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Biology-Genetics Flashcards

0
Q

define genotype:

A

Genetic makeup.

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1
Q

What are genes composed of? Where are genes located?

A

Made of DNA

Located on chromsomes.

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2
Q

Define phenotype:

A

Physical manifestation of genetic makeup.

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3
Q

What is Mendel’s first law?

A

Law of segregation.

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4
Q

Four principles of inheritance in Mendel’s 1st law:

A

1) genes have alleles (alternate forms)
2) there are 2 alleles for each trait- one from each parent.
3) two alleles separate in meiosis…gametes carry only one allele.
4) dominant allele is expressed; recessive allele is silent.

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5
Q

What is Mendel’s law of dominance?

A

Dominant allele appears in phenotype.

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6
Q

What is a monohybrid cross?

A

Studying only one trait.

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7
Q

Parental generation in monohybrid cross produces the…..

A

Filial generations.

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8
Q

What is the standard pattern if Mendelian inheritance?

A

Disappearance of recessive phenotype in F1 and it reappears in 25% of F2 generation.

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9
Q

What is done in a test cross?

A

Organism with dominant phenotype with unknown genotype is crossed with phenotypically recessive organism.

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10
Q

What does the appearance of the recessive allele in the progeny of a test cross indicate?

A

That the phenotypic dominant parent is genotypically heterozygous.

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11
Q

What is Mendel’s second law?

A

Law of independent assortment

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12
Q

What is dihybrid cross?

A

Parents differ in 2 traits.

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13
Q

What is a dihybrid cross requirement?

A

Genes must be on separate chromosomes and assort independently.

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14
Q

What is typical pattern of dihybrid cross between heterozygotes with independently assorting traits?

A

9:3:3:1

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15
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Phenotype of heterozygotes is an intermediate of the homozygous parents. EX: pink flowers.

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16
Q

What is codominance?

A

More than 1 allele exists for a gene and more than one of them is dominant.

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17
Q

Example of codominance:

A

ABO blood groups. Can be A, B, O or AB blood type. AB blood type occurs because IA and IB are both dominant so their characteristics combine to form AB blood type

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18
Q

How many pars of autosomes do humans have?

A

22

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19
Q

Sex chromosomes for males and females:

A

Males: XY
Females: XX

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20
Q

Sex of human zygote is determined by what gamete?

A

Make gamete.

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21
Q

Examples of sex-linked recessive genes. Who do these occur in more often?

A

Color blindness and Hemophilia

More common in meh because there is no dominant allele to mask the gene.

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22
Q

How is it possible that sex-linked genes skip a generation?

A

Fathers cannot pass to son but if the daughter is a carrier their son may have the gene.

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23
Q

Why is drosophila melanogaster studied?

A

Fruit flies reproduce often, reproduce in large numbers, have few chromosomes (2N=8), have large chromosomes, have many mutations.

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24
Q

What impacts the expression of a gene?

A

Interaction of the environment and the genotype.

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25
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis 1 OR
Failure of sister chromatid to separate during meiosis 2.

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26
Q

What are common results of nondisjunction?

A

Trisomy (Down’s syndrome-chromosome 21)

Monosomy

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27
Q

What are mutations?

A

Changes in DNA of a cell

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28
Q

What are mutations in somatic cells presented as?

A

Tumors

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29
Q

What happens to mutations in sex cells/gametes?

A

Passed to offspring

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30
Q

Most mutations occur in DNA regions that…

A

Don’t code for proteins…silent.

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31
Q

What induce mutation?

A

Mutagenic agents.

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32
Q

Examples of mutagenic agents:

A

Cosmic rays, X-rays, uv rays, and colchicine (inhibits spindle formation=polyploidy), mustard gas

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33
Q

Define mutation:

A

Permanent change in DNA sequence of gene that may or may not alter the AA sequence of protein.

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34
Q

What is PKU?

A

Phenylketonuria. Inability to produce enzyme to metabolize phenylalanine…..phenylpyruvic avid builds up.

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35
Q

What is sickle-cell anemia?

A

RBCs are crescent shaped because they contain defective hemoglobin. Less O2 is carried.

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36
Q

What mutation causes sickle cell anemia?

A

Valine is substituted for glutamic acid because of a single base pair substitution in hemoglobin gene

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37
Q

DNA of valine:

DNA of glutamic acid:

A

Valine= GUA or GUG

Glutamic acid= GAA or GAG

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38
Q

Genes are composed of:

A

DNA

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39
Q

DNA contains:

A

Genetic info coded in base pairs

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40
Q

DNA self-replication is the basis of:

A

Heredity

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41
Q

Basic unit of DNA:

A

Nucleotide

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42
Q

Components of a nucleotide:

A

Deoxyribose (sugar)
Phosphate group
Nitrogenous base

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43
Q

Two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA:

A

Purines and pyrimidines

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44
Q

What are the DNA purines?

A

Adenine and guanine

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45
Q

What are the DNA pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine and thymine.

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46
Q

CUT the PY

A

Cytosine Uracil and Thymine are pyrimidines

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47
Q

PUR As Gold

A

Purines are Adenine and Guanine

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48
Q

In the DNA helix, is the sugar-phosphate chain or the bases on the inside?

A

Bases are on the inside of the helix.

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49
Q

T forms …..hydrogen bonds with ….

A

2 hydrogen bonds with A

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50
Q

G always forms …..hydrogen bonds with…..

A

2 hydrogen bonds with C

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51
Q

The more G/C content, the more….

A

Tightly bound the DNA strands

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52
Q

What enzymes unwind DNA?

A

Helicase and gyrase enzymes

53
Q

In DNA replication, what end does the RNA primer start on?

A

5’ end of new strand

54
Q

Replication occurs on the ……direction

A

5’ to 3’

55
Q

What does lagging strand do?

A

Adds nucleotides in Okazaki fragments

56
Q

Why is DNA replication semiconservation?

A

DNA acts as template for synthesis of 2 daughter strands.

57
Q

How many amino acids are there?

A

20

58
Q

What is transcription?

A

DNA code is read to produce mRNA transcripts.

59
Q

What is a codon?

A

Triplet codes on mRNA transcripts

60
Q

Is the genetic code universal for all organisms?

A

Yes

61
Q

T or F. Most amino acids have more than one codon specifying them.

A

True.

62
Q

What is degeneracy of genetic code?

A

The fact that there are synonyms in the genetic code.

63
Q

What is the difference between RNA and DNA?

A

RNA has ribose instead of deoxyribose
It contains uracil and not thymine
Single stranded

64
Q

Where is RNA found?

A

Nucleus and cytoplasm

65
Q

What does mRNA do?

A

Carries complement of DNA sequence from nucleus to ribosomes where proteins are made.

66
Q

T Or F. mRNA is the complementary code of DNA.

A

True.

67
Q

Is mRNA monocistronic in eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes….codes for one polypeptide. (It is polycistronic in prokaryotes.)

68
Q

What does tRNA do?

A

Brings AAs to ribosomes during protein synthesis.

69
Q

What does rRNA do?

A

Structural component of ribosomes.

70
Q

Where is rRNA made?

A

Nucleolus

71
Q

What is the most abundant type of RNA?

A

rRNA. Ribosomal RNA.

72
Q

What is transcription?

A

Process in which Info coded in base DNA sequence is turned in mRNA.

73
Q

3 mains parts of transcription:

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

74
Q

What happens in initiation of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase (adds RNA nucleotides) must recognize TATA box sequence were transcription should begin.

75
Q

What happens in the elongation phase of transcription?

A

RNA polymers adds to the growing RNA transcript in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

76
Q

When does transcription terminate?

A

RNA polymerase recognize sequence on new transcripts (ex: hairpin loop in prokaryotes)

77
Q

Is complete mRNA transcript made from transcription in prokaryotes or eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes. In eukaryotes hnRNA still needs post-translational processing.

78
Q

What must be done to hnRNA before it can be translated?

A

Remove introns (no gene code)
Splice together exons (gene sequence)
Protect transcript with 5’ cap and poly A tail.

79
Q

What is translation?

A

mRNA codons are translated into AA sequence.

80
Q

Where does translation occur?

A

Cytoplasm.

81
Q

What does translation involve?

A

tRNA, ribosomes, mRNA, AAs, enzymes and proteins.

82
Q

tRNA has two abilities:

A

RecogniZes AAs

Recognizes mRNA codon

83
Q

Structure of tRNA:

A
  • 3 nucleotide sequence anticodon that is complementary to a mRNA codon.
  • AA attachment site
84
Q

What is an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?

A

Enzyme with active site to bind AA and tRNA.

85
Q

What are the 3 binding sites of ribosomes?

A

1 for mRNA

2 for tRNA

86
Q

What is the p and a site of a ribosome?

A

Binding sites for tRNA.
P site binds to tRNA attached to polypeptide chain.
A site binds to incoming aminoacyl-tRNA complex.

87
Q

Ribosome scans mRNA until it finds what start codon?

A

AUG

88
Q

Methionine-tRNA has what anticodon?

A

3’-UAC-5’

89
Q

Concurrent action of translocation=

A

Ribosomes advances 3 nucleotides along mRNA in 5 to 3 direction. *uncharged tRNA from P sure is expelled, peptidyl-tRNA from A site moves into P site. The a site is then ready for the next amino-acyl tRNA for the next codon.

