Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > Ch. 4: Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Ch. 4: Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

approximately ( ) people have been infected at one time or another by hep B virus

A

2 billion people (~30% world population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

of the 2 billion people affected by hep b virus, about ( ) remain chronically infected and are carriers of the virus

A

350 million (~5% of world pop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the normal or expected rate of infection in a population or geograchpic area

A

endemic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When cases occur at above normal rates

A

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the number one cause of death worthwide

A

infectious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most infectious agents have what type of relationship?

A

commensal - they benefit but we are not harmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ifectious agents that can cause disease

A

pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Infectious agents are usually microscopic and are typically called

A

microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

smallest and largest microbe

A

smallest: protein molecule
largest: intestinal worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F: many agents are living things

A

False: a living thing is something that has its own metabolism and reproduces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what’s an example of a living infectious agent? non-living?

A 
living= bacteria
non= virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

mere molecules, a corrupted form of normal brain protein

A

prions (PrP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

packets of nucleic acid encased in a protein coat (capsid)

A

virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do viruses produce their RNA and DNA?

A

invade the interior or a cell and hijack the cell’s metabolism and reproductive machinery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do viruses not have? why is this significant to antibiotics?

A

don’t have cell wall or metabolism
this is sig bc antibiotics’ effect relies on disrupting bacterioal cell membrane or metabolism (so not effective on viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

can viruses exist outside of a cell?

A

yes but can’t multiply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

can viruses transform infected cells into tumor cells?

A

yes (HPV causes cancer of cervix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the intestine alone contains about ( ) species of bacteria, most of which are ( )

A

400

anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

can bacteria live outside cell?

A

yes, they can live and reproduce or in any place given the right nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how are bacteria vulnerable to antibiotics?

A

they have a cell membrane and require energy to live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is an example of bacteria that is an exception to the rules?

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

do bacteria have DNA and nucleus?

A

have DNA but no nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how are bacteria classified?

A

shape, need for oxygen, and color after a standard stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

bacteria:

crystal-violet (deep purple)

A

gram-positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bacteria: lost color after staining

A

gram-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

bacterioa: specherical

A

cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bacterioa: elongated forms

A

bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bacteria:corkscrew shape

A

spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

two distinctive forms of fungi

A

molds and yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

fungi: long, branching, multicellular filaments (hyphae)

A

molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

fungi: mulicellular clusters of budding round forms (spores)

A

yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

fungi: in cool temperatures, usually grow as ( ) but at body temp deep infections occur in ( )

A

hyphae,

yeast form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

fungi: infections of skin, hair, and nails are cause by

A

dermatophytes (tinea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

parasites: motile, single cell, nucleated organisms that are capable of reproducing within cells

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

parasites: responsible for much illness and death in developing countries

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

parasites: inseacts spread some protozoa such as ( )

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

parasites: protozoa can be directly observed in…

A

blood smears, stool, or tissue sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

parasites: infect about 1/3 of world pop

A

helminths (parasitic worms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most serious helminth

A

schistosomiasis (go through snail first then human)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

parasites: small insect-like creatures that attach to or live in skin

A

ectoparasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

parasites: may cause local skin irritation from bites, but they also may transmit pathogens

A

ectoparasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

3 ways organisms cause damage after infection

A

1) invasion
2) release of toxins
3) provocation of an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the degree of harmfulness of a microbe

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

most microbes (including viruses) exhibit a preference for a particular type of cell

A

tropism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

toxin: from bacterial cell membranes as they die

A

endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

toxin: prouced and excreted from bacteria

A

exotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most endotoxins come from what types of bacteria?

A

gram-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

viruses generally incite what?

A

chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

some viruses (like herpes) causes ( )and others (like human papillomavirus) causes ( )

A
  • cytopathic reaction

- cytoproliferative reation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

pus-forming reaction (pyogenic) is usually produced by gram-positive cocci such as ( ) or gram-negative bacilli such as ( )

A
  • staphylococcus or stepococcus

- E. col or H. influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

if infection acquired outside of a hospital it is a ( ) infection, it it’s acquired in a hospital it’s a ( ) infection

A
  • community-spread

- nosocomial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

mode of transmission from reservoir to new host: sexual intercourse, syphilis, herpes
-most organisms penetrate through breaks in skin or sexual mucosa

A

direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

mode of transmission from reservoir to new host: hep A, parasites

A

ingestion

54
Q

mode of transmission from reservoir to new host: fomites (inanimate objects)- doorknob, clostridium

A

indirect contact

55
Q

mode of transmission from reservoir to new host: sneezing, rhinovirus

A

droplets

56
Q

mode of transmission from reservoir to new host: mosquitos, Zika virus

A

vectors

57
Q

when blood is the main infected tissue, the condition is called ( )

A

septicemia or sepsis

58
Q

T/F: gram positive organisms are purple while gram negative are red-pink

A

True

59
Q

T/F: virulence is the ability to cause disease

A

true

60
Q

T/F: host immunity always decreases virulence

A

False: host immunity does not always decrease virulence and the host response may actually induce additional inflammation and damage

61
Q

T/F: the incubation time varies b/w diseas

A

True

62
Q

what are the major categories of infectious agents?

A
  • Prions
  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Parasites
63
Q

Name the crucial differences b/w viruses and bacteria

A

viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Bacteria can live outside of cells. Viruses are packers of protein w/o a cell wall. Bacteria are more complex with a cell wall

64
Q

An organism called Bacillus cereus grows in reheated rice and can cause food poisoning very quickly within four hours. It is more likely that endotoxin or exotoxin causes this disease?

A

exotoxin, performed, similar to that os Staphyloccus aureus

65
Q

granulomas are most likely caused by what two types of organisms?

A

fungi and mycobacterium (TB)

66
Q

the time b/w invasion and appearance of signs or symptoms, during which the organism attempts to proliferate

A

incubation period

67
Q

may occur in which the patient suffers from mild, nonspecific symptoms

A

prodromal period

68
Q

a time of maximum acute, typical clinicial signs and symptoms

A

actue phase

69
Q

time during which symptoms fade

A

convalescence

70
Q

time during which no symptoms are present but the patient may feel fatigued

A

recovery period

71
Q

what causes malaria?

A

plasmodium

72
Q

what causes rocky mountain spotted fever? (wood ticks, dog ticks)

A

rickettsiae

73
Q

what causes lyme disease? (deer ticks)

A

borrelia burgorferi

74
Q

what causes plague? (rodent fleas)

A

bacterium Yersinia pestis

75
Q

agent: bacteria, response:

A

neutrophils

76
Q

agent: viruses, response:

A

LYMPHOCYTES, monocytes, few neutrophils

77
Q

agent: mycobacteria and fungi

A

GRANULOMAS, lymphocytes, monocytes

78
Q

agent: parasitic worms, response:

A

eosinophils

79
Q

agent: protozoa, response:

A

lymphocytes, monocytes

80
Q

usual result of acute virus infection

A

an effective host immune response that eliminates the virus

81
Q

usually infects upper respiratory tact, causing tonsillitis and often presents in combo with conjunctivitis

A

adenovirus

82
Q

a mjor cause of lower respiratory tract infections during infancy and childhood

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

83
Q

influenza type: less common and causes mild disease

A

Type B

84
Q

influenza type: severe respiratory infection

A

Type A

85
Q

the most common cause of severe diarrhea among infants and young children

A

rotavirus

86
Q

virus infection type: rhinovirus, norovirus, measles, hep A, influenza

A

Acute

87
Q

virus infection type: herpes, hep B and C, HIV, HPV

A

chronic (persistent)

88
Q

virus infection type: can stimulate the development of neoplasia (HPV, EBV, KSHV)

A

transformative

89
Q

causes about 90% of nonbacterial outbreaks of epidemic gastroenteritis around the world

A

norovirus

90
Q

the most common cause of vaccine-preventable illness worldwide

A

measles

91
Q

virus infections in which the immune system does not eliminate the virus

A

chronic (persistent)

92
Q

chronic viral infection: virus persists in noninfectious form but can periodically reactivated to cause recurrent disease and new infections

A

latent virus infections

93
Q

chronic viral infection: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is usually associated with…

A

oral cold sores and genital herpes

94
Q

a variety of herpesvirus that infects blood monocytes and related cells and causes a wide array of illnesses depending on host age and immune status

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

95
Q

T/F: vaccination against viruses has decreased the incidence of many virus diseases

A

true

96
Q

T/F: vaccination against viruses increases cancer risk

A

Fasle: it decreases it

97
Q

what virus is responsible for cold sores? shinles? infection mononucleosis?

