Case 4 - Hearing and Speech Development Flashcards

1
Q

when do structures of the neurosensory ear develop

A

around 20 weeks gestation

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2
Q

what happens at 25 weeks

A

we have a functional auditory system

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3
Q

at 25 weeks to 5-6 months we have what

A

hair cells of the cochlea
axons of the auditory nerve
neurones of the temporal lobe auditory cortex are tuned to receive signals of specific frequencies and intensities

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4
Q

what is the organ of hearing

A

cochlea

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5
Q

what is the organ of balance

A

the vestibular system

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6
Q

what can we see through a healthy tympanic membrane

A

the malleus, and the incus

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7
Q

what is the cord of tympani important in

A

taste

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8
Q

what is the role of the middle ear

A

conduction

protection

transducer

amplifier

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9
Q

conduction in the middle ear

A

conduct sound form the outer part of the ear to the inner ear

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10
Q

protection in the middle ear

A

creates a barrier to protect the muddle and inner ear structures from foreign bodies

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11
Q

transduction in the middle ear

A

converts acoustic energy to mechanical energy
converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy

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12
Q

amplification in the middle ear

A

transformer action of the middle ear
only about 1/1000 of the acoustic energy in air would be transmitted to the inner ear fluid without the middle ear function

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13
Q

what is another name for the inner ear

A

the labyrinth

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14
Q

where is the inner ear found

A

the petrous portion of the temporal lobe

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15
Q

what is the inner ear made up of

A

the cochlea and vestibular system

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16
Q

how many turns foes the cochlea have

A

2 and a half

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17
Q

what does the saccule do

A

helps with balance when not moving and standing still

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18
Q

what do the semicircular canals do

A

help when we are in movement

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19
Q

what is the function of the cochlea

A

is to propagate sound waves from the base which is situated near the middle ear

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20
Q

physiology of hearing

A

sound waves will travel down the external auditory canal and hit the tympanic membrane

the tympanic membrane will move which will cause some vibrations of the ossicles

this will create some mechanical energy which will in turn move towards the stapes

this vibrates and this then creates some movement in the fluid in the cochlea

this energy is transducer into electrical energy which then goes on to the nerve of hearing

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21
Q

why do different parts of the cochlea pick up different frequencies

A

because there is movement of fluid against the basilar membrane which has stiffness at different parts

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22
Q

what is Wernicke’s area

A

temporal
speech comprehension

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23
Q

what is Broca’s area

A

frontal
production of speech

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24
Q

what is sound measured in and what Is the scale measured in

A

sound measured in decibels

the decibel scan itself is logarithmic

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25
Q

what is severe hearing loss

A

70-90dB

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26
Q

what is profound hearing lossn

A

90-120d

27
Q

what is normal range of hearing

A

10-20dB

28
Q

what is the hearing test used at 6-24 months

A

visual reinforcement audiometry

29
Q

what is the hearing test used after 24 moths

A

conditional play audiometry

30
Q

what is the hearing test used for after 36 months

A

conventional audiometry

31
Q

when are objective measures used

A

less than 6 months

32
Q

what is included in the visual reinforcement audiometry

A

toy is put in front of a child to keep their attention and they are focusing on that and they produce a sound to the side

if the child hears the sound they will turn toward the sound and will get positive reinforcement

conditioning them to turn their head if they hear another sound

33
Q

what is included in conditioned play audiometry

A

ear specific audiometry white is quite useful

they are conditioned to perform a task when they hear a sound

34
Q

what is conventional audimetry

A

ear specific audtimetry

we can test air conduction and also bone conduction

35
Q

what does bone conduction test

A

the nerve of hearing

36
Q

what does air conduction test

A

the conductive element of hearing

37
Q

what is speech audiometry

A

tests the ability to recognise and understand speech

38
Q

what is the HINT test

A

hearing in noise test

39
Q

what is the SPRINT test

A

speech recognition in noise test

40
Q

what is the WINT test

A

words in noise test

41
Q

what hearing test is performed on a new born

A

automated otoacoustic emission OAE

42
Q

how does an OAE work

A

the normal cochlea has a sound amplification mechanism, whereby the outer hair cells amplify basilar membrane movement in response to sound.

you put a probe in a baby’s ear and when the cochlea reacts it is picking up that reaction

robust result considered to be about 20dB hearing or better

43
Q

what happens if baby fails initial OAE

A

they will have another OAE in the next few days or weeks and if they fail again they will go on to have an ABR which is an auditory brainstem response test

44
Q

what does the auditory brainstem responses test test

A

eighth nerve
cochlear nucleus
superior olivary nucleus
lateral leminiscus
inferior colliculus

45
Q

what is amplitude

A

the number of neurones fired

46
Q

what is latency

A

the speed of transmission

47
Q

what is inter peak latency

A

the difference in wave 5 latency between the two ears

48
Q

what is speed

A

the way we say something

49
Q

what is language

A

the form, meaning and use of the words and utternace

50
Q

what is neuroplasticity

A

the brains ability to change through experience

51
Q

under 6 months

A

pre verbal
- crying, gestures
- hungry, tired, hot, cold, pain

52
Q

2 months:

A

coos and gurgles

53
Q

3 months

A

fixed on sound and calms to familiar voices

54
Q

6-10 months

A

able to express pleasure and displeasure. child can distinguish sounds of any language and reproduce this. (lost by age 11)

commutations by sounds and intonations

55
Q

6-12months

A

begin by detecting very small differences between speech and speech sounds (phonemes)

at 6 months they can contract different vowel phonemes

56
Q

1 year

A

one word stage - mainly morphemes

at end of first year, should be able to understand about 50 words and say around 5

learns words which produce effect - again and more etc

57
Q

18 months

A
  • two word phrases
  • should have 20-50 words
  • naming
  • demanding
    -questioning
58
Q

2.5 years

A
  • simple sentences
  • lack tenses
  • error in syntax
  • recognition of rhyme and intonation
  • 200-300 words
59
Q

2.5-5 years

A
  • improvements in phonemes
  • development of pronunciation and articulation
60
Q

6-10 years

A
  • master syllable stress to distinguish between similar words
61
Q

when do pre-lingually deaf children get implants

A
  • prescribe hearing aids before 3 months
  • implant before 4 years, ideally at 12 months
62
Q

post-lingually deaf adults

A

have sound memory

have used hearing aids to optimise hearing

already know how to speak and use language

63
Q

what happens after the period of neuroplasticity

A

the cochlear implantation does not improve hearing or speech