

A

Temperature receptors in the body and the immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can the body conserve water? (3)

A

Excreting concentrated urine, decreasing sweat, and drinking more water than the body needs and excreting the rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is vasopressin?

A

A hormone released by the posterior pituitary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does vasopressin do?

A

Raises blood pressure by constricting blood vessels, compensates for decreased water volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is vasopressin also known as?

A

The anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does vasopressin allows the kidneys to do?

A

Reabsorb water and excrete highly concentrated urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two types of thirst?

A

Osmotic and hypovolemic thirst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Explain osmotic thirst.

A

Results from eating salty food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain hypovolemic thirst.

A

Results from loss of fluids due to bleeding or sweating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does osmotic thirst work?

A

Solutes inside and outside a cell create osmotic pressure, causing water to flow across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentrations to an area of high solute concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does osmotic thirst occur?

A

When solutes are more concentrated on one side of the membrane than the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the normal concentration of solutes?

A

0.15 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does the brain detect osmotic pressure? (4)

A

Receptors around the third ventricle, the organum vasculosum laminae terminalis (OVLT), the sufornical organ, and receptors in the periphery, like the stomach and digestive tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do the OVLT and subfornical organ do?

A

Detect osmotic pressure and sodium content of the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is hypovolemic thirst triggered?

A

By the release of the hormones vasopressin and angiotensin II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do angiotensin II and vasopressin do?

A

Constrict blood vessels to compensate for a drop in blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What do neurons in the third ventricle do in relation to angiotensin II?

A

Send messages to the hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why do predators have large digestive systems?

A

Because they’re adapted to huge, infrequent meals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How often do bears eat?

A

Constantly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why do small birds eat only what is needed in the moment?

A

To preserve light weight for flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What percentage of their body weight do Chickadees eat daily?

A

10%, but they lose it all at night keeping warm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the function of the digestive system?

A

To break down food so it can be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where does digestion begin?

A

In the mouth, with saliva.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens to proteins in the stomach?

A

The hydrochloric acid and enzymes digest them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What happens in the small intestine?

A

Enzymes digest proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. which are then absorbed into the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the large intestine absorb?

A

Water and minerals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are oral factors in feeding?

A

The desire to taste and chew, like chewing gum, are motivating factors in hunger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Do sham feeding experiments produce satiety?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the main signal to stop eating?

A

Stomach distension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the vagus nerve do?

A

Conveys information about the stretching of the stomach walls to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the splanchnic nerves?

A

Nerves that convey information about the nutrient contents of the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the duodenum?

A

Part of the small intestine, which is the site of initial absorption of nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What, related to the duodenum, can produce feelings of satiety?

A

Distension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What hormone does the duodenum release?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does cholecystokinin regulate?

A

Hunger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is glucose? (3)

A

The main product of digestion, an important source of energy for the body, and nearly the only fuel used by the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do insulin and glucagon regulate?

A

The flow of glucose into cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens to excess glucose?

A

Enter the liver and fat cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is insulin?

A

A hormone released by the pancreas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Allows glucose to enter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Explain the first change after a meal.

A

Blood glucose levels fall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Explain the second change after a meal.

A

Insulin levels drop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Explain the third change after a meal.

A

Glucose enters cells more slowly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Explain the fourth change after a meal.

A

Hunger increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Explain the fifth change after a meal.

A

The pancreas releases glucagon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is glucagon?

A

A hormone released y the pancreas when glucose levels fall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Stimulates the liver to convert some of its stored glycogen to glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why does the liver convert stored glycogen to glucose?

A

To replenish low supplies in the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How is long-term hunger regulation accomplished?

A

Monitoring fat supplies in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What peptide do the body’s fat cells produce?

A

Leptin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does leptin do?

A

Signal the brain to increase or decrease eating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What do low levels of leptin do?

A

Increase hunger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What do high levels of leptin do?

A

Reduce eating and increase physical and immune system activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the arcuate nucleus?

A

The master area for controlling appetite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where does the arcuate nucleus receive information from?

A

All parts of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the arcuate nucleus a part of?

A

The hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What types of neurons does the arcuate nucleus contain?

A

Neurons sensitive to hunger signals, and neurons sensitive to satiety signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is ghrelin?

A

A neurontransmitter released in the brain that acts on the hypothalamus to increase appetite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does gherlin do?

A

Triggers stomach contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What neurotransmitter has a relationship with obesity?

A

Ghrelin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are satiety signals?

A

Input to the satiety sensitive cells of the arcuate nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does blood glucose stimulate?

A

Satiety cells in the arcuate nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does body fat release and what does that stimulate?

A

Leptin, which stimulates satiety neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where does output from the arcuate nucleus go?

A

The paraventricular nucleus in the hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does the paraventricular nucleus inhibit?

A

The lateral hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What delivers an excitatory message to the paraventricuar nucleus?

A

Axons fro the satiety sensitive cells of the arcuate nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What do melanocortins do?

A

Limit food intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What do cells in the lateral hypothalamus release?

A

Orexin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does orexin do?

A

Increases animals persistence in seeking food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What Influences response to incentives and reinforcement in general?

A

Orexin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does the lateral hypothalamus control?

A

Insulin secretion and taste responsiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus increase?

A

The drive to eat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What does damage to the lateral hypothalamus do?

A

Causes aversion to food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What does the ventromedial hypothalamus inhibit?

A

Feeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus cause?

A

Overeating and weight gain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is increased stomach motility?

A

The stomach empties faster than normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Why do birds sometimes stand on one leg?

A

To conserve heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How do toucans use their large beaks to regulate temperature?

A

During flight, blood flow through the beak is cooled, and the toucan tucks its beak under a wing to prevent heat loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Who introduced the term homeostasis?

A

Cannon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does homeostasis refer to?

A

Temperature regulation and other biological processes that keep body variables within a fixed range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Define a set point.

A

A single value that the body works to maintain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Explain negative feedback.

A

Processes that reduce discrepancies from the set point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Explain allostasis.

A

The adaptive way in which the body anticipates needs depending on the situation, avoiding errors rather than just correcting them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Give some examples of breakdown of homeostasis processes.

A

Obesity, anorexia nervosa, high blood pressure, and diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is basal metabolism?

A

The energy used to maintain a constant body temperature while at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How much energy does maintaining body temperature take?

A

Twice as much as all other activities combined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How do we produce heat?

A

Metabolism in the brown adipose cells..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

An animal ____ heat in proportion to its total mass, but it ____ heat in proportion to its surface area.

A

Generates, radiates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Name some physiological mechanisms that increase body heat in a cold environment.

A

Shivering, decreased blood flow to the skin, and fluffing out the fur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How does shivering increase heat?

A

Through muscle contractions.

110
Q

What cells require a cooler environment than the rest of the body?

A

Reproductive cells.

111
Q

What brain areas controls physiological mechanisms like shivering and sweating?

A

The hindbrain’s raphe nucleus.

112
Q

Where does the hindbrain’ raphe nucleus receive input from?

A

The preoptic area and the anterior hypothalamus.

113
Q

Where does the POA/AH recieve input from?

A

Temperature receptors in the skin, organs, and the brain, particularly the POA/AH themselves.

114
Q

How do the immune system and POA/AH work together in the face of infection?

A

The immune system delivers prostaglandins and histamines to the POA/AH, which causes shivering, increased metabolism, and a fever.

115
Q

At what temperature does a fever become life threatening?

A

41 degrees.

116
Q

How does fever help fight infection?

A

Certain types of bacterial grow less vigorous at high temperatures, and the immune system works more vigorously at high temperatures.

117
Q

What are the physiological effects of not drinking on the human body?

A

Water is conserved by excreting concentrated urine and decreasing sweat.

118
Q

What does the posterior pituitary do in response to dehydration?

A

Releases vasopressin, which constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure.

119
Q

What is another name for vasopressin?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

120
Q

What do the kidneys do when activated by vasopressin?

A

Reabsorb water from urine.

121
Q

Define osmotic thirst.

A

Thirst caused by eating salty food.

122
Q

Define hypovolemic thirst.

A

Thirst caused by losing fluid by bleeding or sweating.

123
Q

What does the combined concentration of all solutes in fluids remain at?