90
Q

When does polypeptide synthesis stop?

A

When mRNA termination codons enter A site: UAA, UAG or UGA.

91
Q

What bonds create secondary protein structure?

A

Disulfide bonds

92
Q

T or F. DNA is found in chloroplasts, mitochondria and other cytoplasmic bodies.

A

T.

93
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Cytoplasmic rings of DNA containing genes….responsible for drug resistance.

94
Q

Bacterial genome is single circle chromosome located where?

A

Nucleiod region

95
Q

What are episomes?

A

Plasmids capable of integrating into bacterial genome.

96
Q

In what direction does replication of the bacterial chromosome occur?

A

Both directions.

97
Q

Bacteria cells reproduce with….

A

Binary fission.

98
Q

How can bacteria increase genetic variance?

A

Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction

99
Q

What is transformation in bacterial reproduction?

A

Foreign plasmid is incorporated in chromosome via recombination

100
Q

What is conjugation in bacterial reproduction?

A

Sexual mating: transfer of genetic material between two bacteria that are temporarily joined.

101
Q

What forms in conjugation of bacteria?

A

Conjugation bridge. Sex factors are transferred from male to female.

102
Q

What is the common sex factor studied in bacteria?

A

F factor in E. coli.

F+ cells replicate f factor give to F- recipients.

103
Q

Bacteria with the sex factor integrated into genome are called…..

A

Hfr cells

High Frequency of Recombination.

104
Q

What is transduction in bacterial replicaton?

A

Fragments of bacterial chromosome package into viral progeny made during infection. These can then infect other bacteria

105
Q

What allows bacteria to control their metabolism?

A

Transcription/regulation of gene expression

106
Q

Regulation of transcription is directed by….

A

An operon.

107
Q

What is an operon made of?

A

Structural genes(DNA that code for proteins), operator gene(repressor binding site), promoter gene(initial binding site for RNA polymerase).

108
Q

What is an inductive system?

A

Require presence of a substance (an inducer) for transcription.

109
Q

What are repressible systems?

A

Constantly transcribing unless corepressor is present to inhibit transcription.

110
Q

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter——>

A

Structural genes are transcribed.

111
Q

Repressor binds to operator——>

A

Structural genes NOT transcribed

112
Q

Inducer binds to repressor—–>

A

No binding to operator—–>structural genes transcribed

113
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

Virus that infects it’s host bacterium by attaching to it, drilling a hole and injecting it’s DNA while it’s protein coat remains attaches to cell wall.

114
Q

What kind of cycles do bacteriophage enter once inside it’s host?

A

Lytic or lysogenic cycles

115
Q

What is a Lytic cycle?

A

Bacteriophage enters hosts and the bacteria cell lyses and releases new virions that can infect other bacteria.

116
Q

What are virulent bacteriophages?

A

Replicate by Lytic cycles and kill host cells

117
Q

What is a plague in respect to bacteriophages?

A

Clearing in played culture corresponding to area of lysed bacteria

118
Q

What is lysogenic cycle?

A

Bacteriophage doesn’t lysed and integrates into genome in a harmless way (prophage) until it reemergence and enters Lytic cycle.

119
Q

Gel electrophoresis when is agarose gel used?

A

To separate DNA molecules of different sequence lengths.

120
Q

Gel electrophoresis when are synthetic polymers gels like polyacrylamide used?

A

To separate protons of various AA lengths.

121
Q

What is blotting and when is it used?

A

Used to preserve the sample. Used to detect molecules.

122
Q

What does southern blotting allow for?

A

Specific DNA sequence.

123
Q

What is northern blotting used for?

A

Detection of RNA.

124
Q

What is western blotting used for?

A

Detection of specific proteins.

125
Q

How can DNA amplification be done?

A

PCR (polymerase chain reaction)

126
Q

3 steps of PCR:

A

Denaturation of DNA
Annealing- primers attach to single stranded templates at the start of the delisted sequence.
Primer extension- attach bases contemplate to template.

127
Q

How can genes be amplified with gene cloning?

A

DNA is connected to vectors (self-replication phases) via DNA ligase. It is inserted into bacteria through transformation. Bacteria produces identical copies of DNA

128
Q

What is the most popular DNA sequencing method?

A

Chain termination method.

129
Q

What does the chain termination method use?

A

ddNTPs (dideoxynucleotides- modified to prevent addition). Separate single stranded result with electrophoresis.

130
Q

How is DNA tested for diseases?

A

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPS)

131
Q

How does RFLP work?

A

Restriction enzymes bind and but DNA at specific sequences. Allows for identifying the patterns for disease and specify genes involved.

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