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BD Study Guide > BD Practice Test > Flashcards

BD Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is a daily quality control test to check scanner performance

A

Phantom scanning

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2
Q

What is the region of interest for vertebral fractural assessments

A

T4 through L5

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3
Q

How many sets of sinuses are in the cranium

A

4

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4
Q

What are the 2 types of bone tissue generally found in long bones

A

Cortical and tribicular

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5
Q

The oldest bone cells of the skeleton live how long

A

10 years

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6
Q

An area of bone that contacts another bone is and

A

articular surface

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7
Q

Why is the standard anatomical position used

A

To Simplify descriptions of the location and orientation of bones

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8
Q

When evaluating bone density, what’s statistical value is calculated by dividing the standard deviation by the mean

A

CV

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9
Q

True or false bone mass decreases when formation is faster than reabsorption

A

False bone mass increases

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10
Q

Osteosarcoma’s primarily effect

A

Adolescents and young adults

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11
Q

Osteoarthritis is characterized by

A

Osteophyte formation

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12
Q

Spina bifuda occulta
A can cause paralysis
B look similar to a laminectomy on DXA scans
C is a relatively common malignant process or
D affects 30 to 40% of the general population

A

B

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13
Q

Idiopathic Scoliosis
A requires treatment
B is defined by less than 10ﾟ of curvature
C affects primarily adults
D is sometimes treated with bracing or surgery

A

D

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14
Q

What are the Biochemical markers that indicate osteoblast activity

A

Bone specific alkaline phosphates,N-terminal&C-terminal

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15
Q

According to the national osteoporosis foundation, Women over the age of 50 should take how many IU a vitamin D daily

A

800 to a 1000

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16
Q

Man made versions of the calcitonin hormone are based on the hormone naturally produced in

A

Salmon

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17
Q

Blank activate when RANK is combined with blank

A

Osteoclasts, RANKL

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18
Q

How should Alendronate be taken

A

In the morning on an empty stomach

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19
Q

In addition to iodine- 125 what radioactive isotope was used as the radiation source for dual Phantom absorpitiometry

A

Gadolinium -153

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20
Q

Bone edge detection algorithms are
A required by law
B proprietary to each manufacturer C used to diagnose vertebral fractures
D unreliable

A

B

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21
Q

What is the minimum distance a BD technologist should sit from the edge of the scanner table

A

3 ft

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22
Q

Operator precision is assessed using
A an in vivo test
B supervised scans
C QC analysis
D serial scans

A

A

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23
Q

The patient questionnaire can be filled out after the scanning procedure

A

False

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24
Q

What is the International system of units SI expression for the roentgen

A

Coulomb per kilogram

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25
Q

What is the acronym RAD stand for

A

Radiation absorbed dose

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26
Q

What type of lead shielding is required for DXA exam

A

No shielding

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27
Q

What is the largest source of artificial radiation

A

Medical imaging equipment

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28
Q

Do somatic effects occur within the exposed individual or future descendants

A

The exposed individual

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29
Q

What is a common outcome of somatic effects

A

Shorten lifespan and cancerous mutations

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30
Q

Which type of cell is more radiosensitive?
A red blood cell
B liver
C nerve
D gonadal germ

A

d

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31
Q

Which type of radiation is not considered ionizing radiation?
A infrared light
B ultraviolet light
C X rays
D gamma rays

A

A

32
Q

Female athlete triad syndrome commonly causes _____ in female athletes.
A Chronic kidney disease
B Amenorrhea
C endocrine disorders
D diabetes

A

B

33
Q

Klinefelter syndrome affects 1 in every

A

500 to 1000 men

34
Q

Which disorder causes children’s bones to become soft and weak

A

Rickets

35
Q

FRAX should only be used for individuals between ages

A

40 to 90 years

36
Q

Regarding glucocorticoid medication, what is the dose that is considered a risk factor by FRAX?

A

5 mg per day for 3 months

37
Q

All the following are FRAX risk factors except for:
A spinal stenosis
B previous fracture
D rheumatoid arthritis

A

A

38
Q

Daily consumption of _____ of alcohol is considered a risk factor by FRAX

A

3

39
Q

FRAX considers a previous fracture a risk factor if it was broken after what age

A

40

40
Q

All of the following are secondary osteoporosis disease processes which may cause bone loss or interfere with individuals reaching their peak bone mass except for:
A chronic malnutrition
B hyperparathyroidism
C hypergonadism
D type 2 diabetes

A

B

41
Q

What is a fragility fracture

A

Fracture resulting from a fall from a standing height in the absence of other trauma

42
Q

What is the minimum 10 year probability of a major osteoporatic fracture that suggests a diagnosis of osteoporosis

A

20%

43
Q

FRAX should only be calculated on those individuals who are:
A not on pharmacological therapy
B on pharmacological therapy
C under the age of 40
D over the age of 90

A

A

44
Q

Two examples of bisphosphonate based medications are
A Evista and Prolia
B Forteo and Premarin
C Boniva and Actonel
D Fosamax and Prolia

A

C

45
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of FRAX as described by the International osteoporosis foundation
A does not accommodate all known risk factors
B is inaccurate without BMD
C is no more accurate than clinical judgment
D does not take into account patient history

A

A

46
Q

Which of the following is a criteria for an osteoporotic fracture diagnosis
A involvement without trauma
B correlation with the tumor
C metabolic disease of the spine D centrally concaved endplate depressions

A

D

47
Q

What are the most common osteoporosis related fractures

A

Vertebral compression

48
Q

ISCD recommendations state VFA imaging is indicated if the T score is _______ and one other qualification is met

A

Less than negative one

49
Q

Using the Genant classification method a severe vertebral fracture has a height reduction of ______

A

40% or higher

50
Q

Which terminology is an acceptable description of a vertebral fracture in a VFA report?
A wedge fracture
B burst fracture
C mild vertebral fracture
D unstable fracture

A

C

51
Q

Which of the following is a criteria for an osteoporatic fracture diagnosis?
A involvement with trauma
B correlation with a tumor
C metabolic disease of the spine D centrally concaved inplate depression

A

D

52
Q

When is VFA imaging typically performed

A

During bone mineral density testing

53
Q

True or false if a vertebrae is difficult to assess, contrast and inversion tools may be used to locate vertebra position

A

True

54
Q

Why might a vertebrae be excluded from the baseline analysis?
A aggressive drug therapy
B excessive joint hypertrophy
C too many osteocytes
D new osteoporatic fracture in the ROI

A

B

55
Q

The total BMD is used to

A

Calculate the T score

56
Q

Which of the following is not visualized on the ROI of hip scan?
A greater trochanter
B iliac crest
C shaft of the proximal famer
D femoral head

A

B

57
Q

The femoral neck is
A predominantly trabecular
B rarely affected by early bone loss
C non weight bearing
D mostly cortical

A

D

58
Q

True False the joint between the radius and the carpal bones must be visible on a forearm scan for accurate analysis

A

True

59
Q

What is the preferred ROI when scanning the forearm

A

33%

60
Q

Proper flexion of the patient’s elbow during a DXA scan at the forearm is _______ degrees

A

90-105

61
Q

What type of body composition analysis uses a 2 compartment method
A BMI calculation
B DXA scan
C bio-electrical impedance
D near infrared interactance

A

C

62
Q

What percentage of the American population is overweight

A

62%

63
Q

According to the 2015 ISCD official position statements, the minimum acceptable precision testing results for total fat mass should be within

A

3%

64
Q

Individuals with a high proportion of fat in the gynoid region of the hips and thighs are considered

A

Pear shape

65
Q

What type of tissue is not included in lean body mass?
A muscle
B fat
C organs
D bone

A

B

66
Q

What are the 2 types of calibration methods used by DXA scanners

A

Internal and external

67
Q

A ______ scanning technique estimates bone mineral density based on a 3 dimensional scan

A

Volumetric

68
Q

_____ measurements provide a ratio to evaluate bone health that is independent of patient body habitus

A

BMD

69
Q

_______ is the measure of variability that shows how spread out data is around the main

A

Percent coefficient of variation

70
Q

The 3rd national health and nutrition examination survey developed a standardized reference database for T scores of the
A lumbar spine
B hip
C thoracic spine
D forearm

A

B

71
Q

The most critical performance measure of follow up scans and tracking of a patient’s bone mineral density over time is

A

Precision

72
Q

______ is a measure of bone micro texture and a marker for the risk of osteoporosis
A fracture risk assessment
B trabecular bone score
C T score
D Z score

A

B

73
Q

In a graphic display of the spine calibration phantom scan, the upper and lower controls represent plus or minus _______ percent of the mean

A

1.5

74
Q

Which deformity typically manifest in adolescence and presents with remarkable kyphosis

A

Scheuermanns disease

75
Q

Which of the following is not a reason for additional spine imaging? A obvious compression fracture
B 2 or more mild grade one deformities
C vertebral deformities in a patient with a history of relevant
D unidentifiable vertebrae between T7 and L4

A

A

BD Study Guide (15 decks)

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