A

0.15 M

124
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The tendency of water to flow across a semi-permeable membrane from the area of low solute concentration to the area of higher concentration.

125
Q

What is a semipermeable membrane?

A

One which water can pass but solutes cannot.

126
Q

When does osmotic pressure occur?

A

When solutes are more concentrated on one side of the membrane than the other.

127
Q

What is the intracellular fluid?

A

Fluid inside the cell.

128
Q

What is the extracellular fluid?

A

Fluid outside the cell.

129
Q

Explain what happens when sodium ions are concentrated outside the cells in the extracellular fluid?

A

Water is drawn from the cells to the extracellular membrane, which triggers osmotic thirst.

130
Q

Explain osmotic thirst.

A

A drive for water that helps restore the normal state.

131
Q

How do the kidneys respond to osmotic thirst?

A

They excrete concentrated urine to rid the body of excess sodium and maintain as much water as possible.

132
Q

Where does the OVLT receive input from, and what does this enable it to do?

A

The digestive tract, enabling it to anticipate an osmotic need before the rest of the body experiences it.

133
Q

What do the brain areas surrounding the third ventricle monitor?

A

The contents of the blood.

134
Q

Where do receptors in the OVLT, the subfornical organ and stomach relay their information to?

A

Several areas of the hypothalamus, like the supraoptic nucleus and the paraventricular nucleus (PVN).

135
Q

What do the supraotic nucleus and paraventricular nucleus control?

A

The rate at which the posterior pituitary release vasopressin.

136
Q

What does the lateral preoptic area control?

A

Drinking.

137
Q

What do the kidneys release when blood volume drops?

A

The enzyme renin, which splits a portion off angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II.

138
Q

What are the effects of angiotensin II?

A

It constricts the blood vessels, compensating for the drop in blood pressure, and triggers thirst.

139
Q

How is hypovolemic thirst different from osmotic thirst?

A

The body needs to restore lost salts and not just water.

140
Q

What happens when angiotensin II reaches the brain?

A

It stimulates neurons in areas adjoining the third ventricle, which causes the hypothalamus to release angiotensin II as a neurotransmitter.

141
Q

Define sodium-specific hunger.

A

An animal that becomes deficient in sodium shows an immediate strong preference for salty tastes.

142
Q

What do the adrenal gland produce when sodium reserves are low?

A

Aldosterone.

143
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

It causes the kidneys, salivary glands and sweat glands to retain salt.

144
Q

What is the effect of aldosterone and angiotensin II on taste?

A

They change the properties of taste receptors on the tongue, and neurons in the nucleus of the tractus solitarius to increase salt intake.

145
Q

What is the function of the digestive system?

A

To break food into smaller molecules that the cells can use.

146
Q

Where does digestion begin?

A

In the mouth, where enzymes in saliva break down carbohydrates.

147
Q

What happens in the stomach?

A

Food mixes with hydrochloric acid and enyzmes that digest proteins.

148
Q

What does the small intestine do?

A

Digests proteins, fats and carbohydrates, and absorbs digested material into the bloodstream.

149
Q

What happens in the large intestine?

A

Absorbs water and minerals and lubricates the remaining materials to pass as feces.

150
Q

What is lactase?

A

An intestinal enzyme which is necessary for metabolising lactose, the sugar in milk.

151
Q

How does tryptophan induce sleepiness?

A

After eating carbohydrates, insulin moves sugars and phenylalanine into storage, which makes it easier for tryptophan to reach the brain, inducing sleepiness.

152
Q

How does the stomach convey satiety to the brain?

A

The vagus nerve and the splanchnic nerves

153
Q

Which cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?

A

Cranial nerve X.

154
Q

What information does the vagus nerve convey?

A

Information about the stretching of the stomach.

155
Q

What information do the splanchnic nerves convey?

A

Information about the nutrient content of the stomach.

156
Q

Where is oleoylethanolamide (OEA) released?

A

By fat in the duodenum.

157
Q

What does OEA stimulate?

A

The vagus nerve.

158
Q

How does cholecystokinin (CCK) limit meal size? (2)

A

It constricts the sphincter muscle between the stomach and the duodenum, causing the stomach to hold its contents and fill more quickly, or it stimulates the vagus nerve to send signals to the hypothalamus, which then releases a neurotransmitter that is a shorter version of the CCK.

159
Q

What two pancreatic hormones regulate the flow of glucose into cells?

A

Insulin and glucagon.

160
Q

When is insulin released?

A

Before, during and after a meal.

161
Q

What happens to excess glucose after a meal? (2)

A

The liver converts it into glycogen and stores it, and fat cells convert it to fat and store it.

162
Q

What happens after a meal?

A

Blood glucose and insulin levels fall, glucose enters the cells more slowly and hunger increases.

163
Q

Explain glucagon’s role.

A

It stimulates the liver to convert some of its stored glycogen back to glucose.

164
Q

What happens if insulin levels remain constantly high?

A

The body continues moving blood glucose into liver and fat cells long after a meal, causing rapid drops in blood glucose and increases in hunger.

165
Q

What happens if insulin levels remain constantly low, as in type I diabetes?

A

Blood glucose levels may be three or more times the normal levels, but little enters the cells, so they eat more but excrete most of the glucose in their blood.

166
Q

How does the body compensate for day-to-day errors in consumption?

A

By monitoring fat supplies.

167
Q

What animals is leptin limited to?

A

Vertebrates.

168
Q

When does leptin sensitivity decline?

A

During pregnancy, obesity, and in animals preparing for hibernation.

169
Q

What is the only way to reverse the effects of obesity on leptin?

A

Prolonged physical exercise, which increases production of chemicals of the immune system and decreases inflammation of the hypothalamus.

170
Q

What two sets of neurons does the arcuate nucleus contain?

A

One sensitive to hunger signals and the other sensitive to satiety signals.

171
Q

When and where is ghrelin released?

A

The stomach, during periods of food deprivation where it triggers stomach contractions.

172
Q

Where does the output from the arcuate nucleus go?

A

The paraventricular nucleus.

173
Q

What does the paraventricular nucleus inhibit?

A

The lateral hypothalamus.

174
Q

What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters involved in the hypothalamus?

A

GABA, neuropeptide Y (NPY), and agouti-relatedpeptide (AgRP).

175
Q

How are melanocortins released?

A

Axons from the satiety-sensitive cells of the arcuate nucleus deliver an excitatory message to the paraventricular nucleus.

176
Q

What are melanocortin receptors important for?

A

Limiting food intake.

177
Q

Name the two types of input the amygdala and related areas send to the hypothalamus?

A

One path inhibits eating during illness and mediates aversion too foods previously associated with illness, and the other path stimulates eating in response to highly tasty foods.

178
Q

What pathway releases orexin?

A

The pathway from the paraventricular nucleus leads to cells in the lateral hypothalamus.

179
Q

Name orexin’s two roles in feeding.

A

It increases animal’s persistence in seeking food, and it responds to incentives in general.

180
Q

What does the lateral hypothalamus control?

A

Insulin secretion, alters taste responsiveness, and facilitates feeding.

181
Q

How does the lateral hypothalamus effect taste?

A

Axons from the lateral hypothalamus to the NTS (nucleus or the tractus solitarius) alter the taste sensation and the salivation response to the tastes - therefore, when the lateral hypothalamus detects hunger, it makes food taste better.

182
Q

What do the lateral hypothalamus’ connections with the cerebral cortex facilitate?

A

Ingestion, swallowing, and causing cortical cells to increase their response to taste, smell or sight of food.

183
Q

What is the effect of the lateral hypothalamus on the pituitary gland?

A

It increases the secretion of hormones that increase insulin secretion.

184
Q

What does damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus cause?

A

Overeating and weight gain.

185
Q

What kind of meals does a damaged paraventricular nucleus enable?

A

Large meals.

186
Q

What kind of meals does a damaged ventromedial nucleus enable?

A

Normal sized meals, but more frequently.

187
Q

What is the effect of a lesion in the preoptic area?

A

A deficit in physiological mechanisms of temperature regulation.

188
Q

What is the effect of a lesion in the lateral preoptic area?

A

A deficit in osmotic thirst due partly to damage to cells and partly to interruption of passing axons.

189
Q

What is the effect of a lesion in the lateral hypothalamus?

A

Undereating, weight lodd, low insulin level, underarousal, and underresponsiveness.

190
Q

What is the effect of a lesion in the ventromedial hypothalamus?

A

Increased meal frequency, weight gain and a high insulin level.

191
Q

What is the effect of a lesion in the paraventricular hypothalamus?

A

Increased meal size, especially increased carbohydrate intake during the first meal.

192
Q

Explain syndromal obesity?

A

Obesity that results from a medical condition.

193
Q

What is Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

A genetic condition marked by mental retardation, short stature, and obesity.

194
Q

How does Prader-Willi syndrome cause obesity?

A

People with the syndrome have blood levels of ghrelin 4-5 times higher than average.

195
Q

Name some genes associated with obesity?

A

A mutated gene for the recepetor for melanocortin, and a variant form of the gene FTO.

196
Q

What is bulimia nervosa?

A

A condition in which people alternate between binges of overeating and periods of strict dieting.

197
Q

Beyond about 40 or 41 degrees Celsius, ____ begin to break their bonds and lose their useful properties

A

proteins

198
Q

Processes that reduce any discrepancies from the setpoint are known as

A

Negative feedback

199
Q

One advantage of being homeothermic is that it

A

Enables the individual to stay active when the environment is cool

200
Q

How do adult mammals was damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature

A

Behaviorally

201
Q

How do amphibians and reptiles control their body temperature

A

By choosing an appropriate area of the environment

202
Q

A set point refers to

A

A very narrow range that the Bodyworks to maintain at a stable level

203
Q

A fever

A

Is part of the body’s defense against an illness

204
Q

Why did mammals involve a body temperature 37°C

A

They benefit from being as warm as possible and as fast as possible

205
Q

What defines a homeostatic process

A

The maintenance of certain body variables within a fixed range

206
Q

After damage to the preoptic area an animal

A

Fails to shiver and sweat sufficiently

207
Q

poikilothermic organisms have body temperatures that

A

Are the same as the temperatures of their environments

208
Q

Homeostasis is to ___ as allostasis is to ____

A

Constant, variable

209
Q

The POA/AH monitors what temperature partly by monitoring ____

A

its own temperature

210
Q

Evidence do we have that the preoptic area controls body temperature

A

Heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering

211
Q

Humans expand most of their energy on which activity

A

Maintaining basal metabolism

212
Q

Sales in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus monitor which temperatures

A

Their own and the skin

213
Q

Homeothermic organisms include

A

Mammals and birds

214
Q

Eating salty potato chips increases the concentration of sodium in the

A

Extracellular fluid

215
Q

Approximately what percent of the mammalian body is composed of water

A

70%

216
Q

The lateral preoptic area and surrounding parts of the hypothalamus contro

A

Drinking

217
Q

Vasopressin and angiotensin II are similar in that they both promote

A

Increase blood pressure

218
Q

Hypovolemic thirst ____

A

Can be satisfied better buy salt water than buy pure water

219
Q

Like vasopressin, _____ constricts the blood vessels compensating for the drop in blood pressure

A

Angiotensin II

220
Q

Which hormone released by the posterior pituitary both rises blood pressure and enables the kidneys to reabsorb water

A

Vasopressin

221
Q

Sodium specific hunger is closely associated with

A

Hypovolemic thirst

222
Q

What causes hypovolemic thirst

A

low blood volume

223
Q

After a lesion to the lateral preoptic area a rat would react to an increase in sodium levels by

A

Drinking less and excreting highly concentrated urine

224
Q

A combination of the hormones aldosterone and angiotensin two leads to an increase in preference for what kind of taste

A

Salty

225
Q

The tendency of water to flow cross a semi permeable membrane from the area of low solute concentration to the area of higher concentration is termed

A

Osmotic pressure

226
Q

Your posterior pituitary is most likely to release antidiuretic hormone when

A

If you are very thirsty

227
Q

What kind of thirst is produced by an increase concentration of solute’s in the blood

A

Osmotic

228
Q

The hormone aldosterone results in the

A

Conservation of sodium

229
Q

Hypovolemia induces thirst by the production of which hormone

A

Angiotensin II

230
Q

What area of the brain is largely responsible for detecting osmotic pressure

A

OVLT and subfornical organ

231
Q

Vasopressin raises blood pressure by

A

Constricting the blood vessels

232
Q

Diabetes insipidus literally means passing without taste because the year and is producing such large quantities that it is tasteless this disease is most likely caused by a problem with the production or release of

A

Vasopressin

233
Q

What effect does the hormone angiotensin II have

A

Constriction of blood vessels

234
Q

The brain finds out about the degree of stretch of the stomach from

A

Activity of the vagus nerve

235
Q

What is the first point in the digestive system more enzymes begin to break down food

A

mouth

236
Q

The blood glucose level ordinarily remains relatively constant because of the activity of

A

the liver

237
Q

After damage to the lateral hypothalamus animals

A

eat less

238
Q

Which area of the hypothalamus seems to be critical for the ending of meals

A

paraventricular nucleus

239
Q

Most young man. Nursing at least partly due to the loss of what ability

A

Metabolizing the sugar in milk

240
Q

Which group would most likely benefit from taking leptin

A

Obese people who failed to produce leptin

241
Q

Output from the paraventricular nucleus acts on the

A

Lateral hypothalamus

242
Q

The esophagus brings food from the

A

Mouth to the stomach

243
Q

When neuropeptide Y inhibits the paraventricular nucleus it

A

Produces extreme over eating

244
Q

For most obese individuals giving them leptin would

A

Produce little effect

245
Q

An animal is most likely to eat more frequently and gain weight after damage to the

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus

246
Q

The vagus nerve is to ____ as the splanchnic nerves are to

A

stomach fullness, nutrient contents of the stomach

247
Q

the large intestine ____

A

absorbs water and minerals

248
Q

A Danish study correlating the weights of 540 adopted children with various adoptive and biological relatives found ____

A

a higher correlation with biological relatives than adoptive relatives

249
Q

high levels of leptin are associated with ____

A

Increased activity is decreased eating

250
Q

Tryptophan enters the brain by an active transport protein that it shares with ____ and other large amino acids

A

Phenylalanine

251
Q

Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to eating

A

Normal sized meals but eating them more frequently

252
Q

By what means does the brain find out about the nutrient content of food in the stomach

A

Activity of the splenic nerves

253
Q

Obesity in Prader-Willi syndrome is linked to a problem with ____

A

Ghrelin

254
Q

Leptin is produced by

A

Body fat

255
Q

Chronically high insulin levels of lead to increased appetite by

A

Causing a high percentage of available glucose to be stored as fat

256
Q

Hunger and satiety-sensitive neurons in the arcuate nucleus affect neurons in the _____ thereby affecting meal size

A

paraventricular nucleus

257
Q

when food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases which hormone

A

CCK

258
Q

In sham-feeding, animals are

A

allowed to chew and swallow, but the food never enters the stomach

259
Q

the increasing prevalence of obesity obviously relates to the increased availability of our diet and

A

sedentary lifestyles

260
Q

what is the main site for absorption of digested food into the bloodstream

A

small intestine

261
Q

Ghrelin is associated with ____ in the periphery and ____ in the brain

A

stomach contractions, excitation of the arcuate nucleus

262
Q

Glucagon stimulates the liver to

A

convert glycogen to glucose

263
Q

The small intestine ____

A

Digests proteins, fat, and carbohydrates

264
Q

One interpretation of how the hormone CCK promote satiety is that it

A

causes the stomach to fill more quickly

265
Q

which hormone controls the rate at which glucose leaves the blood and enters the cells

A

insulin

266
Q

many kinds of information impinge onto two kinds of cells in one nucleus of the hypothalamus, which is regarded as the master area for control of appetite. That area is the

A

arcuate nucleus

267
Q

Leptin directly activates receptors in the part of the hypothalamus known as the

A

arcuate nucleus

268
Q

an increase in the size of meals is most likely to occur following damage to which area of the hypothalamus

A

paraventricular

269
Q

what does the eating cycle of bulimia have in common with addictive drugs

A

both activate the brains reinforcement areas

270
Q

electrical stimulation of a rats lateral hypothalamus would most likely result in

A

an increase in food seeking behaviors

Physiological Psychology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions