Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

My board exam flashcards > Biochem > Flashcards

Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

Glycogen storage diseases Very Poor Carbohydrate Metabolism

A

VON GIERKE glucose 6 phosphatase POMPES alpha 1 4 glucosidase CORI alpha 1 6 glucosidase MCARDLE glycogen phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Glucose transporters not requiring insulin

A

GLUT 13 brain kidney placenta GLUT 2 liver pancreatic B cell SI Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

GLUT requiring insulin

A

GLUT 4 Heart Skeletal muscle Adipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GLUT 1

A

RBC COLON Brain KidneyPlacenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

GLUT 3

A

Brain Kidney Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GLUT 5

A

Small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Location of glycolysis

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 carbon end products of glycolysis

A

Pyruvate or Lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

rate limiting step of glycolysis

A

PFK 1 from fructose 6 phosphate TO fructose 1 6 bisphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 irreversible steps of glycolysis

A

1 phosphorylation of glycose via GLUCOKINASE or HEXOKINASE. 2 phosphorylation of fructose 6 phosphate via PFK1. 3 formation of pyruvate via PYRUVATE DEHYDROGENASE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

No of ATP from substrate level phosphorylation in Glycolysis

A

4 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

No of ATP needed for glycolysis

A

2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ATP production in glycolysis using KINases ie phosphate transfer into ADP

A

1 3 biphosphoglycerate and PEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NADH prodc in glycolysis

A

glycealdehyde 3 phosphate to 1 3 bisphosphoglycerate via a DEHYDROGENASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Malate aspartate shittle liver kidney heart vs glycerol phosphate shuttle in brain and sk ms

A

Malate 1 NADH to 3 ATP via NADH e acceptor complex I while Glycerol 1 NADH to 2 ATP via FADH e acceptor in complex II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

organs that are Strictly anaerobic glycolysis

A

RBC lens cornea medulla of kidney testes WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

NET ATP yield from Glycolysis

A

Anaerobic 2 ATP. Aerobic ATPs ff NADG 4 or 6 with net ATP of 6 or 8 depending on shuttle used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Function of 2 3 Bisphosphoglycerate

A

reduces Hgb affinity for O2 hence releasing it. Note fetal hgb has higher 2 3 biphosphoglycerate than mom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Arsenic poison competes with

A

1competes with phosphate as substrate for GLYCERALDEHYDE 3 P DEHYDROGENASE 2 binds lipoic acid so PYRUVATE DEHYDROGENASE wont work therefore no NADH is produced during glycolysis to go into ETC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MC enzyme defect in glycolysis

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency presents as chronic hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

2 enzymed requiring 5 co enzymes

A

1 pyruvate dehydrogenase 2 Alpha ketogluterate Dehydrogenase of TCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

5 co enzymes of the divas Love Never Fails To Conquer

A

Lipoic acid Niacin riboFADin Thiamine Co enzyme A with B5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MCC congenital lactic acidosis

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency X linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Site of TCA

A

mitochondrial matrix EXCEPT succinate dehydrogenase aka Complex II in inner mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

substrate of TCA

A

ACETYL COA fr pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

UP above acid vs base

A

above pka. Acid is unprotonated with negative charge. Base is unprotonated with charge. Charged is water soluble. Uncharged is lipid soluble.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rate limiting step of TCA

A

isocitrate to alpha ketogluterate via isocitrate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Steps in TCA Cindy is Kind So She Forgives More Often

A

Citrate Isocitrate Ketogluterate Succinyl Coa Succinate Fumarate Malate Oxaacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

dehydrogenase always produces an

A

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Citrate

A

fatty acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

succinyl coa

A

heme synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

malate

A

may be used for gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TCA where NADH is produced

A

1 isocitrate dehydrogenase 2 alpha ketogluterate dehydrogenase 3 malate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TCA where FADH is produced

A

succinate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TCA where GTP is produced

A

succinate thioKINase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ATP yield fr TCA starting fr Acetyl Coa or Pyruvate

A

must multiply by 2 coz 2 acetyl coa entered TCA per glucose. acetyl coa 12 or pyruvate 15. nu shuttle needed coz inside mitochondria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

goal of gluconeogenesis

A

prevent hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

site of gluconeogenesis

A

90 percent in LIVER. 10 percent in KIDNEY. Esrd prone to hypogly coz in fasting kidney does 40 percent of work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gluconeogenesis subtrate

A

pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

rate limiting step in gluconeogenesis

A

fructose 1 6 bisphosphate to fructose 6 phosphate via Fructose 1 6 bisphosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cori cycle of Gluconeogenesis

A

lactate fr sk ms and rbc converted to GLUCOSE in liver and then given back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hexokinase or glucokinase in glycolysis is _____________________ in gluconeogenesis

A

glucose 6 phosphatase in ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PFK 1 in glycolysis is ______________ in gluconeogenesis

A

fructose 1 6 bisphosphatase in CYTOSOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

pyruvate kinase in glycolysis is _______________ in gluconeogenesis

A

Pyruvate carboxylase in Mitochondria. Requires biotin and ATP. Activated by Acetyl coA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

co factor of carBoxylase

A

Biotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

home of glucose 6 phophate enzyme

A

liver and kidney. Recall gluconeogenesis ito. Wala sa muscle kaya me cori cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ATP requirement for gluconeogenesis

A

4 atp from burning of fat ie beta oxydation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

gluconeogenesis produces NADH. ETOH metab also produces NADH shunting reaction away from gluconeogenesis and towards

A

1 pyruvate to lactate 2 OAA to malate 3 DHAP to glycerol 3 phosphate aka FA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

storage of glycogen in

A

LIVER for export and MUSCLE for internal use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

glycogen bond for elongation

A

alpha 1 to 4 glycosidic bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

glycogen bond for branching

A

alpha 1 to 6 glycosidic bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

shared enzyme gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

A

glucose 6 phosphatase in ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

enzymes are DEPHOSPHORALATED in ______________ state

A

well fed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

enzymes are PHOSPHORALATED in ______________ state

A

fasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Gluconeogenesis. Enzyme used in Pyruvate TO Oxaloacetate and where

A

Pyruvate carboxylase in Mitochondria. Requires biotin and ATP. Activated by Acetyl coA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Gluconeogenesis. Enzyme used in Oxaloacetate TO Phosphoenolyruvateand and where

A

PEP Carboxikinase in Cytosol. Requires GTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
^ ^ Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
Serotonin -> melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Derivative of Histidine

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1GABA from Glutamate + B6

2 glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
^ ^ Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
Serotonin -> melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Derivative of Histidine

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

76
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1GABA from Glutamate + B6

2 glutathione

77
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

78
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

79
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

80
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
81
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
82
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
^ ^ Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

83
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
Serotonin -> melatonin

84
Q

Derivative of Histidine

85
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

86
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

87
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1GABA from Glutamate + B6

2 glutathione

88
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

89
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

90
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

91
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
92
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
93
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
^ ^ Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

94
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
Serotonin -> melatonin

95
Q

Derivative of Histidine

96
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

97
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

98
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1GABA from Glutamate + B6

2 glutathione

99
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

100
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

101
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

102
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
103
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
104
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
^ ^ Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

105
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
Serotonin -> melatonin

106
Q

Derivative of Histidine

107
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

108
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

109
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1GABA from Glutamate + B6

2 glutathione

110
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

111
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

112
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

113
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
114
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
115
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
^ ^ Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

116
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
Serotonin -> melatonin

117
Q

Derivative of Histidine

118
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

119
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

120
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1GABA from Glutamate + B6

2 glutathione

121
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

122
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

123
Q

Inhibits by glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase

124
Q

Disulfiram reaction secondary to accumulation of __________ via
reaction that is zero order kinetics

A

Acetaldehyde

 Alcohol dehydrogenase         Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ETOH-------------------> acetaldehyde -------------> acetate
    NAD to NADH                          NAD to NADH
125
Q

Functions of PTH 4

A
  • Inc bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
  • Inc kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
  • Dec reabsorption of phosphate in proximal convoluted tubule
  • Inc 1 25 OH2 D3 calcitriol production by stimulating kidney 1 alpha hydroxylase
126
Q

Derivatives of phenylalanine

A

Thyroxine Melanin
BH4 ^ BH4 ^ B6 Vit C SAM
Phenylalanine -> tyrosine -> dopa ->dopamine-> NE ->Epi

127
Q

Tryptophan derivatives

A

+ b6: Niacin -> NAD/NADP
Tryptophan
+ bh4: Serotonin -> melatonin

128
Q

Derivative of Histidine

A

Histidine + b6 = Histamine

129
Q

Derivatives of Glycine

A

Glycine + b6 = porphyrin -> heme

130
Q

Derivatives of Arginine

A

Creatinine
Urea
Nitric oxide

131
Q

Derivatives of glutamate

A

1 Glutamate + B6 = GABA

2 glutathione

132
Q

Characteristics of gluckokinase

A

1 not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate unlike hexokinase
2 higher michaelis menten constant aka low affinity for glucose but with higher maximum reaction rate hence larger capacity than hexokinase once activated

133
Q

Essential amino acids

PVT TIM haLL always argues never tyres

A for arginine, T is not for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

histidine - becomes essential in times of Stress
arginine
Leucine
Lysine

134
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Lolinoleic acid

Linolenic acid

135
Q

Agent that prevents oxygen from serving as the final electron acceptor in ETC

A

Cyanide

Binds cytochrome c aka complex IV therefore stops any further oxidative phosphorylation

136
Q

ETC

Binds the stalk of ATP synthase and blocks re entry of protons into the mitochondrial matrix

Or

Directly inhibits the mitochondrial ATP synthase causing an increase proton gradient, stoping ATP synthesis.

A

Oligomycin

Stops further electron transport since no gradient, activity results in heat production instead of ATP.

Inhibits complex V

137
Q

Directly inhibits electron transport in ETC

A

Complex 1 : Rotenone
Complex 3 : actimycin A
Complex 4 : cyanide, CO

138
Q

Complex II of TCA in inner mitochondria is

A

Succinate dehydrogenase of Krebb’s cycle

139
Q

Universal electron transporters

A

Nicotinamide from niacin
1 NAD+ : catabolic processes
2 NADPH : anabolic process - steroid and FA synthesis
- anabolic processes/respi burst/P 459/glutathione reductase

Flavin nucleotides fr B2

140
Q

Diphosphatidylglycerol eponym

It is found in the inner mitochondrial membrane and bacterial membrane.

A

Cardiolipin

  • only human glycerol phospholipid that is antigenic.
  • it is recognized by antibodies raised against treponema pallium
  • false positive RPR
141
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Lolinoleic acid

Linolenic acid

142
Q

Agent that prevents oxygen from serving as the final electron acceptor in ETC

A

Cyanide

Binds cytochrome c aka complex IV therefore stops any further oxidative phosphorylation

143
Q

ETC

Binds the stalk of ATP synthase and blocks re entry of protons into the mitochondrial matrix

Or

Directly inhibits the mitochondrial ATP synthase causing an increase proton gradient, stoping ATP synthesis.

A

Oligomycin

Stops further electron transport since no gradient, activity results in heat production instead of ATP.

Inhibits complex V

144
Q

Directly inhibits electron transport in ETC

A

Complex 1 : Rotenone
Complex 3 : actimycin A
Complex 4 : cyanide, CO

145
Q

Complex II of TCA in inner mitochondria is

A

Succinate dehydrogenase of Krebb’s cycle

146
Q

Universal electron transporters

A

Nicotinamide from niacin
1 NAD+ : catabolic processes
2 NADPH : anabolic process - steroid and FA synthesis
- anabolic processes/respi burst/P 459/glutathione reductase

Flavin nucleotides fr B2

147
Q

Diphosphatidylglycerol eponym

It is found in the inner mitochondrial membrane and bacterial membrane.

