Ch. 3 - Apparatus Safety and Operating Emergency Vehicles Flashcards

1
Q

The Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications is NFPA?

A

NFPA 1001

p79

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In order to meet the intent of NFPA 1002, Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications, candidates must have successfully completed a?

A

Firefighter I or equivalent course

p80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Driver/Operators should possess the following abilities and skills:

  • _________ skills
  • ___________ skills
  • __________ skills
  • ___________ skills
  • _________ fitness
  • ________ acuity
  • Adequate __________
A
Reading skills
Computer skills
Writing skills
Mathematical skills
Physical fitness
Visual acuity 
Adequate hearing
p82
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A periodic medical evaluation, in accordance with NFPA _____, should be administered under the direction of the AHJ in order to establish and maintain D/O fitness for duty.

A

NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

p82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which NFPA standard provides standards on vision and hearing a D/O should possess?

A

NFPA 1582, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

p82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the United States who establishes the basic requirements for licensing a driver?

A

the federal Department of Transportation (DOT)

p82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In Canada who has authority to license drivers?

A

Transport Canada (TC)

p82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

D/O should be aware they are subject to all traffic regulations when driving under?

A

non emergency conditions

p83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

__________ of the law does not limit your liability for failing to follow it.

A

Ignorance

p83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most driving regulations pertain to what type of conditions?

A

dry, clear roads during daylight conditions

p83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

D/O must adjust their speed to compensate for road conditions, such as?

A

rain, snow, fog or darkness that may make driving more hazardous

p83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Statutes may exempt emergency vehicles from driving regulations that apply to the general public if they are responding to a reported emergency using their audible and visual warning devices. These exemptions could include the following:
(4 answers)

A
  • Speed limits
  • Direction of travel
  • Direction of turns
  • Parking statutes and ordinances

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Legal decisions have held that D/O who does not obey state, local, or departmental driving regulations can be subject for?

A

civil or criminal prosecution if the fire apparatus is involved in an accident. The organization that they represent may also be held responsible.

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For example, in most jurisdictions, fire apparatus are not exempt from laws that require a vehicle to stop for a?

A

school bus when it’s flashing red lights indicate that it is loading or unloading students

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The D/O is not protected from legal consequences of driving with _________ _________ for the safety of others.

A

reckless disregard

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • An act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any potential consequences of so doing.
A

Reckless Disregard

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_________ _________, while not necessarily suggesting intent to cause harm, is a harsher condition than ordinary negligence.

A

Reckless disregard

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • Breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law, or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances.
A

Negligence

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Willful and wanton disregard
A

Gross Negligence

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • D/O drive with “_____ _______” for the safety of others using the highways. State vehicle codes provide and give privileges to the operators of emergency vehicles; however this does not relieve the operator from the duty and responsibility to drive with “_____ _______” for the safety of others.
A

Due regard / due regard / due regard

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications is NFPA?

A

NFPA 1002

p79

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The D/O most important responsibility is to?

A

operate the apparatus safely during routine driving and while responding to emergency calls

p84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most common place for a collision to occur is at?

A

an intersection

p85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A fire apparatus D/O should maintain _________ _________ in order to lower the chances of being involved in a collision with a object, pedestrian, or vehicle.

A

situational awareness

p85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  • Perception of ones surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events.
A

Situational Awareness

p85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
In general, fire apparatus collisions are grouped into seven basic causes which reflect the lack of due regard and situational awareness. 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
A
  1. Improper backing
  2. Reckless driving
  3. Excessive speed
  4. Lack of driving skill and experience
  5. Overloading and misuse
  6. Mechanical failure
  7. Driver/operator personal readiness
    p86
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

D/O should develop a _______-__________ attitude.

A

safety-conscious

p86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • Loss of braking function which occurs due to excessive use of the brakes.
A

Brake Fade

p87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

_____________ brake components lose their ability to stop the vehicle, regardless of the configuration of the braking system.

A

Overheating

p87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

_______ and _______ brakes will both overheat if braking and driving habits are poor.

A

Disc and drum

p87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Radial tires and ABS braking systems do not reduce the potential for ______ ______.

A

brake fade

p87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Only effective _________ and ________ techniques can ensure maximum braking efficiency.

A

handling and braking

p87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lack of driving skill may result from:

  • _______________ in your driving ability
  • Inability to recognize a __________ __________
  • False sense of security because of a good ________ _______
  • Misunderstanding of apparatus ___________
  • Insufficient _________ on a piece of apparatus
A
Overconfidence 
dangerous situation 
driving record 
capabilities 
training 

p88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In a study conducted by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), it was determined that in _____ percent of all collisions, the D/O was not aware of the problem until it was too late to correct.

A

42 percent

p88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A _____ water tank provides better braking for the weight and subsequent road traction.

A

full

p88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For safety reasons, many manufacturers recommend that tanks be either?

A

completely empty or full

p88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Many serious fire apparatus accidents have been attributed to?

A

poor vehicle design and maintenance

p89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

It is SOP in most fire departments to don their protective gear before getting into the apparatus, with the exception of their ______ per NFAP ______.

A

helmet
1500

p90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which NFPA standards establish requirements for seat belt use on the apparatus?

A

NFPA 1901 Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus and NFPA 1500 Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

p90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which NFPA standard provides direction for loading fire hose while driving the apparatus?

A

NFPA 1500

p91

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When loading large diameter hose while driving, drive the apparatus only in a _________ direction, straddling or to one side of the hose, and at a speed no greater than ____ mph.

A

forward / 5 mph

p91

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which NFPA standard prohibits firefighters for being allowed to ride the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus?

A

NFPA 1500

p92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which NFPA standard allows a detachable seat to be placed next to the tiller operators position in which the instructor may sit during training?

A

NFPA 1500

p93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

One of the most common causes of injury for the d/o is from slips and falls when?

A

entering and exiting the apparatus

p93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Beginning with engines produced in 2007, apparatus began to be equipped with a ?

A

diesel particulate filter (DPF)

p94

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This indicator lights when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process.

A

High Exhaust System Temperature (HEST) indicator

p94

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lights to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot.

A

DPF indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Allows d/o to manually initiate an active regeneration to burn off the DPF.

A

Manual (parked) regeneration switch

p94

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The ______ collects particulates (soot) from the exhaust stream and burns them more completely.

A

DPF - diesel particulate filter

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

____________ regeneration occurs when the engine load, exhaust temperature, and engine speed are within an acceptance range.

A

Automatic

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Active regeneration can also occur when the truck is _________.

A

parked

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An apparatus equipped with _________ _________ __________ will have a tank in addition to the fuel tank that must be filled with Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF).

A

Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR)

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  • (1) Force that tends to create a rotational or twisting motion. (2) Measurement of engine shaft output. (3) Force that produces or tends to produce a twisting or rotational action.
A

Torque

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The d/o should never shut down an engine immediately after a ? or when the temperature gauge indicates ?

A

full load operation / that the engine is overheated

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A hot engine should cool to the normal operating temperature. Usually an idling time of ______ to ______ minutes is sufficient.

A

three to five minutes

p95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The large size of most apparatus makes it imperative that the d/o have well adjusted?

A

mirrors

p96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  • Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.
A

Angle of approach

p97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  • Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.
A

Angle of departure

p97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  • Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint.
A

Break over angle

p97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The d/o should only use as much _________ as needed to keep weight transfer to a minimum.

A

steering

p98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Steering should be accomplished in a _______ and ______ motion rather than a series of ________ ______.

A

smooth and fluid / multiple turns

p98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Weigh the apparatus after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that the axle loading is balanced within ___ percent from side to side and within the axle weight rating front to back.

A

7 percent

p98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When driving downhill use the _______ brake and _________ brake as well as manually shifting to lower gears to limit speed.

A

service / auxiliary

p98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

To prevent engine damage, limit downhill speed to lower than maximum ?

A

rpm

p98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  • Process of injecting or supplying the diesel engine with more fuel than can be burned.
A

Overthrottling

p99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If engine lugging does occur, the d/o should not allow engine rpm to?

A

drop below peak torque speed

p99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which NFPA standard requires a placard in every apparatus that lists the vehicle height and weight in feet and tons?

A

NFPA 1901

p99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

It may take ____ to ____ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement.

A

3 to 15

p99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The d/o should use the following guidelines to help avoid potential collisions:

  • Aim high in ____________. Find a safe path well ahead.
  • Get the big __________. Stay back and see the reaction of other motorist.
  • Keep your ______ moving.
  • Leave yourself an “_____”
  • Maintain enough distance from the vehicle ahead to?
  • Make sure that others can _____ and _____ you.
A
  • steering
  • picture
  • eyes
  • pull out of traffic safely if the need arises
  • see and hear
    p100
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The d/o must come to a complete stop at intersections controlled with a?

A

red traffic light or stop sign

p101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Studies have shown that civilian drivers respond better to sounds that?

A

change pitch

p101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

At speeds above _____ mph, an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device.

A

50 mph

p101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In some instances, increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by _____ feet or more.

A

250 feet or more

p101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel at least _____ to _____ feet apart.

A

300 to 500 feet

p101

75
Q

_______ lights are readily visible even during daylight hours.

A

White

p101

76
Q

Studies have shown that vehicles traveling with _____ _____ headlights on during daylight hours have fewer accidents.

A

low beam

p102

77
Q

Generally, it is best to avoid ________ vehicles that do not pull over to yield to fire apparatus.

A

passing

p104

78
Q

Always travel on the _________ lane ( ______ lane) on multilane roads. Wait for vehicle in front of the apparatus to move to the right before passing.

A

Innermost (fast)

p104

79
Q

When emergency vehicles must pass each other how should these maneuvers be coordinated?

A

by radio, with the slower apparatus pulling to the right to allow the faster vehicle to pass

p104

80
Q

Some apparatus are equipped with _______ brakes or other types of __________ devices that assist in stopping the apparatus.

A

engine / retarding

p105

81
Q

Engine brakes and retarders help extend the life of ?

A

service brake components and make apparatus easier to manage

p105

82
Q

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is ?

A

visual lead time

p105

83
Q
  • Distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until it comes to a complete stop.
A

Braking Distance

p105

84
Q
  • Sum of the drivers reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance.
A

Total Stopping Distance

p105

85
Q
  • Distance a vehicle travels while a driver transfers a foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.
A

Reaction Distance

p105

86
Q
  • An uncontrolled slide across a surface in a wheeled vehicle.
A

Skid

p107

87
Q

In an _____________ skid, the drive wheels lose traction on the road surface.

A

acceleration skid

p108

88
Q
  • Skid that usually occurs when the gas pedal is applied too quickly.
A

Acceleration skid

p108

89
Q
  • This type of skid is usually caused by braking too hard at a high rate of speed and locking the wheels. The vehicle will skid no matter which way the steering wheel is turned.
A

Locked Wheel Skid

p108

90
Q

Most new fire apparatus are equipped with what type of braking system?

A

all-wheel, antilock braking system (ABS)

p108

91
Q

NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of ________ lbs or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.

A

36,000 lbs

p109

92
Q

There are four types of auxiliary brakes to aid the foundation brakes in slowing the vehicle:

  • __________ brake
  • __________ _________ brake
  • ___________ ________ retarder
  • _____________ retarder
A
  • Exhaust brake
  • Engine compression brake
  • Transmission output retarder
  • Electromagnetic retarder

p109

93
Q

Which two auxiliary braking systems provide the highest level of braking torque and are unaffected by transmission gear shift changes?

A

Transmission output retarders and electromagnetic retarders

p109

94
Q

The _______ _______ is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices.

A

exhaust brake

p110

95
Q

Any device that uses the engine and transmission to impede the forward motion of the motor vehicle by compression of the engine is called?

A

Engine Compression Brake

p110

96
Q

Which retarder is either mounted in the driveline, or supplied as an integral part of the rear axle?

A

Electromagnetic retarder

p110

97
Q

Which retarder uses the viscous property of the automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline?

A

Transmission output retarder

p110

98
Q

Traction can be improved by the use of more aggressive tire _____, tire ______, mechanical features in the ___________, or ______ based automatic traction control.

A

treads
chains
driveline
ABS

p110

99
Q

What feature automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin?

A

automatic traction control (ATC)

p111

100
Q

The purpose of what equipment is to improve traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions, such as snow or ice?

A

Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)

p111

101
Q

The ___________ ___________ allows for speed differences between the rear driving axles.

A

interaxle differential

p111

102
Q

_________ _________ systems are designed to help prevent roll-overs and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction.

A

Stability control systems

p112

103
Q

In addition to the usual ABS sensors, _______ includes a lateral accelerometer that senses when the side force caused by cornering approaches the roll-over threshold.

A

RSC - roll stability control

p 112

104
Q

__________ ________ _________ is a more capable system than RSC.

A

Electronic Stability Control

p112

105
Q

_______ applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel.

A

ESC - electronic stability control

p112

106
Q

Recommended Backing Policies
IFASTA recommends:
If possible, position the apparatus so that backing will ?

A

not be necessary

p113

107
Q

Recommended Backing Policies:
IFSTA recommendations
Immediately before backing you should do what?

A

Sound two short blasts of the vehicles horn

p113

108
Q

All firefighters performing spotting duties should be wearing a?

A

reflective safety vest

p114

109
Q

When preparing to back the apparatus, the spotter should be positioned in the vision of the d/o, preferably in the ______ mirror, approximately ____ to ____ feet behind and slightly to the ______ of the apparatus.

A

left mirror / 8 to 10 feet / left

p114

110
Q

Once the spotters position has been established, he or she should not?

A

change mirrors

p114

111
Q

All hand signals should be done in a ?

A

slow, exaggerated motion

p115

112
Q

While backing if a spotter raises and lowers outstretched arms with palms facing down the d/o should?

A

slow down

p116

113
Q

The tiller operator must be qualified to operate the ______ _______ and be familiar with the duties assigned to all ______ company personnel.

A

aerial ladder / truck

p117

114
Q

Which NFPA standard provides specific directions on the d/o candidates evaluation?

A

NFPA 1002

p118

115
Q

All fire apparatus training and testing should follow which NFPA standard?

A

NFPA 1451, Standard for a Fire and Emergency Service Vehicle Operations Training Program

p118

116
Q

Which NFPA standard specifies a number of practical driving exercises that a d/o candidate should successfully complete before being authorized to drive apparatus on emergency calls?

A

NFPA 1002

p118

117
Q

At a minimum what four exercises must be completed by d/o candidates before being allowed to drive to emergencies per NFPA 1002?

A

alley dock exercise / the serpentine course / confined space turnaround / diminishing clearance exercise

p118

118
Q

At a minimum, which NFPA standard indicates that any road test must meet the AHJs requirements?

A

NFPA 1002

p119

119
Q

Always have a _________ ________ present when working on, around, or under apparatus.

A

second person

p119

120
Q

If it is necessary to gain access to an area where a slip resistant surface is not provided what should be used to provide traction before attempting to step, stand or walk on this area?

A

Rubber matting or other means to provide traction

p120

121
Q

Personnel operating on top of apparatus should wear?

A

PPE, including helmets, according to local policy

p120

122
Q

Aerial Apparatus Hose Chutes:

  • Lay couplings so that they are pulled?
  • Lay hose so that it never crosses?
  • Maintain vehicle speed of ____ mph or less. At ____ mph, ____ feet of hose is pulled off each second. Traveling more than ____ mph is likely to cause a hose jam in the hose chute.
A
  • out straight, without flipping around
  • over itself when paying out
  • 5 mph / 5mph / 7 feet / 5mph

p120

123
Q

Which NFPA standard specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet?

A

NFPA 1901

p120

124
Q

Storage brackets and cabinets on apparatus must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force up to _____ times the equipments weight.

A

Ten times

p120

125
Q

High pressure hydraulic fluid at pressures as low as _____ psi can penetrate skin.

A

100 psi

p122

126
Q

Which retarder when activated, creates an electromagnetic field by supplying electrical power to a series of coils in the retarder. This field inhibits the rotation of the rotor and creates a braking torque at the rear wheels?

A

Electromagnetic Retarders

p 110

127
Q

True or False:

Electromagnetic retarders will experience some loss of effectiveness at high temperatures?

A

True

p 110

128
Q

Which retarder, when activated introduces transmission fluid into the retarder housing and energy is absorbed into the fluid through the opposing action of spinning vanes. This retards the vehicle through the rear wheels and adds heat to the transmission fluid.

A

Transmission retarders or transmission output retarders

p 110

129
Q

Transmission retarders can provide high braking capacity but are limited in _______ ___________ environments by the capacity of the vehicle cooling system.

A

high ambient

p 110

130
Q

Automatic snow chains may be ineffective in snow deeper than ____ to ____ inches depending on the consistency of the snow or when the vehicle is moving at very slow speeds, or in reverse.

A

3 to 6 inches

p 110-111

131
Q

What feature automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin. This transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction, which helps improve overall traction on slippery roads.

A

Automatic Traction Control (ATC)

p 111

132
Q

What equipment when engaged forces both wheels to turn at the same speed, resulting in the differential being locked to maximize traction?

A

Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)

p 111

133
Q

The ____________ differential allows for speed differences between the rear driving axles.

A

Interaxle

p 111

134
Q

What feature allows the operator to lock-out the interaxle differential action between the rear tandem driving axles, creating one solid drive line between the rear axles?

A

Interaxle Differential Lock

p 111

135
Q

In addition to the usual ABS sensors, RSC includes a _________ _______________ that senses when the side force caused by cornering approaches the roll-over threshold.

A

lateral accelerometer

p 112

136
Q

Which is a more capable system Electronic Stability Control (ESC) also referred to as Electronic Stability Program or Roll Stability Control (RSC)?

A

ESC / ESP

p 112

137
Q

Where RSC merely slows the vehicle down, ESC applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel. To accomplish this, the ESC system includes a __________ _________ sensor in addition to the lateral accelerometer.

A

steering wheel

p 112

138
Q

True or False:

RSC and ESC improve a vehicle’s cornering performance?

A

False

Neither RSC nor ESC improves a vehicles cornering performance

p 112

139
Q

NEVER attempt to remove any inlet or discharge cap on an apparatus until making certain there is no ?

A

trapped pressure

p 122

140
Q

Open the _________ valve or ________ valve between the control valve and the cap to ensure that any trapped pressure is released.

A

bleeder valve or drain valve

p 122

141
Q

NEVER attempt to remove any inlet or discharge cap on an apparatus until making certain there is no ?

A

trapped pressure

p 122

142
Q

Open the _________ valve or ________ valve between the control valve and the cap to ensure that any trapped pressure is released.

A

bleeder valve or drain valve

p 122

143
Q

What NFPA standard provides specific standards for visual activity and adequate hearing?

A

NFPA 1582 - Standard on Comprehension Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

p 82

144
Q

All riders on the apparatus must be seated within the cab or body and wearing their seat belts before the apparatus is?

A

put into motion

p 90

145
Q

Maintain ________ points of contact with the vehicle when entering, exiting or climbing.

A

three

p 93

146
Q

When preparing to start the apparatus, whether for an emergency response or routine trip, the D/O must first know the ?

A

destination and route of travel

p 94

147
Q

Switch used in limited circumstances if the apparatus is parked on dry grass or over other combustible materials where there is a risk that high exhaust temperatures may start a fire.

A

Regeneration inhibit switch

p 94

148
Q

If the apparatus makes frequent short runs or operates in very cold climates, the exhaust may never get hot enough to burn out the soot and an __________ _____________ is required.

A

active regeneration

p 95

149
Q

After a D/O continues to ignore an empty DEF tank, the apparatus may be limited in speed to _____ mph and will need service from the _________.

A

5 mph / dealer

p 95

150
Q

Apparatus equipped with ___________ transmissions are becoming the norm for many FDs.

A

automatic

p 97

151
Q

Weight transfer follows the law of __________ which states that “objects in motion tend to remain in motion; objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force.”

A

inertia

p 98

152
Q

Apparatus D/O must be aware that the weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to skidding or possible roll over due to _________ weight transfer.

A

lateral

p 98

153
Q

The D/O should ensure the apparatus is properly __________ at all times.

A

loaded

p 98

154
Q

The engine governor cannot control engine speed ____________.

A

downhill

p 98

155
Q

Engine speed faster than the rated ______ can result in engine damage.

A

rpm

p 98

156
Q

It is unsafe and may be illegal to allow the apparatus to coast out of gear or “___________” while driving downhill.

A

“freewheel”

p 98

157
Q

Engine _________ occurs when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is in too high a gear for the demand on the engine. A common example is trying to accelerate while a vehicle is moving up a _______ ________.

A

lugging / steep grade

p 99

158
Q

D/O must be actively familiar with the potential hazards including _________ and __________, associated with the travel routes in their response areas.

A

bridges and railroads

p 99

159
Q

Drivers who cross the railroad tracks must ensure that there will be room between the ________ and the _______ _________ to fit the apparatus while the light is still red.

A

tracks and the stop light

p 99

160
Q

While light can be readily visible even during daylight hours. Because of this, the D/O should turn on apparatus ______________ as part of the emergency response.

A

headlights

p 101

161
Q

In addition to dimming headlights and spotlights at an incident scene, D/O must be aware that warning lights and scene floodlights may reduce the effectiveness of the ____________ _______ on firefighters PPE.

A

reflective trim

p 101

162
Q

___________ lights allow approaching vehicles head lights to more effectively illuminate the reflective trim worn by firefighters.

A

Yellow

p 102

163
Q

Some systems use _________ __________ mounted on the apparatus to activate sensors in the traffic lights.

A

strobe lights (emitters)

p 102

164
Q

Some traffic control systems may be activated by the vehicle’s _________ as it approaches an intersection.

A

siren

p 102

165
Q

Siren activated - preemption device:

This device may be adjusted to activate from distances of several ____________ _______ to about ______ ___ ________.

A

several hundred feet to about half a mile

p 103

166
Q

Intersections equipped with siren activated devices will have ____- inch ________ and _______ lights mounted near the regular traffic light, facing each direction of travel.

A

3-inch / white and blue lights

p 103

167
Q

Using a ______ device and _________ transmitter in the apparatus, data can be transmitted to a radio receiver on the traffic light in order to preempt a signal at the intersection.

A

GPS / radio

p 103

168
Q

On multilane roads, vehicles in the left lane may pull into a ______ _______ lane instead of making lane lane changes to yield.

A

left turn

p 104

169
Q

Drives waiting to make a left or right turn at an intersection may pull to the ________ or the _______.

A

right / left

p 104

170
Q

Avoid passing vehicles on the ________ side because drivers normally move to the _______ upon the approach of emergency vehicles.

A

right / right

p 104

171
Q

Avoid passing other ___________ vehicles if at all possible.

A

emergency

p 104

172
Q

Before applying the brakes, the D/O must consider the _________ of the apparatus and the condition of the ________, ________ and _______ surface.

A

weight / brakes, tires, and road surface

p 105

173
Q

When the D/O releases pressure from the accelerator, the ________ brake or ___________ is activated. Because they provide a significant slowing action, the D/O is able to lessen the use ________ brakes.

A

engine / retarder / service

p 105

174
Q

To maintain control of the vehicle during an acceleration skid the D/O should not apply the ________, ease off the _______________, and straighten out the front wheels as the vehicle begins to respond.

A

brakes / accelerator

p 108

175
Q

D/Os must balance the _________ brakes, ____________ gear selection, and __________ device in order to maintain control when descending grades during icy conditions.

A

service / transmission / retarding

p 108

176
Q

ABS: Skid Control
* Using an onboard computer that monitors each ________ and controls pressure to the _________, maintaining optimal braking ability.

A

wheel / brakes

p 108

177
Q

ABS: Skid Control

* Using a sensing device to monitor the ________ of each wheel, sending a signal to the onboard computer.

A

speed

p 108

178
Q

ABS Skid Control:
Receiving information from the computer when a wheel begins to ______ _____. The computer compares it to the information received from the other wheels to determine if this particular wheel should still be turning. ___________ is maintained as long as the wheels do not lock.

A

lock up / steering

p 108

179
Q

ABS Skid Control:

* Reducing the ________ pressure and allowing the wheel to continue to turn. Once it turns, it is _________ again.

A

brake / braked

p 108

180
Q

When driving a vehicle with ABS, the D/O should maintain a steady ___________ on the brake pedal, rather than ___________ the pedal, until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.

A

pressure / pumping

p 109

181
Q

The amount of retardation force available from any auxiliary braking system is a complex function of __________ speed, __________ speed, _____________ and _________ strategy.

A

vehicle speed, engine speed, temperature and control speed

p 109

182
Q

What brakes uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engines inherent braking ability?

A

Exhaust Brakes

p 110

183
Q

Which brake converts the mechanical energy of the vehicle into heat by compressing the engine intake air and then discharging the pressure to the atmosphere through the exhaust?

A

Engine Compression Brake

p 110