Bk 37 - Hazmat Ops Plan Flashcards
1
Q
According to the letter “From the office of the Fire Chief”:
The key components of hazardous materials management include?
A
-Prevention
-education and training
-fire suppression
-hazard mitigation.
2
Q
Multiple factors determine if a material may be considered hazardous….including:
A
-quantity
-concentration
-physical or Chemical characteristics
3
Q
At the operational level, a first responder to hazardous materials (FRO) responds to an incident in a DEFENSIVE fashion to:
A
-CONTAIN the release from a safe distance
-Keep it from SPREADING
-PREVENT EXPOSURES to nearby persons, property or environment.
4
Q
The California Code of Regulations 5192 require Incident Commanders of a hazmat incident to:
A
-Assess all hazards
-If an inhalation hazard exists, ensure the use of SCBA
-Limit the number of personnel within Exclusion Zone
-Ensure backups and standby EMS unit
-Designate a knowledgeable safety officer who can stop unsafe acts
-Implement appropriate decontamination procedures
5
Q
________ are individuals who respond to hazmat releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release
A
Hazardous materials technicians
6
Q
BP-1 (business information) and BP-8 (material inventory) forms are provided to fire stations by the Data Management Unit when businesses update inventories.
This provides information for ________ and ________.
A
INSPECTION and PRE-FIRE PLANNING.
7
Q
What are the three main areas of overall responsibility the Department has at a hazmat incident?
A
- ASSESSMENT of the incident
- NOTIFICATION of the proper agencies
- EMERGENCY MEASURES to minimize the effect of the hazmat condition on people, environment, and property
8
Q
The first responder who recognizes a hazardous material incident or incident involving weapons of mass destruction shall establish an initial ______ surrounding the incident.
The safety of Fire Department personnel and civilians will be of PRIMARY concern.
A
isolation zone
9
Q
At a Hazmat Incident, It is the Incident Commander’s responsibility to:
A
-secure the scene
-identify the material and quantity
-identify threat of contamination
-identify exposures
-identify contaminated individuals
-prevent the spread of contaminants
-request appropriate dept and allied resources
10
Q
The OVERALL STRATEGY utilized by the LAFD in a hazardous materials incident must provide a SAFE and CAUTIOUS APPROACH to INCIDENT STABILIZATION.
What are the Strategy Elements for a Hazmat incident?
(List of 7)
A
- Assess the incident – Recognize a potential problem
- Identify the substance/product
- Isolate
- Rescue - if possible
- Evacuate – if necessary
- Contain/control the release
- Identify responsible parties
11
Q
The IMMEDIATE concerns of a hazmat incident are:
A
• To protect life and safety
• To reduce, diminish or lessen the danger or spread of a hazardous material
• To prevent the situation from becoming worse
12
Q
An LAFD assignment for a confirmed hazardous materials incident normally includes:
A
-One Battalion Chief
-One Hazardous Materials Task Force (includes Squad)
-One EMS Captain
-One Paramedic Rescue Ambulance
-One Paramedic Engine Company
13
Q
HAZMAT ICS ORG CHART:
A
14
Q
Who will perform the necessary functions of the Hazmat Assistant Safety Officer if one has not been established?
A
TECHNICAL SUPPORT Team Leader (hazmat personnel)
(Reports to Incident Safety Officer)
15
Q
ICS Chart
The Hazardous Materials Group is under Operations and is composed of:
A
-Safe Refuge
-Site Control
-Entry Team
-Decontamination Team
-Technical Support Team
-Perimeter Control and Access.
16
Q
The _______ is an area for the assembly of civilian personnel who were witnesses to the hazardous materials incident or who were on-site at the time of the spill.
A
Safe Refuge Area
17
Q
The Safe Refuge Area should be located INSIDE the _______ Zone, adjacent to the Exclusion Zone Control Line.
A
Exclusion Zone
18
Q
The Site Control Team is normally composed of:
A
-Entry Team
-Decontamination Team
-Technical Support Team
They report to the Site Control Team Leader
19
Q
Which position in the Hazmat ICS reports to Hazmat Group and the officer may be from any company assigned to the incident, and not necessarily a Hazmat Technician?
A
Perimeter Control and Access Manager
20
Q
The paramedic engine company reports to the TECHNICAL SUPPORT TEAM LEADER and is responsible to monitor, support and provide medical treatment for who?
Members of the paramedic engine are placed in the _________ Corridor.
A
-Primary and Backup Entry Teams
-Technical Decon Team members
Contamination Reduction Corridor
21
Q
Hazmat Response Duties:
Paramedic Engine Company
- The Engineer can assist with water supply to ________ to relieve Hazardous Materials Task Force member.
- Firefighter Paramedics may work in the _______ with proper protective equipment.
A
- Technical Decon
- Contamination Reduction Corridor
22
Q
Hazmat response duties:
The paramedic rescue ambulance reports to the TECHNICAL SUPPORT TEAM LEADER and is responsible for transportation of __________.
The RA members will remain in the _______ Zone.
A
Hazardous Materials Task Force members
Support Zone
23
Q
Mass casualty Hazmat:
Patients will move from Safe Refuge to Gross Decon, from Gross Decon to Secondary Decon, and then on to ________.
A
Medical Triage
24
Q
ICS Hazmat Chart Expanded:
A
25
ICS Hazmat Expanded:
26
Once the first responder has arrived on scene, one of the initial considerations must be to establish perimeters for the incident.
What will these perimeters designate?
-Initial Isolation Zone
-evacuation boundaries
-Safe Refuge Area(s)
27
Hazmat First Responder Ops:
The Initial Isolation Zone should be established using the _________.
-Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
Factors to consider:
-Topography (will dictate LOCATION of Initial Isolation Zone)
-Material released (will determine SIZE of the Isolation Zone)
-Wind/weather
28
Hazmat First Responder Ops:
A Safe Refuge Area should be established WITHIN the outer-most perimeter of the _______ to contain those people who have been exposed
isolation area
29
First Responder Hazmat Ops:
Using the ERG, INITIAL evacuation perimeters must be based on _________.
What other factors impact the decision for the evacuation perimeter?
-The type of material
Wind
Weather
Time of Day
30
The basic rules of hazardous materials response dictate an APPROACH to an incident from?
Upwind, Uphill and Upstream
31
Rapid removal of the contaminant from the victim using _________, is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination.
Water streams (hand lines or master stream appliances)
32
Prior to initiating decontamination efforts, first responders should triage patients by attempting to separate which patients?
Separate symptomatic from asymptomatic patients
33
People who are asymptomatic may not receive decontamination, and may be moved directly to a ________ where they will be monitored.
Safe Refuge Area
34
Emergency decontamination (Gross Decon) is the initial decon intended to rapidly remove as much contamination as possible by REMOVING CLOTHES and SHOWERING VICTIMS.
Secondary Decontamination, which follows Emergency Decon, is a process that includes?
scrubbing with soap or other solution and thorough rinsing.
35
________ Decontamination is the deliberate and precise cleansing using pools, special solutions, monitoring methods, and specially trained personnel.
This type of Decontamination is INTENDED for all EMERGENCY RESPONDERS and is ideally performed in a separate area, away from the incident victims.
Technical Decon
36
________ Decontamination involves moving the victim from the hazardous atmosphere, and may involve oxygen therapy.
Respiratory
37
The best personal protective equipment for first responders engaged in decontamination is the Class _______ ensemble provided for every position on each fire suppression company and rescue ambulance.
Level B splash suits
(These do not enable firefighters to enter hazardous zones, and SHALL NOT be worn for that purpose)
38
Emergency Decon showering time will be incident-specific, but should be between ____ to _____ minutes per person.
one and three mins
39
Decon:
Patients will be moved from Gross Decon to the _______ where they will be evaluated and prioritized for further decontamination. Patients requiring further decontamination will then be passed to Secondary Decontamination personnel.
Safe Refuge Area
40
First-arriving companies can initiate Mass Decontamination by using FOG and SPRAY streams with?
-Ladder pipes
-Portable Monitors
-Wagon batteries
-Discharge gates
-Hand lines
41
Mass Decon:
All appliances used for showering should be supplied by LOW PRESSURE, and nozzles adjusted to a WIDE FOG PATTERN. If possible, engines should pump in ______ to limit pressure.
Volume
42
Hazmat:
Patients who have received emergency decontamination, or who remain or become SYMPTOMATIC while in Safe Refuge, will receive _______ Decontamination.
Secondary decon.
Additionally, All EXPOSED victims will receive Secondary Decontamination prior to medical triage or transport.
43
Emergency decon:
Approximately ____% or more of the contaminants will be removed by removing the victim’s clothing.
80%
(States 90% in TB #56)
44
When do you provide a patient with a Haz Mat Triage Tag?
When the patient is ENTERING Secondary Decon.
45
Emergency Decon:
As patients exit the decontamination line, they must be SURVEYED for CONTAMINATES. Who will complete this task?
Hazardous Materials Technicians
If the patient is free of contamination, provide them with a disposable coverall.
46
Decon 5 gal Bucket Inventory:
Trash bag — 10
Ziplock bag — 10
Foxtail brush — 2
Post decon Coveralls, XLG — 10
Dishwash Soap — 1
Hazmat Triage Tag — 10
47
The term used to describe actions directed at retrieving civilian exposure victims is ___________.
Rapid extraction
48
Assessment of Risk Vs Benefit of Extraction types:
49
The primary factor in determining whether the environment is appropriate for structural PPE and SCBA is?
The viability of the victims.
50
In order to MINIMIZE EXPOSURE for hazmat rapid extraction:
-______ must be available prior to entry
-Extraction teams shall use NO MORE than one 45-minute scba bottle until what is done?
-decontamination
-an evaluation for exposure by Hazmat personnel
51
Hazmat Rapid Extraction Guidelines:
What actions shall first responders take prior to initiating rapid extraction?
1. Establish that there are viable victims and a need for extraction operations.
2. Establish decontamination. At minimum, a charged hose line in the designated location.
3. Establish rapid intervention. A single engine company, following the 2-in 2-out rule, can fulfill the rapid intervention requirement.
4. Announce the intent to initiate rapid extraction to IC or incoming companies:
a. Identify the access point
b. Identify the number of personnel on team
5. Maintain continuous communications during extraction efforts.
52
Rapid Extraction Guidelines:
First responders must immediately leave the rescue site, make appropriate notifications, and proceed to decontamination when encountering what “exit” conditions?
1. Any signs or symptoms of exposure for any members of an extraction team
2. Encountering an area with ONLY non-viable victims
3. The first SCBA audible alarm (approximately 25% reserve for exiting and decontamination).
53
Who will provide resources for physical security during any hazardous materials event?
They are also responsible for evacuating those areas where no special protective clothing or equipment is required.
The Los Angeles Police Department
54
The minimum protection for all hazardous material incidents consists of full structural PPE, SCBA, and _______.
A personal dosimeter
(As an option, the Incident Commander may determine that the level “B” ensemble is appropriate for extraction activities)
55
Statistically, the most significant route of exposure for hazardous materials continues to be ________.
inhalation
(Responders shall don and use an SCBA to protect themselves from this route of exposure in all cases, until the atmosphere has been declared safe by IC or Hazmat TF)
56
During hazmat extraction operations, which part of the first responder’ body is most at risk at becoming contaminated?
Hands and feet
(Do not wear leather. Must be rubber boots and level “B” gloves)
57
The donning of structural PPE and SCBA, with the ________, provides the primary means of protection from most forms of radiation
personal dosimeter
58
_____ radiation represents a risk only if inhaled or ingested, and donning an SCBA eliminates this route of exposure.
Alpha
59
First responder:
If evacuation is required, evacuation teams shall enter only those areas where _____ and ______ provide an appropriate level of protection.
structural PPE and SCBA’s
60
If the material has not been identified, officers may use Guide ____ in the ERG as an initial estimate of minimum distances for evacuation
Guide 111
If the officer has doubts about the minimum distance to employ, an attempt should be made to contact the Hazardous Materials Task Force (HMTF)
61
Highlighted entries in the ERG represent what?
Toxic Inhalation Hazard (TIH) Materials
TIH materials have a separate section in the ERG, the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances (green-bordered pages). The table lists both the initial isolation and downwind evacuation distances.
62
Evacuation using the ERG:
The factors that impact the recommended Initial Isolation Distance are?
-the time of day (day or night)
-small spill (200 liters or less, approx a 55-gallon drum)
or
-large spill (greater than a 55-gallon drum).
63
Hazmat Evacuation methods:
What are the two methods of protecting people during a hazmat incident stated in the ERG?
Evacuation and sheltering in place
64
Hazmat evacuation
Evacuation is preferred when:
-the material is FLAMMABLE
-it may take a long time to clear the vapor from the area
-buildings cannot be tightly secured against atmospheric incursion
(Sheltering in-place is indicated where evacuation would expose people to a greater level of risk than leaving them indoors, or an evacuation cannot be performed.)
65
DOT placards are diamond-shaped signs, _____ inches on each side, that are required to be affixed on each side and each end of vehicles carrying hazardous materials.
10-3/4 inch
66
DOT Placards indicate the ______ hazard or the most dangerous property associated with the material being transported.
Some materials also require secondary placards to indicate additional hazards. Secondary placards DO NOT have hazard class numbers.
Primary
67
DOT labels are ______-inch diamonds (or smaller, for cylinders) affixed to non-bulk PACKAGES of hazardous materials
4 inch
Unlike placards, labeling is not limited to the primary hazard of a material
68
Both DOT placards and labels convey information by:
-United Nations (UN) identification number
-Color
-Hazard class number
-Symbol (pictograph).
69
DOT Placard Background Color Table:
70
Placards:
71
Hazmat Placarding:
What placarding system is not used in transportation, but is mandated by Los Angeles City ordinance on fixed facilities?
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 Diamond
72
The NFPA diamond is divided into four color-coded quadrants.
List each quadrant and the specific color and type of hazard:
Flammability Hazard - Red
Reactivity Hazard - Yellow
Special Hazards - White
Health Hazards - Blue
The Health, Flammability, and Reactivity Hazards are ranked from 0 to 4
73
NFPA 704 Placard:
Special hazard area abbreviations:
OX =
A trefoil (or propeller) =
A crossed out W =
COR =
OX = oxidizer
A trefoil (or propeller) = radioactive
A crossed out W = water-reactive
COR = corrosive
74
NFPA 704:
Although not recognized by NFPA, some users will insert the letters:
ALK =
ACID =
A =
ALK = alkaline
ACID = acidic
A = artisan
75
NFPA 704 Placard table:
76
Hazmat Containment and Control:
Before any containment actions can be initiated, a hazard assessment must be done.
What can first responders utilize to assess the hazard of a hazmat material?
-Shipping papers
-Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
-Emergency Response Guidebook
-Info from responding Hazmat TF
77
Containment involves safe actions to restrict, slow or redirect spread, and is the key action to protect nearby exposures.
First responders should not attempt containment or control of hazardous materials if doing so would…..
Require the use of specialized equipment
or
where it would expose them to unnecessary risk
78
Typical methods of containment for first responders include:
Dike (e.g., make a small curb with dirt around drain).
Dam (e.g., build overflow dam for product that sinks in water).
Divert (e.g., build small dike to change direction of flow).
Disperse (e.g., apply fog spray in chlorine cloud).
Dilute (e.g., apply water to water soluble material).
Cover (e.g., lay salvage cover over powder spill).
Foam (e.g., apply AFFF to large gasoline spill)
79
Containment dams:
80
Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “_______” or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the PEK/Mini-Radiac shall be worn when dispatched on ALL incidents.
High (ORANGE/LEVEL 4)
81
Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “Severe” (RED/LEVEL 5) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the following policy shall be in effect.
Mini-Radiacs shall be worn:
• On any incident
• When out of quarters
• When away from apparatus
• When in an enclosed space/building
Exceptions: Members are not required to wear the PEK/Mini-Radiac while on Fire Department property (e.g., Frank Hotchkin Memorial Training Center or Headquarters).
82
The Mini-Radiac shall be worn by all members responding on any of the following incidents:
-Any reported explosion
-Any incident where radiation is expected to be present (Labs, etc)
-Any incident of suspicious nature
-Any Bravo Tango incident in which the LAFD is supporting LAPD operations
-Any incident involving known radiation
83
How often shall hazmat equipment be inspected? (Level B suits, decon bucket, ect)
Monthly
84
First Responder Resources:
85
The Department’s hazardous materials resources are responsible for the following when called to an incident:
• Product identification
• Isolation of the hazard
• Stabilization/mitigation
• Decontamination (personnel and equipment)
• Technical support
• Provide Assistant Safety Officer Hazardous Materials
• Preparation of the Site Safety Plan
• Incident command support
• Allied agency notification
• Rescue from contaminated area
• Evacuation
86
What are the 3 Hazmat Zones that the incident scene is divided into?
1. Exclusion Zone (hot zone)
2. Contamination Reduction Zone (warm zone)
3. Support Zone (cold zone)
87
Which hazmat zone?
Area or space closest to the spill or release. The boundaries of this zone will be adjusted from the Initial Isolation Zone established by the first responder. The line surrounding this Zone is the “HOT LINE”, which is established by HAZMAT TASK FORCE personnel with approval of the Incident Commander. Entry into this Zone may require special personal protective equipment such as fully encapsulated suits. All entry and egress are through Access Control Points.
Exclusion Zone
88
Which hazmat zone?
Area or space immediately outside the Exclusion Zone. The line surrounding this Zone is the “Perimeter Control Line” and is established by the first responder.
Contamination Reduction zone
89
Which hazmat zone?
Area outside the Contamination Reduction Zone. A line may be established outside this Zone for control of civilian traffic using fire line tape. All functions not part of the Hazardous Materials Group are located in this Zone.
Support Zone
90
What hazmat operations take place in the Contamination Reduction Zone?
A. Contamination Reduction Corridors (CRC)
B. Preparation Area for Entry Teams
C. Technical Support Functions
D. Access Control Points
E. Decontamination Area(s) for civilians (gross, secondary)
91
Ideally, a minimum distance of ______ ft should be used for the depth of the Contamination Reduction Zone. This distance will allow the Hazardous Materials Task Force enough room to conduct their operations.
100 ft
92
The assigned _______ company will establish baseline vitals for all Entry Team members. These statistics will be compared to existing baseline vitals for Entry Team members, and to another set of vitals taken post-entry.
Paramedic Engine Company
93
Decon team members will don the appropriate PPE, along with respiratory protection (SCBA).
The proper level of protection will be?
-SAME level as the Entry Team
or
-ONE LEVEL BELOW
94
The standard technical decontamination process (for hazmat personnel) is accomplished using how many pools?
3 pools
In the first two pools in the CRC, Entry Team members will be soaped, scrubbed, and rinsed. The final rinse, using only water, is performed in the last pool.
95
Other than standard industrial chemicals, what are other materials a terrorist may choose to use for an attack?
Chemical
Biological
Radiological
Nuclear
Explosive
(CBRNE)
96
Homeland Security Advisory System:
There are five Threat Conditions, each identified by a description and corresponding color. From highest to lowest, the levels and colors are:
97
Los Angeles Fire Department Threat Condition Action Guide
98
The acronym for signs and symptoms of potential NERVE AGENT exposure is SLUDGEM, which stands for:
(S) Salivation
(L) Lacrimation
(U) Urination
(D) Defecation
(G) Gastrointestinal
(E) Emesis
(M) Muscle twitching
99
Terrorist Attacks: Biological agents can be either disease-causing organisms or toxins produced by living organisms.
Biological agents are generally split into what three groups?
Bacteria and rickettsia
Viruses
Toxins
100
The deployment of biological agents will be difficult to recognize for the first responder due to ____________, and may not be detected until days or weeks after.
incubation periods
Biological warfare agents considered a threat include anthrax, smallpox, and ricin, among others.
101
Of all the materials potentially deployed by terrorists, a detonation of a fissionable device is considered the ______ (most or least) likely threat?
Least
102
Possible Terrorist Attack:
If the survey of an area discloses that it appears safe to operate, first responders shall don appropriate personal protective equipment.
At the minimum, this will be?
full structural firefighting PPE, including SCBA on and operating
103
Terrorism:
A fundamental concept of self-protection involves the use of _______, ________ and shielding to prevent or limit the exposure of first responders.
Time
Distance
Shielding
104
First responders engaged in operations at an incident where chemical agents have been deployed, and who believe they have been contaminated, shall immediately inform their supervisor.
Company commanders shall, in turn, report immediately to _____________.
the Hazardous Materials Group Supervisor.
105
The different Entry Suits available to Hazmat Companies:
1. Level “A” fully encapsulated (re-usable, limited use, and disposable)
2. Level “B” (hooded disposable)
3. Flash Suit
4. Cold Suit
106
Hazmat SCBA
-Designated for hazmat only
-in suit communication through facepiece
-60 min SCBA
-Analog air gauge
These SCBA are reserved for hazmat incidents only, and are different from the firefighting SCBA in the following ways:
-no redundant warning devices such as rear and front PASS
-no buddy breathing connection
-no low air horn
(The only low air warning device on the haz mat SCBA is the bell on the first stage regulator. The reason for this is noise inside the suit.)
107
Hazmat Equipment — Air Cart
The Squads carry an air cart, which is used to supply cooling and breathing air using a pass-through device in the entry suit.
The air cart uses two ____-minute air bottles for a supply, switching between the two to assure an uninterrupted supply.
60 min
108
The Squads carry patch kits specific to CHLORINE, and they come in three different sizes:
1. “A” Kit for 150 lb. cylinders
2. “B” Kit for 1 ton cylinders
3. “C” Kit for ______.
railroad cars
109
Hazmat Patching, Plugging, Containment Equipment
The ______ kit is used to drill and vacuum out gasoline tank trucks and trailers so they can be righted.
tanker rollover
110
Describing the hazmat incident for the first onscene size up:
• Leak, spill, vapor cloud, etc.
• Quantity of product on ground or size of vapor cloud
• Container- size, shape, type, placard
• Rate of spill
111
Emergency Decon guidelines:
1. Don personal protective equipment.
2. Avoid direct contact with victims.
3. Establish hose lines or appliances to provide high-volume fog spray.
4. Encourage victims to remove outer garments.
5. Spray victims from top down.
6. Move ambulatory victims to Safe Refuge Area.
112
Rapid Extraction
Upon completion of the extraction missions, first responders shall:
1. Proceed through decontamination. Be guided by directions from the Hazardous Materials Task Force
2. Consider PPE used during extraction as contaminated, and keep it segregated from other equipment until it is determined to be safe
3. Be examined by ALS personnel for post-entry symptoms and vitals
4. Proceed to Rehab, as needed.
113
Some of the Disadvantages of the Emergency Response Guidebook:
-Information is very general
-Effectiveness of recommended actions may be limited
-Evacuation table is good for the first _____ minutes ONLY.
30 mins
(If possible, and if time allows, first responders should confirm actions recommended by the ERG with the Hazardous Materials Task Force, and independent sources of information such as Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).)
114
Using the Emergency Response Guidebook
Begin by identifying the material using the ______ on a placard or orange panel, or on the shipping papers (after .UN. or .NA.).
4-digit identification number
(If you do not have the 4-digit identification number or product name, but can see a placard, refer to the table of placards just before the YELLOW-bordered pages for the 3-digit Guide number.)
115
Using the Emergency Response Guidebook:
-If you have the 4-digit material ID NUMBER: Refer to YELLOW Pages
-If you have the NAME of MATERIAL: Refer to BLUE Pages
-Once you reference Yellow/Blue page, refer to ORANGE pages for the 3-digit response guide
116
The owner or manager of a facility is required to keep an MSDS for all hazardous materials (above an established quantity) handled or stored at the facility. Responders should access these Sheets during pre-incident planning.
Material Safety Data Sheets will provide information on:
• Physical and chemical PROPERTIES of the material
• HAZARDS associated with the material
• Basic directions for RESPONSE ACTIONS
117
Shipping papers provide detailed information about the contents of the shipment which may alert first responders to the presence of hazardous materials through a variety of required entries.
First responders should look for the following information on the shipping papers:
• Emergency Response Information – contact phone number, emergency actions for release/fire, protective and first aid measures.
• Proper shipping name.
• DOT Hazard Class and Division, and DOT Identification Number.
• Total quantity or RQ (Reportable Quantity), a notation indicating that a hazardous material is being shipped in an amount exceeding a federally specified level.
• Packing Group I, II, or III - based on the degree of danger represented by the material (I = great danger, II = medium danger, III = minor danger).
• POISON, POISON-INHALATION HAZARD, INHALATION HAZARD or the notation INHALATION HAZARD ZONE may appear on shipping papers.
• Other notations such as CORROSIVE, EXPLOSIVE, etc.
118
Shipping Papers Chart:
119
A "small" spill is considered approximately _______
-Equivalent to a 55 gallon drum or less than 200 liters.
(Large spill is considered more than 55 gal drum)
120
Exclusion Zone Operations
The Entry Team Leader will have a minimum of one Back-Up Team partially suited up and prepared for relief or rescue (rapid intervention) of an Entry Team. The back-up team shall be staged where?
Support area
121
The ________ reports to the Hazardous Materials Group Supervisor and implements the IAP, ensures that contaminants are CONTROLLED, and maintains RECORDS.
Site Control Leader