A

Cardiolipin

  • only human glycerol phospholipid that is antigenic.
  • it is recognized by antibodies raised against treponema pallium
  • false positive RPR
148
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Lolinoleic acid

Linolenic acid

149
Q

Agent that prevents oxygen from serving as the final electron acceptor in ETC

A

Cyanide

Binds cytochrome c aka complex IV therefore stops any further oxidative phosphorylation

150
Q

ETC

Binds the stalk of ATP synthase and blocks re entry of protons into the mitochondrial matrix

Or

Directly inhibits the mitochondrial ATP synthase causing an increase proton gradient, stoping ATP synthesis.

A

Oligomycin

Stops further electron transport since no gradient, activity results in heat production instead of ATP.

Inhibits complex V

151
Q

Directly inhibits electron transport in ETC

A

Complex 1 : Rotenone
Complex 3 : actimycin A
Complex 4 : cyanide, CO

152
Q

Complex II of TCA in inner mitochondria is

A

Succinate dehydrogenase of Krebb’s cycle

153
Q

Universal electron transporters

A

Nicotinamide from niacin
1 NAD+ : catabolic processes
2 NADPH : anabolic process - steroid and FA synthesis
- anabolic processes/respi burst/P 459/glutathione reductase

Flavin nucleotides fr B2

154
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Lolinoleic acid

Linolenic acid

155
Q

Agent that prevents oxygen from serving as the final electron acceptor in ETC

A

Cyanide

Binds cytochrome c aka complex IV therefore stops any further oxidative phosphorylation

156
Q

ETC

Binds the stalk of ATP synthase and blocks re entry of protons into the mitochondrial matrix

Or

Directly inhibits the mitochondrial ATP synthase causing an increase proton gradient, stoping ATP synthesis.

A

Oligomycin

Stops further electron transport since no gradient, activity results in heat production instead of ATP.

Inhibits complex V

157
Q

Directly inhibits electron transport in ETC

A

Complex 1 : Rotenone
Complex 3 : actimycin A
Complex 4 : cyanide, CO

158
Q

Complex II of TCA in inner mitochondria is

A

Succinate dehydrogenase of Krebb’s cycle

159
Q

Universal electron transporters

A

Nicotinamide from niacin
1 NAD+ : catabolic processes
2 NADPH : anabolic process - steroid and FA synthesis
- anabolic processes/respi burst/P 459/glutathione reductase

Flavin nucleotides fr B2

160
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Lolinoleic acid

Linolenic acid

161
Q

Agent that prevents oxygen from serving as the final electron acceptor in ETC

A

Cyanide

Binds cytochrome c aka complex IV therefore stops any further oxidative phosphorylation

162
Q

ETC

Binds the stalk of ATP synthase and blocks re entry of protons into the mitochondrial matrix

Or

Directly inhibits the mitochondrial ATP synthase causing an increase proton gradient, stoping ATP synthesis.

A

Oligomycin

Stops further electron transport since no gradient, activity results in heat production instead of ATP.

Inhibits complex V

163
Q

Directly inhibits electron transport in ETC

A

Complex 1 : Rotenone
Complex 3 : actimycin A
Complex 4 : cyanide, CO

164
Q

Complex II of TCA in inner mitochondria is

A

Succinate dehydrogenase of Krebb’s cycle

165
Q

Universal electron transporters

A

Nicotinamide from niacin
1 NAD+ : catabolic processes
2 NADPH : anabolic process - steroid and FA synthesis
- anabolic processes/respi burst/P 459/glutathione reductase

Flavin nucleotides fr B2

166
Q

Thalassemia

Low or high hemoglobin ?
Low or high MCV

A

Low hemoglobin, Low MCV

Note Spherocytosis has high MCHC due to spheroid shape

167
Q

Enzyme deficient in Porphyria

A 
Porphobilinogen deaminase 
Aka
Uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase 
Aka 
Porphobilinogen synthase

With Accumulation of : 1 aminolevunilate 2 PBG

Note:
X linked siderobalstic anemia: deficient ALA synthase
Inhibits by lead: ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase

168
Q

Other name for MEN II syndrome

A

MEN 2A : Sipple’s syndrome

  • ret proto-oncogene
  • MEN syndromes are AD inheritance pattern

MEN 1/ Wermer’s: 3 Ps pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas
MEN 2A/Sipple’s: 2 Ps parathyroid and pheochromocytoma,
1 M medullary thyroid Ca
MEN 2B : 1 P pheochromocytoma
2 M medullary thyroid Ca, Marfanoid habitués

169
Q

Chromosome for retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma

A

Chromosome 13

Rb gene : 13

170
Q

Hereditary Conjugated/Direct Hyperbilirubinemia

A

Conjugated
Dubin-Johnson/Discolored liver
Rotor’s Syndrome

171
Q

Arrests in human ova development at birth, after puberty

A

after birth: Meiosis I at PROPHASE I

after puberty: Meiosis II at METAPHASE II

172
Q

Second messengers of G protein coupled receptors

kiss/kick/sick/sex: qiss,qiq,siq,sqs

A

q A1
i A2
s B1
s B2

q M1
i M2
q M3

s D1
i D2
q H1

s H2
q V1
s V2

173
Q

N myc ?

C myc ?

L myc ?

A

N myc ? Neuroblastoma

C myc ? Burkitt’s lymphoma

L myc ? Lung tumor

174
Q 
Define/Give examples
Transcription 
Postranscription modification 
Translation
Postranslational modification
A

TransCription: DNA to RNA
Postranscriptional modification: 5’capping, 3’polyadenyation,
alternative RNA splicing
TransLation: mRNA to protein
Postranslational modification: O glycosylation, N glycosylation,
Sulfation

175
Q

Drug that inhibits function of micro tubules, kinesins, kinetochore, or centromeres act at what phase of mitosis

A

Pro metaphase

-PPMAT

176
Q

Mutation of V2 receptors cause

A

Diabetes Insipidus

177
Q

Thalassemia

Low or high hemoglobin ?
Low or high MCV

A

Low hemoglobin, Low MCV

Note Spherocytosis has high MCHC due to spheroid shape

178
Q

Enzyme deficient in Porphyria

A 
Porphobilinogen deaminase 
Aka
Uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase 
Aka 
Porphobilinogen synthase

With Accumulation of : 1 aminolevunilate 2 PBG

Note:
X linked siderobalstic anemia: deficient ALA synthase
Inhibits by lead: ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase

179
Q

Other name for MEN II syndrome

A

MEN 2A : Sipple’s syndrome

  • ret proto-oncogene
  • MEN syndromes are AD inheritance pattern

MEN 1/ Wermer’s: 3 Ps pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas
MEN 2A/Sipple’s: 2 Ps parathyroid and pheochromocytoma,
1 M medullary thyroid Ca
MEN 2B : 1 P pheochromocytoma
2 M medullary thyroid Ca, Marfanoid habitués

180
Q

Chromosome for retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma

A

Chromosome 13

Rb gene : 13

181
Q

Hereditary Conjugated/Direct Hyperbilirubinemia

A

Conjugated
Dubin-Johnson/Discolored liver
Rotor’s Syndrome

182
Q

Arrests in human ova development at birth, after puberty

A

after birth: Meiosis I at PROPHASE I

after puberty: Meiosis II at METAPHASE II

183
Q

Second messengers of G protein coupled receptors

kiss/kick/sick/sex: qiss,qiq,siq,sqs

A

q A1
i A2
s B1
s B2

q M1
i M2
q M3

s D1
i D2
q H1

s H2
q V1
s V2

184
Q

N myc ?

C myc ?

L myc ?

A

N myc ? Neuroblastoma

C myc ? Burkitt’s lymphoma

L myc ? Lung tumor

185
Q 
Define/Give examples
Transcription 
Postranscription modification 
Translation
Postranslational modification
A

TransCription: DNA to RNA
Postranscriptional modification: 5’capping, 3’polyadenyation,
alternative RNA splicing
TransLation: mRNA to protein
Postranslational modification: O glycosylation, N glycosylation,
Sulfation

186
Q

Drug that inhibits function of micro tubules, kinesins, kinetochore, or centromeres act at what phase of mitosis

A

Pro metaphase

-PPMAT

187
Q

Mutation of V2 receptors cause

A

Diabetes Insipidus

My board exam flashcards (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions