Biochemistry 4th LE 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

Patient who are chronically ill are in which type of nitrogen balance

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. equilibrium
d. inadequate

A

b. Negative

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2
Q

Which statement is correct about the sodium potassium ATPase pump?

a. It is a symport pump accompanied by ATP hydrolysis
b. It moves sodium in and out of the surface of great cells
c. It is an electroneutral system at the basolateral membrane
d. it’s action results to low intracellular sodium and isovoltage

A

b. It moves sodium in and out of the surface of great cells

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3
Q

In what Segment of the intestine is fluid absorption 98% efficient?

a. Duodenum
b. distal colon
c. Jejunum
d. Ileum
e. Proximal colon

A

d. Ileum

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4
Q

Which of the following transporter has the highest concentration in the crypt cell?

a. CFTR
b. BRA
c. ENaC
d. PAP

A

a. CFTR

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5
Q

What is the mechanism involved in the regulation of increased sodium absorption by NHE3

a. Increase activity of NHE3 by glucocorticoid by interruption of SGK1 and NHE
b. Increase cGMP activates NHE3 by formation of a complex between CGK2 and NHERF2

A

a. Increase activity of NHE3 by glucocorticoid by interruption of SGK1 and NHE

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6
Q

Which is correct about potassium transport in the GIT ?

a. Each potassium ATPase are activated by increased levels of aldosterone
b. Each potassium ATPase are activated by increased levels of potassium in the distal colon
c. Potassium absorption ___ expansive as a result of decreased intracellular voltage
d. potassium channels at the basolateral membrane found in the sites promote chloride secretion

A

b. Each potassium ATPase are activated by increased levels of potassium in the distal colon

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7
Q

Which is true about bicarbonate transport of the GIT ?

a. Anion exchanger are absent in the apical membranes of crypt cell
b. Major mechanism for bicarbonate secretion is by chloride bicarbonate exchangers
c. down regulated in adenoma transport 2HCO3-1CL
d. rotative anion transporter across 1HCO3-2Cl

A

b. Major mechanism for bicarbonate secretion is by chloride bicarbonate exchangers

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8
Q

Which functional group pair is correct?

a. Thiamine: methyl pyridine
b. riboflavin: iso__ ring
c. pyridoxine: retinoic acid
d. folic acid: ribitol

A

a. Thiamine methyl pyridine

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9
Q

which of the following coenzyme contain a nucleotide component?

a. FADH2
b. Thiamine pyrophosphate
c. His-adenosyl methionine
d. Coenzyme

A

a. FADH2

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10
Q

The final electron acceptor during catalytic activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase is a derivative of

a. lipoic acid
b. niacin
c. pantothenic acid
d. riboflavin

A

b. niacin

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11
Q

Thiamine pyrophosphate participates in this type of reaction

a. oxidative decarboxylation
b. hydride transfer
c. ATP dependent carboxylation
d. amino group transfer

A

a. oxidative decarboxylation

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12
Q

Which vitamin is the precursor of the coenzyme that acts as an electron sink during metabolism?

a. pyridoxine
b. niacin
c. riboflavin
d. thiamin

A

b. niacin

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13
Q

Which of the following cofactors is not found or used by the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex

a. FMN
b. lipoic acid
c. NAD
d. TTP

A

a. FMN

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14
Q

Which of the following is the characteristic of metabolism of cyanocobalamin?

a. absorption occurs upon binding with pancreatic secretion
b. easily bound to drastic? Cobalophilin
c. released by hydrolytic cleavage in duodenum
d. Initial absorption involves the free form

A

c. released by hydrolytic cleavage in duodenum

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15
Q

The anti oxidant properties of tocopherol requires reoxidation by a

a. ascorbic acid
b. carotenoids
c. retinoic acid
d. Selenium

A

a. ascorbic acid

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16
Q

The role of vitamin a In vision can be described as

a. 11 cis retinal is reversibly associated with opsin
b. light converts 11 cis retinol to all trans retinal
c. 11 cis retinol is regenerated through isomerization
d. all trans retinol binds to opsin through a schiff based linkage

A

a. 11 cis retinal is reversibly associated with opsin

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17
Q

Decarboxylation of glutamic acid residues of clotting factors facilitate binding to

a. accelerin
b. calcium
c. protein c
d. protein S

A

b. calcium

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18
Q

Regeneration of the active vitamin k involves epoxide reductase that

a. oxidizes quinine
b. oxidizes epoxide
c. reduces hydroxyquinone
d. reduces epoxide

A

d. reduces epoxide

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19
Q

The dietary requirement of pyridoxine is proportionate to the intake of

a. CHO
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acids
d. CHON

A

d. CHON

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20
Q

Folate trap occurs in the absence of

a. cysteine
b. homocysteine
c. methionine
d. S- adenosyl methionine

A

c. methionine

21
Q

Which enzyme coenzyme precursor is correct?

a. glycogen phosphorylase : Lipoic acid
b. methionine synthase: folic acid
c. pyruvate carboxylase : biotin
d. transketolase : pyridoxine

A

c. pyruvate carboxylase : biotin

22
Q

The non- atherogenic function of tocopherol is related with

a. decrease production of LDL receptors
b. stable ubiquinone
c. diminish oxidation of LDL
d. increase chylomicron synthesis

A

c. diminish oxidation of LDL

23
Q

Which statement describes the epoxide cycle?

a. requires binding with active vitamin A coenzyme
b. nonenzymatically reduces epoxide to quinine
c. involves electron transport in the presence of NADH
d. results in post translational modification of glutamate

A

d. results in post translational modification of glutamate

24
Q

which metabolic function is exhibited by sodium?

a. prosthetic group of enzyme
b. arbitrary role in hormone action
c. structural component
d. stability of lipid structure

A

b. arbitrary role in hormone action

25
Q

Gene expression is a function of

a. retinol
b. retinal
c. retinoic acid
d. carotenoids

A

A or C

26
Q

Which of the ff is found in high concentration in breastmilk compared to cow’s milk?

a. minerals
b. whey
c. lactoglobulin
d. Saturated fatty acid

A

b. whey

27
Q

Which of the following is the correct casein:whey ratio in breast milk

a. 40:60
a. 60:40
b. 82:18
c. 18:82

A

a. 40:60

28
Q

. High levels of the following breast milk components are physiologic disadvantage to an infant’s growing kidneys

a. lactose
b. unsaturated fatty acid
c. lactoferrin
d. calcium

A

d. calcium

29
Q

This breastmilk component confers lower incidence of iron deficiency anemia among breastfed infants

a. alpha-lactalbumin
b. linoleic acid
c. lactoferrin
d. Vitamin C

A

c. lactoferrin

30
Q

. A higher concentration of the ff increase nutrient utilization in breastmilk

a. digestible CHON
b. Vit. K
c. Ash
d. Essential amino acid

A

a. digestible CHON

31
Q

. which of the following is the major immunoglobulin found in breastmilk?

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
a. d.IgE

A

b. IgA

32
Q

lactose is dominant CHO results to lower incidence of the ff among breastfed infants

a. colic
b. obesity
c. dental caries
d. essential fatty acids

A

c. dental caries

33
Q

Carnitine fortification in milk formulas aim to achieve higher synthesis

a. fat
b. triacylglycerol
c. energy
d. bifidus factor

A

c. energy

34
Q

Condense milk has a casein predominant formula is not recommended for infant feeding because it contains the following in excessive amount

a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. dextrin

A

a. sucrose

35
Q

Which is true of fat content of breastmilk?

a. It has lower concentration in hindmilk
b. It has high concentration in early morning
c. higher levels of saturated fatty acids in mothers with high fish diet
d. it has lower concentration in comparison to cow’s milk

A

b. It has high concentration in early morning

36
Q

Which of the following is true of absorption and excretion of electrolytes in the normal GIT?

a. majority of water is absorbed in small intestine
b. absorption rate is lesser than secretion rate all throughout the intestine
c. Na-K-Cl are excreted, H-HCO3 are absorbed
d. 10% of oral fluid intake is present in the stool

A

a. majority of water is absorbed in small intestine

37
Q

WHO formulated ORS solution has this prescribed osmolality

A

245 mOsm/kg

38
Q

The reduced osmolarity of reformulated ORS offers the diarrhea patient less risk of developing the ff. clinical problem

a. hypokalemia and ileus
b. hypernatremia and osmotic diarrhea
c. hyponatremic DHN and some swelling
d. hyperkalemia and cardiac arrhytmias

A

b. hypernatremia and osmotic diarrhea

39
Q

Which of the ff statement is true about the typical water balance of a healthy adult?

a. drinking water comprises 50% of daily water intake
b. the water in food is the primary source of water intake
c. stool water accounts for 50% of total daily water output

A

b. the water in food is the primary source of water intake

40
Q

one of the ff statement about regulation of water balance is true

a. the thirst mechanism is the major regulator of water intake
b. the ADH stimulates secretion in the proximal tubule
c. intake of male athletes are lower than their water secretion
d. Thirst is directly regulated by intracellular fluid osmolarity

A

a. the thirst mechanism is the major regulator of water intake

41
Q

What physical characteristics of the urine and hormone relationship is noted in the child with isotonic diarrhea?

A

a. High urine specific gravity high ADH level

42
Q

. One of the ff. statements about renal handling of sodium is true

a. 60-70% of filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the DCT
b. the aldosterone altered the sensitivity of the glomerular basement membrane
c. isoosmotic state is seen in areas proximal to nephron loop
d. sodium is passively filtered in the glomerular basement membrane

A

c. isoosmotic state is seen in areas proximal to nephron loop

43
Q

. Excessive intake of ORS will lead to

a. water excess
b. water deficit
c. sodium excess
d. sodium deficit

A

c. sodium excess

44
Q

one of the ff hormone stimulate sodium reabsorption

a. dopamine
b. progesterone
c. growth hormone
d. testosterone

A

c. growth hormone

45
Q

A high aldosterone level will increase

A

increase reabsorption of sodium

46
Q

One of the ff will induce hypokalemia

a. alkalemia
b. congestive heart failure
c. hyperthemia
d. renal failure

A

a. alkalemia

47
Q

Gittleman’s syndrome is due to defect in

A

NaCl channel

48
Q

What is the most common presentation of hypokalemia?

A

muscle weakness