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AFI 41-209 > CDC 7 lvl vol 1 > Flashcards

CDC 7 lvl vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

who appoints the ABMSO in writing?

A

the MTF commander

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2
Q

who is normally appointed as the MLFC?

A

the ABMSO

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3
Q

if no MSC officer is available to function as the interim ABMSO, a waiver needs to be coordinated and submitted to which two offices?

A
  1. MAJCOM/SGS

2. AFMOA/SGAL

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4
Q

the ABMSO is required to maintain physical accountability for what type of assets?

A

AFWCF/MDD-owned

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5
Q

the ABMSO is the approving authority for the acquisition and issue of all medical supplies and equipment for which two on-base organization types?

A

medical and non-medical

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6
Q

whose approval is required before the ABMSO may issue medical materiel to non-medical units?

A

MTF Commander

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7
Q

what are the grade requirements for appointment as the MTF linen supply officer?

A

NCO or GS-04 or higher civilian

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8
Q

the ABMSO ensures appropriate management controls are in place to minimize the occurrences of which inappropriate actions?

A

Fraud, negligence, theft, Etc.

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9
Q

what is pecuniary liability ?

A

a monetary obligation

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10
Q

to whom does pecuniary liability apply?

A

all persons having property responsibility

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11
Q

list three ways that someone can be relieved of property responsibility?

A
  1. documents showing turn-in or transfer of an item to another property custodian, 2. approved reports that provide for disposition of, or relief from,
  2. approved inventory adjustment for losses
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12
Q

name the documents or electronic/computer records that can provide relief from property responsibility ?

A

CALs, CR/LL, approved AF form 601

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13
Q

what step do you take if the evidence to relieve an individual(s) of custodial responsibility is not available?

A

initiate a ROS

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14
Q

list four general purposes of a ROS?

A
  1. research and investigate
  2. assess monetary liability
  3. provide documentation to support adjustments
  4. provide commanders with case histories for corrective action.
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15
Q

what are two primary categories of items that require ROS documentation?

A

supply system stocks and property record items

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16
Q

what category of stocks include those inventories which required stock actions and balances to be recorded?

A

supply system stocks

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17
Q

real property falls under what category of items?

A

property book

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18
Q

what three conditions require a ROS regardless of the dollar value?

A
  1. equipment inventory
  2. controlled items
  3. as directed
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19
Q

who initiates a ROS when property is lost, damaged, or destroyed by an individual or an organization?

A

the organization that has accountability for the property

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20
Q

what are the requirements for appointment of an investigating officer?

A

must be “disinterested” and have no interest in the custodianship, care, accountability, or safekeeping of the property

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21
Q

to what individual is the ROS referred for adjustment of records?

A

accountable officer

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22
Q

what agency reviews the ROS if financial responsibility is assessed against an individual?

A

legal office

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23
Q

what individual reviews the ROS and assigns financial responsibility or relieves the individual(s) of responsibility?

A

approving authority

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24
Q

in the Air Force, which system is the method used for declaring a claim against military and civilian personnel who have lost, damaged, or destroyed public property in their possession?

A

ROS

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25
Q

generally, what is the pecuniary liability limit for a person who lost or damaged property?

A

a maximum of one month’’s base pay

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26
Q

who decides if a case warrants taking disciplinary action under the UCMJ?

A

commanders

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27
Q

what are the two sources for all budgeted and programmed resources for the total Air Force?

A

Future Years Defense Program (FYDP) and Air Force Financial Plan (F&FP)

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28
Q

where is AF planning and programming for manpower centralized?

A

HQ USAF

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29
Q

what office is responsible for managing the manpower program within the MTF?

A

RMO

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30
Q

what is a manpower authorization?

A

funded manpower requirement with details that define the position in terms of its function, organization, that commands use to extend and strengthen manpower resources to the units

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31
Q

which system is the official source of manpower authorization data for active duty Air Force, ANG and AFR?

A

MDS

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32
Q

define manpower requirement?

A

statement of the manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program.

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33
Q

what are the two types of manpower requirements? How are they different?

A

funded & unfunded. funded requirements are those that have been validated and allocated. unfunded requirements are validated requirements needs but deferred because of budgetary constraints

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34
Q

what information does an Air Force manpower standard provide?

A

identifies a work center’s man-hours to workload relationship and quantifies manpower requirements

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35
Q

how does the Air Force use manpower standards?

A

for the accurate distribution of manpower resources

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36
Q

what level of manpower is determined by a manpower standard?

A

minimum required to support a function

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37
Q

name the four key components of a manpower standard?

A

process-oriented description, man-hour equation, manpower table, variances

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38
Q

what key component of a manpower standard provides grades and skill levels for the number of authorizations?

A

manpower table

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39
Q

what is a unit of measuring work called?

A

man-hour

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40
Q

list three documents available to assist you in managing the manpower program?

A

AF manpower standard, unit manpower document, unit personnel management roster

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41
Q

how often are manpower standards reviewed and applied?

A

at least annually

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42
Q

what document serves as the primary manpower tool for managers?

A

unit manpower document

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43
Q

how are manpower authorizations defined on the UMD?

A

in terms of their function, organization, location, skill, grade, and other appropriate characteristics commands use.

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44
Q

what does the position number identify the UMD?

A

identify authorizations against a particular position

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45
Q

how are civilian positions indicated on the UMD?

A

CIV is displayed

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46
Q

what is a personnel accounting symbol?

A

a sequentially assigned alphanumeric code representing a unit

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47
Q

what code identifies a particular function down to the basic work center?

A

FAC

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48
Q

what information does the UPMR contain?

A

primarily depicts personnel assigned, by name, against manpower authorizations of the work center/functional area

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49
Q

what document provides commanders with projected accessions, gains, losses, retirements, separations, and rotations from overseas?

A

UPMR

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50
Q

what office assigns new personnel to authorized positions based on vacant and/or appropriate position on the UPMR?

A

CSS

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51
Q

how often should a manager review the UPMR and verify it against the UMD?

A

monthly

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52
Q

to what office do you report errors on the UPMR for corrective action?

A

RMO

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53
Q

what documentation is required before formally beginning custodian training?

A

Signed appointment Letter

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54
Q

what type of training would be better suited at smaller MTFs?

A

one-on-one briefings

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55
Q

what type of training might be better suited at larger MTFs?

A

scheduled mass briefings

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56
Q

if a custodian needs DMLSS installed, to which office should he or she submit a work order?

A

medical systems help desk (MESD)

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57
Q

what is required if a custodian needs additional or special DMLSS access?

A

a specific appointment letter

58
Q

which DMLSS window is most frequently used by custodians to reorder supplies?

A

customer catalog

59
Q

which DMLSS screen is used by custodians to initiate orders for items never before purchased?

A

NIR

60
Q

local GPC purchases administratively cost the government three times more than using which SOS type?

A

Prime vendor

61
Q

what is an effective means of single-line item replenishment provided the custodian already has the item ID readily available?

A

manual replenishment

62
Q

property custodians should know how to check their available fund balance in CAIM using which screen?

A

check available funds

63
Q

which pending action indicates why an item ID failed during the replenishment process?

A

replenishment exceptions

64
Q

which pending action is produced as a result of a non-response to a QA alert item QTY required cust. (supply`) pending action message?

A

QA Delinquencies

65
Q

which DMLSS report provides detailed information on current requisitions?

A

Active due-ins

66
Q

which DMLSS report is used by custodians to view current fund balances?

A

expense Center Fund summary

67
Q

when training property custodians, who should brief on equipment specific actions?

A

a MEMO technician

68
Q

at a minimum custodians should be provided a copy of what local guidance?

A

customer handbook

69
Q

what is the definition of records?

A

digital or hard-copy informational documents that are created during day-to-day operations by Air Force employees for official business

70
Q

what three things must we do to make documents easily accessible?

A

systematically label, file, and maintain them in an organized manner.

71
Q

which regulation tells how records are maintained?

A

AFMAN 33-363

72
Q

which guidance explains how to dispose of records?

A

RDS located in AFRIMS

73
Q

what is a file plan?

A

a roadmap that lists where specific documents are to be maintained

74
Q

where is the file plan created, approved, and maintained?

A

AFRIMS

75
Q

the contents of a computer’s directory may be equated to what?

A

the traditional file drawer

76
Q

what is the sequence to file supporting documents?

A

by type, then julian date, then serial number

77
Q

where is the SDCR stored?

A

within the DMLSS server

78
Q

SDCRs and document registers can be retrieved anytime by accessing which IM or EM module?

A

Reports

79
Q

what is the most effective way to evaluate your safety program and prevent mishaps?

A

observe your workers

80
Q

what is the purpose of a mishap investigation?

A

a detailed, systematic search to uncover the “who, what, when, where, why, and how” of a loss producing event, and to determine what corrective actions are needed to prevent a recurrence

81
Q

who is responsible for managing the mishap-reporting program in the MTF?

A

safety officer

82
Q

when should you report on-duty mishaps ( military and civilian) to your supervisor and USR?

A

immediately

83
Q

when should you report off-duty mishaps (military only) to your supervisor?

A

not later than the next duty day

84
Q

a safety investigation should be completed within how many days of a mishap?

A

30 days

85
Q

what does the abbreviation OSHA stands for?

A

occupational Safety and health Act

86
Q

the responsibility for implementing programs for occupational safety, health, fire, and accident prevention is delegated to whom?

A

unit commanders, functional managers, and supervisors

87
Q

how frequently should your non-high hazard workplace be inspected for safety?

A

at least once a year.

88
Q

how frequently should high-hazard workplaces be inspected for safety?

A

at least once a month

89
Q

who notifies the installation ground safety staff to schedule required supervisor safety training when a military member or civilian becomes a supervisor?

A

commander or supervisor

90
Q

at a minimum, who must promptly report injuries and illnesses to the supervisor?

A

all Air Force personnel

91
Q

who has direct responsibility for maintaining safe and healthy environments in the work area?

A

supervisors

92
Q

who is required to attend the SST course?

A

SrA, NCOs. civilian supervisors,

93
Q

when shelving, where should heavy, bulky items be stored?

A

lower shelves

94
Q

where should flammable/combustible liquids and gases be stored?

A

in approved flammable storage rooms or cabinets

95
Q

what is contained in the MTF’s HWMP?

A

procedures for identifying, handling, storing, using, and disposing of HAZMAT from receipt through use.

96
Q

what is one of the principle methods of locating hazards?

A

safety inspections

97
Q

how often should section supervisors conduct safety inspections?

A

at least monthly

98
Q

what is ORM?

A

process of identifying and controlling hazards to protect the force

99
Q

how can you effectively reduce the probability of injury in storage and distribution section?

A

by prevention

100
Q

what are the four most common physical acts responsible for the on-the-job injuries?

A

lifting, carrying, dropping, lowering

101
Q

list the factors to consider when manually lifting materiel?

A

size, shape, weight, and distance the object is to be moved

102
Q

what is the best manual lifting method for moving awkward or heavy items?

A

team lifting

103
Q

what are the primary responsibilities of DMLSS SAs?

A

monitor and manage server activities, troubleshoot,

104
Q

how does an SA access administrator functionality in DMLSS?

A

through either the SS application or the DMLSS server system administrator tool module

105
Q

what types of system administration tasks are available to the SA via the SA tool?

A

user, PC, Printer, server, MM and FM administration

106
Q

what does an ASM do?

A

they control the roles and privileges within specific applications

107
Q

how many ASMs should there be for each DMLSS application?

A

only one per site

108
Q

why should there be a limited number of SS ASMs per site?

A

this user can give virtually any rights in the system to anyone including himself

109
Q

who should perform regular backups of the DMLSS server?

A

the site SA

110
Q

when should data tapes be replaced?

A

in accordance with manufacturer’s recommendation

111
Q

backup tapes should be safeguarded against what conditions?

A

fire, moisture, high electrical currents, and accidental reuse.

112
Q

how can you access the DMLSS server webpage?

A

internet explorer HTTPS:// and the server name or IP address of your DMLSS server

113
Q

what DMLSS webpage is used to install DMLSS software, log on to the SA tool and access standard links?

A

DMLSS admin start page

114
Q

how should you log-out of the DMLSS SA tool?

A

click exit on the list of quick links

115
Q

what does the MTF/unit tree view allow you to do?

A

to review and update your MTF’s organizational structure

116
Q

what does the funds management- funding screen allow you to do?

A

view/manage funds, gather information on EOR and commodity classes, view/manage -commitments- obligations- target amounts, view/manage your AM and OP funds

117
Q

an important part of administering the DMLSS system is having valid and up-to-date POC information for whom?

A

key personnel

118
Q

which screen is used to associate module-specific roles to individual user IDs?

A

UP assgin

119
Q

TMU provides a centralized listing of what?

A

all the values and codes used throughout the DMLSS application

120
Q

list each type of table viewable in the TMU screen?

A

DMLSS wide, DMLSS and site managed, site managed data

121
Q

which TMU table contains data unique to the local MTF and is completely editable?

A

site data

122
Q

DCM is an automated tool within DMLSS used to do what?

A

transmit data to external agencies

123
Q

which screen is used to immediately retransmit order-related or financial transactions?

A

DEM monitor

124
Q

what is the typical life cycle for an outgoing transaction?

A

several reports of in-process, then complete or transmitted

125
Q

which two functions are used by the SA use to manage and restrict user accounts?

A

UP assign and UP manage

126
Q

how is the UP manage function used?

A

to view, add, modify, and/or delete roles by application

127
Q

how is the UP assign function used?

A

to assign one or more applications and/or roles

128
Q

why should all application roles not be given to users?

A

can decrease the SM’s ability to restrict access to critical functions and can degrade system integrity

129
Q

in general, how is the DCM search function used?

A

to view transaction files and manage the interface between DMLSS and other systems

130
Q

how long does the DCM retain transaction files?

A

current and previous month or 62 days

131
Q

what user ID is recorded for financial transactions?

A

DFAS

132
Q

list the DCM search window fields that may be used to limit search results?

A

call/sequence/block number/ method/ form/ contract number/ SOS/status code/ process code/ USER ID/ begin date/ end date

133
Q

when reviewing outbound files for successful transmission, for what process codes should you search?

A

ARCORGFL, FMTGOOD, TMTGOOD

134
Q

how can you get more information on a process code if you are unsure of what it means?

A

view its description by highlighting the transaction first, then clicking the desc icon on the vertical toolbar

135
Q

what status is used to indicate formatting problems or failed transmissions?

A

ERROR code

136
Q

which type of code indicates the state in which a transaction failure occurred?

A

process code

137
Q

what five things should the SA troubleshoot when a transmission failure occurs?

A

problems with the LAN and interface connectivity; incorrect IP address, login, and password

138
Q

when your files don’t successfully transmit, who should you check with to ensure that the network is functional, and your ports and firewalls are open?

A

medical systems office

139
Q

when would you not retransmit a failed PV order?

A

when the acquisitions manager elects to cancel the order and re-accomplish the order manually

140
Q

what are two options for resending failed transmission files?

A

resubmit and financial resubmit

141
Q

which option is used to rebuild and retransmit failed transmission files to DFAS?

A

financial resubmit

AFI 41-209 (12 decks)

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