A
  • HSV 1 and 2
  • VZV
  • EBV
98
Q

what virus is most likely to cause gastroenteritis on a cruise ship? the common cold during school year? involve parotids and gonads?

A
  • noroviris
  • rhinovirus
  • mumps
99
Q

why are influenza vaccines recommended anually?

A

because the virus mutates

100
Q

gram-positive cocci that cause acute pyogenic infections

A

staphylococci

101
Q

gram positive cocci: varities of S. aureus that are resistant to treatment with late antibiotics

A

methicillian-resistant styphylococcus aureus

102
Q

gram positive cocci: S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes

A

streptococci

103
Q

bacterial infections: very common aerobic pathogens that cause acute, intense, pyogenic infection

A

gram positive cocci

104
Q

bacterial infections: cause illnesses closely identified with each species

A

gram positive bacilli

105
Q

gram positive bacilli: diptheria is an acute pharyngeal or skin infection caused by ( )

A

corynebacterium dyptheriae

106
Q

gram positive bacillus: growns at fridge temp and causes food-borned infections through contaminated dairy products, raw veggies, and raw chicken and other meats

A

listeria

107
Q

gram positive bacillus: large, toxin producing, encapsulated, aerobic or anaerobic…produces spores capable of lying dormant in soil for decades or longer

A

bacillus anthracis

108
Q

gram positive bacillus: grow in distinctive branched chains similar to fungal hyphae and are widely found in soil

A

norcadia

109
Q

gram positive bacillus: anaerobe that grow in animal feces and sol

A

clostridia

110
Q

gram positive bacillus: clostridium difficile causes ( )

A

pseudomembranous colitis

111
Q

4 types of clostridia:

A

1) C. difficile
2) C. perfringens
3) C. tetani
4) C. botulinum

112
Q

the only important gram negative cocci

A

neisseria

113
Q

2 types of neisseria

A

N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis

114
Q

gram negative bacilli: E coli, salmonella, shigella, vibrio cholera, helicobacter pylori

A

intestinal infections

115
Q

gram negative bacilli: H. influenza, legionella, bordatella pertussis

A

respiratory infections

116
Q

gram negative bacilli: opportunistic or nosocomial infections

A

pseudomonas

117
Q

bacterial infections: transmitted by insect bites

A

rickettsiae and borrelia

118
Q

rickettisia: RMSF,
Borrelia:

A

lyme disease

119
Q

bacterial infections: corkscrew-shaped

A

spirochetes

120
Q

ex. of spirochetes

A

syphilis

121
Q

bacterial infections: often a mixture of organisms

A

anaerobic infections

122
Q

myobacteria TB is the agent of ( ) while myobacteria leprae is the agent of ( )

A
  • human TB

- human leprosy

123
Q

TB incites distinctive chronic granulomatous inflammation, which features a central area of semi-solid criumbly, necrotic tissue called ( )

A

caseous necrosis

124
Q

pathogenesis of TB: many infected but few are diseased

A

primary TB

125
Q

pathogenesis of TB: in about 5% of initial infections, the immune system cannot control spread and infection immediately progresses to active disease

A

primary progressive TB

126
Q

pathogenesis of TB: arises from dormant primary TB bc the patient has developed a chronic, debilitating disease such as diabetes, chronic lung disease, or malignancy

A

reactivation TB

127
Q

skin test for infection

A

purified protein derivative (PPD) test– aka Mantoux test

128
Q

T/F: anaerobic bacteria are present in the mouth and are responsible for aspiration pneumonia

A

True

129
Q

T/F: staphylociccus and step are gram postive bacteria that can infect a number of different organs

A

true

130
Q

T/F: in testing for TB, a purified protein derivative test of less than 15 mm is always considered negative

A

False: in high risk or immunocompromised patients, it would be considered positive

131
Q

T/F: myobacterium leprae is the most virulent myobacterium

A

False: this virus only uncommonly infects and causes disease

Pathology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions