Cattle Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

What is the length of a cow oestrus cycle?

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What continues to produce progesterone after ovulation?

A

Corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the Cotyledons?

What are the Caruncles?

A

The foetal side of the placenta

The maternal side of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What shape are placetomes in the cow and sheep?

A

Cow: Convex
Sheep: Concave (doughnuts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In which ovary do 60% of ovulations occur?

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does involution of the uterus take?

A

3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does resumption of cyclicity after calving occur?

A

2 weeks post-partum FSH increases, which stimulates the first follicular wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does suckling do?

A

Inhibits resumption of cyclic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the gold standard for oestrus detection?

A

Progesterone monitoring (blood test every day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What time period is a retained foetal membrane classed as in a cow?

A

Over 12 hours after delivery of the calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 consequences of uterine infections?

A
  1. Damage uterus
  2. Suppress hypothalmic GnRH and pituitary LH secretion
  3. Localised effects on ovarian function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 4 main pathogens involved in uterine infections?

Are they gram +ve or -ve

A
  1. E. coli (-ve)
  2. Truperella pyogenes (+ve)
  3. Dichelobacter nodosus
  4. Fusobacterium necrophorum (-ve)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the biggest risk factor of uterine bacterial infection?

A

RFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is metritis?

A

Abnormal enlargement of uterus and purulent vaginal discharge within 21 days of parturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the grades of metritis?

A

1: Enlarged uterus and purulent discharge but no pyrexia/illness
2. Systemic illness and pyrexia
3. Toxaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for pyometra?

A

PGF (Prostaglandin F2 alpha)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you differentiate between metritis and endometritis?

A

Metritis is within 21 days of calving

Endometritis is 21 days or MORE after calving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 biggest effects on fertility?

i.e. days from calving to pregnancy

A
  1. Caesarean
  2. Lameness
  3. Endometritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are two clinical signs of cystic ovarian disease?

When is it most common?

A
  1. Nymphomania
  2. Anoestrus
    < 60 DIM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does Cystic Ovarian Disease affect milk production?

A

High milk production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the main differences between follicular and luteal cysts?

A

Follicular cysts are thin walled and fluid filled
Luteal cysts are thick walled and may have trabeculae inside
Follicular cysts are larger in diameter than luteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do follicular cysts cause continuous oestrus?

A

Produce oestrodial (oestrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the best way to treat COD if unsure what type of cyst is present?
What should you do if the cow comes into oestrus after treatment?

A

Progesterone device (PRID/CIDR)
DONT inseminate, oocyst will be old or unhealthy
Wait for next cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is so important about Brucellosis?

How is it monitored?

A

It is zoonotic and reportable

Monthly routine bulk milk sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are 5 non-infectious causes of abortion?

A
  1. NEB
  2. Selenium deficiency
  3. Iodine deficiency
  4. Alfatoxins
  5. Nitrite/nitrate toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What cell type does BVD target?

What does this cause?

A

Neuroglial cells

Cerebellar hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How can primary abortive agents cause abortion?

A

Damages placenta and foetus, allowing invasion of opportunistic pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do secondary (opportunistic) pathogens cause abortion?

A

Prostaglandin synthesis
Prostaglandin inhibits progesterone
Progesterone maintains pregnancy, without it luteolysis occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the three routes of infection for abortive agents?

A
  1. Commensal flora of reproductive tract
  2. Transplacental
  3. Haematogenous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does the complexity of the antigen produced by abortive pathogens affect foetal antibody response?

A

The more complex the antigen, the more time it takes for the foetus to recognise the antigen as “non-self” and mount an immune response (antibody production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed cause of abortion?

Which groups of animals are at highest risk?

A

Neospora

Congenitally infected heifers in first gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What virus causes IBR?

A

BHV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does horizontal and vertical transmission of Neospora occur?

A

Horizontal (exogenous)
Ingestion oocyts, naive animals, abortion storms
Vertical (daughter-daughter)
Slow succession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most common outcome of Neospora infection during gestation?

A

Birth of clinically normal persistently infected calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is cytopathic BVD associated with?

A

Mucosal disease in PI animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of virus is BVD?

A

Pestivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what stage (in days) of gestation does BVD infection cause a PI (persistently infected) foetus?

A

95-120 days

38
Q

What antigen and antibody status are PI calves?

A

Antibody negative

Antigen positive

39
Q

When should you vaccinated for BVD?

When is the earliest PI calves can be diagnosed?

A

Before AI (first breeding)
Protects the pregnancy
1 month
Before this, MDA interferes

40
Q

What disease in sheep does BVD have link with?

What is the prevention?

A

Border disease

Avoid co-grazing

41
Q

Which 3 abortive agents can result in a latent state? (i.e. no clinical signs)

A

BHV-1
Neospora caninum
Leptospira hardjo

42
Q

Which is the most common serovar associated with bovine abortion?
What should be done upon diagnosis of infecton?

A

S. dublin
ZOONOTIC
Reportable to APHA and inform milk buyer

43
Q

Why is calving significant to Salmonella infection?

A

Stressful period

Stress increases shedding

44
Q

Which strain of Campylobacter causes abortion?
What is it often mistaken for?
How is it diagnosed?

A

Campylobacter fetus fetus
Apparent failure to conceive/poor fertility
As causes very EARLY abortion
Culture of vaginal mucosa or preputial washes

45
Q

Which two abortive agents are spread venereally (i.e. natural service)

A

Trichomonas fetus

Campylobacter spp

46
Q

Which 4 abortive agents can you use Bulk milk screens for? (antibody)
What is the next step if this comes back positive?

A
  1. BVD
  2. IBR
  3. L Hardjo
  4. Neospora
    First lactation screen
47
Q

In testing for BVD, what is the next step if the first lactation milk screen comes back positive?

A

Bulk tank PCR to test for antigen

48
Q

What is the treatment for Campylobacter in bulls?

What age do bulls have to be in order for it to be effective?

A

Streptomycin preputial washings

< 4 years old

49
Q

What type of abortive agent is Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency?
Why?

A

Primary non-infectious
Anti-oxidants
Cause myocardial degeneration and allow invasion of secondary agents (e.g. Streptococci)

50
Q

Which abortive agent is associated with cerebellar hypoplasia?
What 2 other foetal lesions does it cause?

A

BVDv

  1. Fatal foetal myocarditis
  2. Radio opaque lines
51
Q

What foetal lesions are associated with Ureaplasma diversum?

A

Conjunctivitis

Bronchopneumonia

52
Q

Which foetal abortive agent causes pericarditis?

A

B. lichenformis

53
Q

What does Truperella pyogenes cause in calves?

A

Bronchopneumonia

54
Q

What does iodine deficiency cause?

A

Thyroid hyperplasia

55
Q

Which virus causes liver necrosis?

A

BHV-1 (IBR)

56
Q

What is a circular chart used to monitor lactation and fertility called?
What does circular once round represent?

A

Bray chart

1 lactation

57
Q

What does the calving to conception interval produce?

As animals conceive, what happens to the ratio?

A

Predicted calving index

Gets WORSE as animals conceive

58
Q

What is the conception (pregnancy) rate?

How many more cows conceive than actually calve? (%)

A

% pregnant (at PD) of those served

50-80%

59
Q

Which is more predictive of actual calving, a later or earlier PD?

A

Later

Allows for losses due to abortion/resorption

60
Q

What is the definition of abortion?

A

Calving that occurs < 270 days of gestation

61
Q

How is a Cu-sum used to track conception rate over time?

A

Positive PD moves up

Negative moves down/horizontal

62
Q

What are two autosomal recessive diseases of cattle?

A

Bovine Leucocyte Adhesion Deficiency

Complex Vertebral Malformation

63
Q

What clinical signs present with Bovine Leucocyte Adhesion Deficiency?

A

Ulcers on oral mucosa
Chronic pneumonia
Recurrent/chronic diarrhoea
Death < 1 year old

64
Q

What is arthrogryposis?

What congenital disorder can cause this?

A

Multiple joint contractures of limbs at birth

Complex Vertebral Malformation

65
Q

What is the best way to measure efficiency in suckler herds?

A

Calves weaned/cows to bull

66
Q

What is the target age at first calving in a suckler herd?

A

2 years old

67
Q

What are 3 ways of heifer management in a suckler herd?

A
  1. Selected replacements from early born calves - maximum growth and age at time of breeding
  2. Wean her calf early
  3. Calve heifers 3-4 weeks before PSC for herd - gives extra time before next breeding
68
Q

How can you control BCS in a suckler herd?

A

Wean early: increase BCS

Wean late: If cow is overconditioned

69
Q

What are the targets for a fertile bull?

A

90% of females pregnant within 9 weeks
60% should become pregnant within first 3 weeks
When put with a cow on heat, should serve within 20 minutes (ideally 10)

70
Q

What measurement of scrotal circumference in bulls is associated with reduced fertility?

A

< 34cm

71
Q

What BCS should bulls start the breeding period at?

A

3-3.5

72
Q

What 3 things do you assess in semen evaluation?

A
  1. Gross motility
  2. Linear progressive motility
  3. Morphology
73
Q

What causes penile haematoma?

What is the clinical sign?

A

Sudden bending to erect penis

Rupture of tunica albuginea

74
Q

Why is surgical removal indicated in penile fibropapilloma in bulls?

A

Bleeding reduces semen quality

Interferes with serving

75
Q

In campylobacter fetus venerealis, why is it harder to eradicate in older bulls?

A

Lives in crypts of prepuce

Increased size of crypts as bulls age

76
Q

What causes IPVV?

Infectious Pustular Vulvovaginitis/Balanoposthitis

A

BHV-1

DIFFERENT strain from the one that causes IBR

77
Q

What are 3 causes of fertility problems in cattle?

A
  1. Lameness
  2. Low BCS
  3. High yield
78
Q

What 3 effects can milk fever have?

A
  1. Difficult calving
  2. RFM
  3. Endometritis
79
Q

What 3 effects on oestrus does lameness have?

A
  1. Lower intensity of oestrus
  2. Affects oestrus behaviour (e.g. mounting)
  3. First CL and first oestrus occurs later
80
Q

What are the 3 stages of calving?

A
  1. Cow separates from rest of herd, dilation of cervix, beginning of strain
  2. Waterbag (membranes) appear and rupture, delivery of calf
  3. Expulsion of placenta
81
Q

Give 3 reasons to proceed with assisted calving

A
  1. No progress after 1 hour of waterbag showing
  2. Extreme discomfort
  3. Excessive bleeding from vulva
82
Q

How does Clenbuterol (Planepart) assist with dystocia?

A

Relaxes uterus which give more space in uterus to manipulate calf Reduces contractions
Increases perfusion to calf

83
Q

What anaesthetic technique would you use for an episiotomy?

What cattle is this nearly always used in?

A

Caudal epidural

Heifers

84
Q

What are 3 complications of an episiotomy?

A
  1. Wound infection and breakdown
  2. Distorted vulva confirmation, reduces fertility
  3. Rectovaginal fistula (if cut at 12 noon)
85
Q

What are 2 indications for full embryotomy?

A
  1. Large dead calf

2. Foetal monster

86
Q

Which direction do the majority of uterine torsions occur in?

A

Anti-clockwise (stood behind the cow

87
Q

In which direction do you roll a cow to untwist a uterine torsion?

A

From left lateral recumbency
To back
To right lateral recumbency

88
Q

What are the 3 forced indications for a caesarian section?

A
  1. Foetal oversize/foetal-maternal disproportion
  2. Irreducible uterine torsion
  3. Insufficient cervical dilation
89
Q

What must you avoid using when performing a caesarian and why?

A

Sedation! Will cross placenta and decrease viability of calf

90
Q

What two methods of anaesthesia could you use in a C section?

A
  1. Caudal epidural

2. Paravertebral nerve block

91
Q

What should be given post-op after a C section?

A

Oxytocin +/- calcium