Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

S.N Microbiology > Bacteriology - General and Diagnostics > Flashcards

Bacteriology - General and Diagnostics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Sterilisation - Chemical

A

Gas - Ethylene dioxide
Plasma - H2O2
Liquid - Glutaraldehyde, Iodine, Potassium-Iodide, Formaldehyde, Peracetic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Cell wall

A

Prokaryotes: Usually present chemically complex (Peptidoglycan)
Eukaryotes: When present chemically simple (Plants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Exotoxins - Inhibition of Neurotransmitter release, 2 Examples

A

1) Tetanospasmin - SNARE Proteins disruption on Renshaw and α Motor Synapse (GABA): Muscle Rigidity
2) Botulinum Toxin - SNARE Proteins disruption on NMJ (ACh) : Muscle Flaccid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bacterium Strain

A

population of bacteria originated from one colony maintained for a long time during laboratory condition with constant genetic properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Principles of Antibacterial Chemotherapy -

Dysbacteriosis, and Prevention.

A

Dysbacteriosis - microbial imbalance or maladaptation on or inside the body, such as an impaired microbiota. For Prevention - Use as Narrow spectrum Antibiotics as Possible!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 major steps of entry to host organism?

A

Adhesion, Penetration and Invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immunosuppression is usually caused by ____ or _____ but can happen in the case of ________ or leprosy as well.

A

Immunosuppression is usually caused by Viruses or Protozoa but can happen in the case of Tuberculosis or leprosy as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chemical and Biological Methods of Control for Sterilization

A

Chemical - Indicative Dyes

Biological - Bacillus Stearothermophilus Spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Principles of Antibacterial Chemotherapy -

Duration of Treatment

A

Minimum - 3 days, In case of No recovery:
Acute Infection - 5 days<
Severe Infection - 8-14 Days
Sepsis/Endocarditis - 3-6 Wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition of Pathogen

A

Microorganism that is able to cause disease in a plant, animal or insect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Methods of Determination of Bacteria

A

Culturing
Direct - Macroscopic Smears, Antigen Detection, Enzyme or Nucleic acid oriented
Indirect - Detection of Pathogen by specific Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neisser Staining: Microscopic Image

A

Rods with Club ends (Purple) and Yellow Body

חצופים בקלאב הוטל ה”סוף הסגול “ העיקר גוף צהוב

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

History of Microbiology - Sir Alexander Fleming

1928

A

Discoverer of Lysozyme and Antibiotic Substance Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Facultative/ non-obligatory structures that some bacteria have:

A

Capsule
Flagela
Pilli
Spore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Heterotrophic Bacteria

A

Use organic compounds for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

logic of use of Ampicillin and Gentamicin together:

A

Ampicillin for cell wall

Gentamicin for ribosomal inhibition (aminoglycoside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes:

Chromosome

A

Prokaryotes: usually circular chromosome, Histones-like proteins, Plasmids, No introns in mRNA
Eukaryotes: Multiple linear chromosomes with Histones and all genes contain Introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_______ Antibody have low ______ with the pathogen and do not produce a strong enough immune response, they might even block _____ antibodies from binding the pathogen.

A

Ineffective Antibody have low Avidity with the pathogen and do not produce a strong enough immune response, they might even block effective antibodies from binding the pathogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Exotoxins - Lysis of Cell Membrane, 2 Examples

A

1) C. Perfringens Alpha Toxin - PLC causing Myonecrosis

2) S. Pyogenes Streptolysin - RBCs Beta Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Resistance Abbreviations:

PRP

A

Resistance Abbreviations:

PRP = Penicillin Resistant Pneumococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Classification of Exotoxins based on toxicity mechanism.

Extracellularly-acting toxins - 2 Examples

A
  • Membrane damage: pore formation

- Superantigens: TSST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is it most probable ro find LTA?

A

Gram Positive Bacteria cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptomless Infections - Possible Causes

Try to remember at least 3

A

1) Fast Elimination or Lifelong Immunity
2) Latent Infection - Activation of Pathogen is delayed
3) Persistent Infection - Viral Form of Latency: Episomal (Herpes) or Integrated (Retrovirus)
4) Carrier State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 4 major shapes of bacteria?

A

Cocci - spherical
Bacilli - rods
Spiral
Pleomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the essential difference between Obligate and Facultative pathogen Microbes? regarding treatment and transmission

A

Obligate Pathogen - Never part of the Normal body flora. must be eradicated.
Facultative - usually invade unnatural areas for it within opportunities (part of the normal flora).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Order of Taxonomy:

Kingdom → _______ → Class → ______ → Family → Genus → ______

A

Order of Taxonomy:

Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Immunochromatography Samples possible

A

Serum, Whole Blood, Plasma, CSF, Stool, Spit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Size range of Bacteria

Specific sizes of Cocci and Bacilli

A

300 nanometer to 20 micrometer
Cocci are around 1 micron size
Bacilli could be up to 10 microns
(Spirochetes can be longer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Heat Disinfection:

Tyndallization

A

consists of heating to 85oC for 30 minutes

with subsequent incubation at 37oC in repeated cycles several times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the advantage in using Exotoxins in vaccines in contrast to Endotoxins?

A

Exotoxins can be inactivated to become Toxoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Resistance of microbes: largest and smallest

A

Prions, Bacterial Spores and Mycobacteria are the most resistant.
Gram positive bacteria and viruses are the least

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Antibiotic therapy: 2 kinds

A

1) Empirical - based on available data, no time.

2) Direct/Rational - lab specific antibiotic, investigation of causative agent before prescription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes: VFs that
_______ phagocyte chemotaxis even in ____ ___ ____ ____ ___________ .

A

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes: VFs that
Inhibit phagocyte chemotaxis even in very low concentration .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Administration of Neisseria Meningitidis polysaccharide capsule vaccine it is conjugated to the diphtheria toxoid to elevate the effectiveness of the vaccine. This is due to the fact that the toxoid contains key _____ ____ Components .

A

Administration of Neisseria Meningitidis polysaccharide capsule vaccine it is conjugated to the diphtheria toxoid to elevate the effectiveness of the vaccine. This is due to the fact that the toxoid contains key Amino Acids Components .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

History of Microbiology - Louis Pasteur

1870

A

Discovered the principles of vaccination + Vaccinations for Rabies, Anthrax and Chicken Cholera
Discovered Microbial fermentation and Pasteurization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Determination of MIC - Disc diffusion test

A

1)Preparation of lawn culture (Flooded Equal Bacterial Growth Solid Media)
2)Placing paper discs covered with antimicrobial drug
3)37°C overnight
4)Measuring the diameter of the zone of inhibition
around the discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bacteria that are not lysed and killed in serum by MAC are called ____ ____ .

A

Bacteria that are not lysed and killed in serum by MAC are called Serum Resistant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

________ is a polypeptide antibiotic that causes alteration in ion permeability of gram negative bacteria.

A

Polymyxin is a polypeptide antibiotic that causes alteration in ion permeability of gram negative bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Capsule Stain: Preparation process and Purpose
לקחתי קפסולה אחי בהודו משהו שלילי אחי משהו דארק סלייד אחי. תשמע התחממתי אז נוסע לפושקין דקה לשים קצת מים ושמן, השקעה אחי.

A
  • Drop of India Ink spread with other slide
  • Heat fix
  • Fuchsine for 1 minute
  • Water rinse and Oil Immersion for observation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Plasma Sterilization (forms Hydrogen Peroxide radicals): Protocol:___C in ___ for ___ .

A

Plasma Sterilization (Hydrogen Peroxide radicals): Protocol:30-60C in Vacuum for Hour .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PFGE - Pulse Field Gel Electrophoresis

A

Epidemiological - Bacterial DNA detected and divided by Size (specific cleavage sites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which Bacteria type are resistant to Lysozymes?

A

Gram Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Materials for Gram staining

A

Crystal Violet with sodium oxalate
Potassium-Iodide (Lugol Solution)
Ethanol
Safranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes:

_______ the antigenic surface of the bacterial cell by __________ with a ______ like component .

A

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes:

Hide the antigenic surface of the bacterial cell by covering with a self like component .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Penicillin - examples for bacteria effective against

A

T. Paliidum, S. Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Generation time

A

The time between two Bacterial Binary Fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chemotherapeutic Index - DTM/DCM

Ehrlich’s

A

“Dosis Tolerate Maxima/Dosis Curative Minima”

Maximal Host Tolerable Dose Divided by Minimal Pathogen Killing Dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hanging Drops: Preparation process and Purpose

A
  • drop of bacterial suspension in the middle of slide
  • Vaseline on the Rim of hollow slide cavity (border)
  • Cover and Invert then fast reverse
  • low power magnification shows Motility of bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Alcohols used for Disinfection:

_____ (80%), ____ (60%), _____ (70%)

A

Alcohols used for Disinfection:

Ethanol (80%), Propanol (60%), Isopropanol (70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Monotrichous, Polytrichous, Lofotrichous, Amfitrichous, Lofoamfitrichous are all examples for? What Antigen do they represent?

A

Types of Flagella

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Generations of Cephalosporins - gradual changes

A

From 1st to 5th - less GRAM+ more GRAM -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Precipitation

A

Ag-Ab bound together barely visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Sterilisation - Steam (Moist Heat / Autoclaving) :

A

+1 atm 121c 30 min
or
+2 atm 134c 10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When there is a patient with a Deep wound contaminated with soil he will receive Passive Immunization with IgG through injection to prevent the risk of___.

A

When there is a patient a deep wound contaminated with soil he will receive Passive Immunization with IgG through injection to prevent the risk of Tetanus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Portal of Entry:

The ___ Normally serves as a barrier for Infections, However any ___, ___ or Invasive Procedures invite ___ Entrance.

A

Portal of Entry:
The Skin Normally serves as a barrier for Infections, However any Wounds, Catheters or Invasive Procedures invite Pathogen Entrance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Examples for naming the grouping kinds of the bacteria?

A

Diplococci - pairs of Cocci
Staphylococci - grape like clusters of cocci
Streptococci - chains or cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Obligate Aerobe Bacteria have _____ , _____ and _____ ______ that allow them to use Oxygen as the final electron acceptor in the ETC without suffering from ROS.

A

Obligate Aerobe Bacteria have Catalase , Peroxidase and Superoxide Dismutase that allow them to use Oxygen as the final electron acceptor in the ETC without suffering from ROS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Conjugated vaccine:

  • BCG vaccine
  • DPT vaccine
  • Haemophilus influenzae vaccine
  • Epidemic typhus vaccine
  • S. pneumoniae 23 valent vaccine
A

Haemophilus influenzae vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

History of Microbiology - Antoine van leeuwenhoek

1676

A

“Father of Microbiology”

Improved the microscope for cell level inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Key components of Gram (-) bacteria cell wall

A

LPS - Lipopolysaccharide (Lipid A and O antigen)
Periplasmic space with beta Lactamase
(Outer membrane present and much less peptidoglycan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are important intracellular enzymatic reactions products in bacteria? Importance?

A

Indole, Ammonium, H2S

Detection by indicators and diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Antigenic ______ on ______ allows for obsoletion of the immune response. No Antibody-Antigen Interaction occurs after first encounter.

A

Antigenic variation on fimbriae allows for obsoletion of the immune response. No Antibody-Antigen Interaction occurs after first encounter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bacteria that can enter ___ ___ or Penetrate ____ ___ and spread from Initial site of entry are Invasive.

A

Bacteria that can enter Host cells or Penetrate Mucosal Mem. and spread from Initial site of entry are Invasive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How can we study of the resistance of microbes to antimicrobial agents?

A

Determination of MIC: E –test, Microdilution test, Agar plate dilution test….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Infection Transmission routes - Horizontal Spread

Iatrogenic Spread

A

Infection transmission during Medical examination/Procedure (e.g. Klebsiella Pneumoniae , S. Epidermidis..)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Superantigens cause activation of ___% of _ ___ which causes elevation in __, __ and __ which can ultimately cause ___ ___.

A

Superantigens cause activation of 2-20% of T cells which causes elevation in TNFα, IFNγ and IL 2 which can ultimately cause Septic Shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

4 Entry portal for Pathogens:

A

1) Respiratory Tract
2) Gastrointestinal Tract
3) Urogenital Tract
4) Skin - Cut/Punctured or Injured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Exotoxins - Inhibition of Phagocytosis, Example

A

Pertussis Toxin - cAMP↑ in Neutrophills causing Impaired recruitment and Lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Obligate intracellular parasites - Culturing:

Treponema pallidum spp. Pallidum

A

Can grow in rabbit testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pasteur Effect

A

Upon giving oxygen to Facultative Anaerobes Bacteria the fermentation rate decreases and Oxidative Phosphorylation Increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Obligatory Vaccines (7 in Total) : ____, ____, IPV, ____, _____, MMR, HepB.

A

Obligatory Vaccines (7 in Total) : BCG, DPTa, IPV, HiB, PCV13, MMR, HepB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Survival inside phagocytes:

_____ from Phagosome is crucial for some intracellular pathogens.

A

Mechanism of evasion - Survival inside phagocytes:

Escaping from Phagosome is crucial for some intracellular pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

______ _____ happens when a pathogen coats itself with host ______ or ________ to hide their own antigen surfaces.

A

Antigenic Disguise happens when a pathogen coats itself with host proteins or polysaccharides to hide their own antigen surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

________ binds ______ in membranes and causes Lysosomal granules explosion in cell .

A

Streptolysin O binds cholesterol in membranes and causes Lysosomal granules explosion in cell .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the advantages of biofilm type of culturing?

A

Flexibility
Nutrient trap
O2 take up
Protection from phagocytosis or antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

______ is a ______ vaccine for Tuberculosis.

A

BCG is an attenuated vaccine for Tuberculosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Aminopenicillines

Spectrum and examples

A

Extended Spectrum - GRAM Positive and GRAM Negative

Ampicillin and Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Horizontal Gene Transfer: Lytic and Lysogenic phases are leading to _________ of genetic Material.

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer: Lytic and Lysogenic phases are leading to Transduction of genetic Material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How long does spore germination takes?

A

90 minutes~

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes:

Sexual Recombination

A

Prokaryotes: None, transfer of DNA only
Eukaryotes: Meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How do Cationic Detergents work?

A

interfere with cell membrane permeability, causing leakage of nitrogen and phosphorus containing compounds from the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Ethylene oxide gas - Action and Use

A

Alkylating agent. Disinfectant used to sterilize heat-sensitive objects such as rubber and plastics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:
BCG
(Extra knowledge)

A

BCG - TB

0-6 weeks (in Hospital usually )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Mechanisms of Bacteria Evading Complement:

Components of Capsules - 2 Examples

A

Polysaccharide Capsules

Sialic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the 3 important constituents of pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Serum concentration
  • Half time
  • side effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Infection Transmission routes - Horizontal Spread

Vehicles for Transmission, 3 Examples

A

1) Air-borne: Coughing, Sneezing, Talking (Droplets)
2) Contaminated Water or Food
3) Blood Sucking Insects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Obligate intracellular parasites - Culturing:

Rickettsiae

A

In embryonated egg or tissue culture, the risk of laboratory acquired infection is extremely high, so culture rarely done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Superantigens bind to ___ _____ ___ molecules at a location in the outside the groove, upon antigen presentation they then bind to a part of the ______ __ ____ that is outside the normal antigen-binding site this trigger T-cell activation on massive scales.

A

Superantigens bind to MHC Class II molecules at a location in the outside the groove, upon antigen presentation they then bind to a part of the β-chain of TCR that is outside the normal antigen-binding site this trigger T-cell activation on massive scales.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

LPS - Hemostatic Effect

A

Induction of Tissue Factors in Monocytes - Coagulation↑ and DIC Risk↑

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

On which bacterial strains we will be able to find Exotoxins production?

A

Multiple strains on Gram Positive and Gram Negative Spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q 
Subunit Vaccines (of Viruses):
3 Examples
A

Subunit Vaccines (of Viruses):

1) HepB Surface Proteins
2) HPV Capsid Proteins
3) Influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Bacitracin, Cycloserine and Fosfomycin are all -

A

Cell Synthesis inhibitor Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

3 Components of LPS

A

1) Polysaccharide chain
2) Lipid A
3) O antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

_______ is a lipopeptide antibiotic that alters the permeability of gram positive bacteria and leads to leakage of cytosolic contents.

A

Daptomycin is a lipopeptide antibiotic that alters the permeability of gram positive bacteria and leads to leakage of cytosolic contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Essential structures for bacteria

A

Cell wall
Cell membrane
Cytoplasm
Nuclear material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the different Temperature Demands of Bacteria? (3 categories to remember)

A

Psychro- / Meso- / Thermo- philic

15-20C / 30-37C / 50-60C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Antibiotics that act against synthesis of Nucleic acids

A

Sulfonamides

Trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Complement Fixation test

Indirect Method - presence of specific Ab is checked

A

Ag-Ab complex causes Complement aggregation preventing lysis of the Sheep RBCs by MAC :
Lysed RBCs - NEGATIVE
No Lysis, RBCs Intact - POSITIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Primary vs. Secondary Infections

A

Primary Infections - develop in healthy individuals

Secondary Infection - Develop in Individuals already infected with another pathogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How long does spore formation takes?

A

6-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Color differences in cultures could be explained by ?

A

Hydrophilic pigment - diffuses to media

Hydrophobic doesn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Cell Size

A

Prokaryotes:0.2 - 2 Microns
Eukaryotes:7-100 Microns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Why should we use only 50-70 % ethanol (not 100) as a detrgent ?

A

100% causes quick denaturation of bacterial wall protein forms a protective shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Homologous recombination

A

The incorporation of the transformed donor DNA into the host bacteria DNA.
Key point of view establishing new antibiotics resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Pilus function

A

Attachment or sexual - for genetic material exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Examples for Industrial Use of Microbiology in Fermentation

A

Yeast - Beer, Wine, Bread

Bacteria - Yogurt, Cheese, Sour Cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are spores?

A

Lack of nutrients trigger its formation - dormant form.

Survivng harsh conditions: including heat aciditiy or lack of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the medical importance of the difference in ribosomal subunits between pro and eukaryotes?

A

Antibiotics could be applied to attack only the infecting bacteria e.g. Tetracycline attacking bacterial 30s subunit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the categories for classifying bacterias in the nature (by order from larger to smaller)?

A

Domain-Kingdom - Phylum - Class - Order - Family - Genus - Species
“Dumb Kids Prefer Cheese Over Fresh Green Spinach “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Exotoxins - Increasing Fluid Excretion, 3 Examples

A

1) ETEC - Heat Labile + Stabile toxins - cAMP↑ + cGMP↑
2) B. Anthracis - Edema Toxin - cAMP↑
3) V. Cholera - Cholera Toxin - cAMP↑

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How does Teichoic acid aids Gram positive bacteria ?

A

Resistance for Lyzozymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Horizontal gene transfer

A

Transmission of genetic material by plasmids in the sex pills conduction between different bacteria. Could help form new immunity to prescribed antibiotics (importance of intake schedule).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Enzymes produced by obligate aerobes:

  1. Oxidase, catalase, peroxidase
  2. Catalase, superoxide-dismutase, urease
  3. Superoxide-dismutase, peroxidase, catalase
  4. Peroxidase, catalase, oxidase
  5. Hydrogenase, oxidase, catalase
A

Superoxide-dismutase, peroxidase, catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Steps in preparation and Fixation of bacterial smears:

General Process - 3 steps

A

1 - Let dry on slide in room temp
2 - Identify slide on the backside with marker
3 - Fix by 3 times with Bunsen burner or methanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are bottle cultures used for ? (Which samples)

Name one advantage of these culture types?

A

Blood and CSF

CO2 detection signaled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 1:

The Microorganism must be ___ __ ____ in all organisms ___ __ ____ but not in____ .

A

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 1:

The Microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease but not in healthy ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 2:

The Microorganism must be ___ from the diseased organism and _______ .

A

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 2:

The Microorganism must be Isolated from the diseased organism and grown in pure culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Antiseptics:

Ethanol (50-70%) - Action and Use

A

Denaturation of Proteins and Solubilization of Lipids.

On Skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Mechanisms of Bacteria Evading Complement:

Pseudomona aeruginosa causes destruction of components of complement system with _______ _____ .

A

Mechanisms of Bacteria Evading Complement:

Pseudomona aeruginosa causes destruction of components of complement system with Extracellular Elastase .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Examples for Use of Animals in the Lab for Microbial Investigation:
-“Harmless probe”- biological activity test

A

LAL (blood cells of Limulus polyphemus) test is based on the gel clot method- when the Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) Shows Presence of bacterial endotoxin lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

MALDI-TOF

A

Matrix assisted laser desorption/Ionization, Time of Flight
Culturing and using the machine to identify by Ionization of the bacterial lysed biochemical components.
Very efficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

____ forms of bacterial antigens are able to “______” antibodies before they arrive to the bacterial cells.

A

Soluble forms of bacterial antigens are able to “neutralize” antibodies before they arrive to the bacterial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Kinds of Hemolysis?

A

Alpha - incomplete green halo on blood or choclate agar.
Beta - complete transparent halo on blood agar
Gamma - no hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What amino acid depletion contributes the most for the initiation of the cascade that allows for spore formation?

A

Alanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Motility test Medium, how does it enable detection?

A

Semisolid Material suspension with straight line stab - Turbidity after incubation means bacteria moved away and growed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Disseminated Infection has extended beyond its origin and involved the ____ or ___ systems to “seed” other areas in the body.

A

Disseminated Infection has extended beyond its origin and involved the Bloodstream or Lymphatic system to “seed” other areas in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

ID50/LD50/TCID50 Measurements Gave a value around 1 -10^2 Germs.
What does it mean?

A

High Virulence since this is a Low Germ count that causes 50% of Hosts/Cultures to have a pathologic conditions (Infection/Death/Damage).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

LD50

A

A Quantitative Determinant of Virulence

Lethal Dose - Number of Germs causing death in 50% of Hosts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the kinds if bacterial growth?

A

Planktonic - liquids
Colony - Solid
Biofilm - Surface (poor nutrition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Ribosomes

A

Prokaryotes: 70S
Eukaryotes: 80S and in mitochondria 70S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Antibiotics to prevent _________ of infections (e.g. UTIs).

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Antibiotics to prevent recurrence of infections (e.g. UTIs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Side effects of Aminoglycosides

A

Neurotoxicity

Oto- and nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Significance of Microbiology

Oxygenic Photosynthesis

A

Occurs in plants, Algae and Cyanobacteria. It is the type of Photosynthesis that results in production of O2 in the atmosphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

3 examples for Bacteria that are not identified with gram stain in labs?

A

Mycobacteria - mycolic acid do not absorbs gram stain.
Myoplasma - lack cell wall
Spirochaetes - too thin wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

In which infections will there be use of Passive artificial Immunity?

A

Diphtheria, Tetanus, Measles, HepB and Rabies

Also for Botulism Toxin (and other Insects and Reptile toxins).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Detection of Spores: Preparation process and Image

ירוקים מקנאה כי אני מלחיץ רק על ספורט ומים נקיים לספרנים החומים

A
  • Malachite Green (Primary)
  • Distilled water (Dicalorozation)
  • Safranin (Counter)
  • Endospore green and Other cells brown (Safranin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes:

Some pathogens _____ ______ an overwhelming inflammatory response which is _____ __ _____ the phagocytic defenses.

A

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes:

Some pathogens avoid provoking an overwhelming inflammatory response which is required to focus the phagocytic defenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Chemoheterotrophs:

A

use chemical and organic compounds, such as glucose (all medically relevant bacteria).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Infection Transmission routes - Horizontal Spread

Direct vs. Indirect

A

Direct - Human/Animal to Human

Indirect - Objects/Environment to Humen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Bacterial resistance to Penicillin arises from which location within the gram negative bacterial wall?

A

Periplasm - Contains the Beta-Lactamases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

3 Risks of Misusing antibiotics

A

Tissue damage
Allergy development
MDR development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Naturally acquired passive immunity from mothers milk IgG provides immunity up to _ months and for ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ .

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity from mothers milk IgG provides immunity up to 6 months and for any immunity the mother has.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

_____ is a _______ and a _______ vaccine that contains _______ ______ and parts of H. Influenzae .

A

Hib is a conjugate and a subunit vaccine that contains diphtheria proteins as well and parts of H. Influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Horizontal Gene Transfer: Sex Pilli interaction allowing for the transfer of Plasmid between two Bacteria - This is ________ .

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer: Sex Pilli interaction allowing for the transfer of Plasmid between two Bacteria - This is Conjugation .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Significance of Microbiology

Decomposition or Biodegradation

A

Results in the breakdown of complex organic materials to forms of carbon that can be used by other animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Sterilization by Dry Heat: Optional Protocols
___C for _ Hours
___C for _ Hours
___C for _ Hours

A

Sterilization by Dry Heat: Optional Protocols
140C for 3 Hours
160C for 2 Hours
180C for 1 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Examples for Industrial Use of Microbiology in Model Research

A

E. Coli and Yeasts have been used to study the cellular life for basic science research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Resistance Abbreviations:

MRSA

A

Resistance Abbreviations:

MRSA = Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Au.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Facultative anaerobes express Superoxide dismutase and Catalase but also more ______ Enzymes so they are able to ferment Sugars as the sole Energy providing source if required.

A

Facultative anaerobes express Superoxide dismutase and Catalase but also more Glycolytic Enzymes so they are able to ferment Sugars as the sole Energy providing source if required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Streaking technique - Inoculation of Plate

measuring amount of bacteria

A
  • spread 0,1ml to agar media with few streak on one side
  • Rotate the Plate by 90 Degrees and streak again
  • Repeat again the second step
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Disinfection by Heat:

Pasteurization consists of heating fluid to __C for ___ Minutes, following by a ____.

A

Pasteurization consists of heating fluid to 62C for 30 Minutes, following by a rapid cooling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Antibiotics Interfering with 50S

A

Chloramphenicol
Macrolides (Erythromycin)
Lincosamide (Clindamycin)
Streptogramins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Horizontal Gene Transfer: DNA release after bacterial death ultimately causing homologous recombination in a new bacteria - This is ________ .

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer: DNA release after bacterial death ultimately causing homologous recombination in a new bacteria - This is Transformation .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Disinfectants:

Chlorine (Cl2) gas- Action and Use

A

Forms hypochlorous acid (HClO), a strong oxidizing agent. Disinfect drinking water; general disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Steps in preparation and Fixation of bacterial smears:

Cleaning from fat

A

Flaming slide 5 times with bunsen burner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

_______ Transduction happens when a certain part (toxins/VF) of the host chromosome is broken down and packaged in the phage. This requires a lysogenic cycle for ______ DNA uptake in the ______ .

A

Specialized Transduction happens when a certain part (toxins/VF) of the host chromosome is broken down and packaged in the phage. This requires a lysogenic cycle for bacterial DNA uptake in the Prophase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Exotoxins - Superantigens, 2 Examples

A

TSST 1 - S.Aureus

SPeC and SPeA - S. Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

IgM Negative and IgG Positive - Time of Infection

A

Old Infection - Could be due Vaccination

Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Examples for Use of Animals in the Lab for Microbial Investigation:
-Demonstration of bacteria’s exotoxin production – in vivo test

A

Römer test - C. Diphtheriae given to Guinea pigs with pre-exposure to Anti-Toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are 2 Dissemination possibilities for bacteria that can harm the host?

A

Bacteremia and Toxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Serum Resistant bacteria naturally include Gram_ species since those have no outer membrane.

A

Serum Resistant bacteria naturally include Gram+ species since those have no outer membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes:

Invading regions such as _______ __ _______ and ______ _____ like skin that are not _______ by Phagocytes.

A

Mechanism of evasion - Avoiding contact with Phagocytes:

Invading regions such as lumen of glands and surface tissues like skin that are not patrolled by Phagocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

NSAID therapy for familial _______ _______ showed regression of polyps.

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

NSAID therapy for familial adenomatous polyposis showed regression of polyps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:
used to eliminate the carriage of __ ________ type b in children at high risk for disease (children <2 years in a family or day-care center where systemic disease is
documented)

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:
used to eliminate the carriage of H. influenzae type b in children at high risk for disease (children <2 years in a family or day-care center where systemic disease is
documented)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Examples for Use of Animals in the Lab for Microbial Investigation:
-Propagation and maintenance of obligate intracellular bacteria

A

T.Pallidum growth in rabbits testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is present in a blood agar plate ?

Why?

A

5 -10 % of horses or sheep blood

Isolation of fastidious organisms and detect hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Aerobic Culture:

-Demands

A

Aerobic Culture:

37C, High Humidity, Normal Air and 1 Atm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Antibiotic prophylaxis to limit the spread of _________.

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Antibiotic prophylaxis to limit the spread of epidemics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

3 factors effecting the disinfection quality:

A

1 - Initial number of Bacteria
2 - Time (at least 1 minute)
3 -Detergent Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Quaternary ammonium compounds - Action and Use

A

Disrupts cell membranes. Skin antiseptics and

disinfectants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

History of Microbiology - Paul Ehrlich

1909

A 
Modern Immunology Founder
Precursor Technique to Gram Staining
Chemotherapeutic Index
Treatment for Syphilis
Diphtheria Antitoxin Theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Obligate intracellular parasites - Culturing:

Mycobacterium leprae

A

Can be grown in the mouse footpad or in the armadillo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Definition of Pathogenicity

A

Ability of an organism to cause harm to its host. Represents a genetic component of the organism. It is manifested through its Virulence and Host interaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

4 Stages of Infection

A

Incubation
Prodormial
Acute
Reconvalescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

History of Microbiology - Edward Jenner

1796

A

First vaccine created by him, It was for Small pox.

Derived from cow pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:
DPTa
(Extra knowledge)

A

DPTa - Diphtheria, Tetanus and Pertussis
2/4/6 Months, 18 Months, 6 years
+ dTap Reactivation in 11 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

LPS - Effect of Macrophages:

Receptor and Products released with consequence

A

CD14

IL1, TNF and NO - Causing Fever and BP↓

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Beta lactamase activity:

A

Digestion of penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Significance of Microbiology

CO2 Fixation

A

Conversion process of inorganic carbon to organic carbon. Planktonic algae and Cyanobacteria (Later consumed by other animals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

________ agents are ones that correspond to the MIC value and _______ agents are the ones that correspond to the MBC Value.

A

Bacteriostatic agents are ones that correspond to the MIC value and Bactericidal agents are the ones that correspond to the MBC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

History of Microbiology - Joesph Lister

1867

A

Disinfection with Phenols

Modern Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What are examples for molecules used for masking by bacteria?

A

Fibrin,Fibrinogen,Fibronectin,Collagen,Elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What are the parts of bacterial growth curve?

A

Lag phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Death phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Sterilization - Irradiation

A

UV - gamma

DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Determination of MIC - Punching test

A

1) Preparation of lawn culture (Flooded Equal Bacterial Growth Solid Media)
2) Making several holes on the surface (“punch”) and Pipetting Standard dilution of each Ab drug into them.
3) 37°C overnight
4) Measuring the diameter of the zone of inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the Magnification power difference between Electron microscope and Light Microscope? What is the Microbiological Use of each?

A

Light - 250 nm , for Bacteria, Fungi and Protozoa

Electron - 0,1 nm, for Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the key bacterial structure for UTI virulence?

A

Adhesins (on Fimbriae /Pili)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes:

Cytoplasmic Membrane

A

Prokaryotes: Cytoplasmic membrane contains Hopanoids and Bioenergetics are associated with it.
Eukaryotes: Cytoskeleton-Cytoplasmic Membrane contains steroids (Cholesterol).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

F plasmid

A

Mostly code for production of sex pili, when the male
cell extends his sex pili and one attaches to the female. This is a temporary cytoplasmic bridge allows the replicating F plasmid to cross and result is two male cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Autotrophic bacteria

A

Use inorganic precursors to build their organic molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Antiseptics:

Isopropanol (50-70%) - Action and Use

A

Denaturation of Proteins and Solubilization of Lipids.

On Skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Infection Transmission routes - Vertical Spread

Congenital, Perinatal and Postnatal - Examples

A

1) Congenital - Through Placenta; HIV, CMV, Rubella
2) Perinatal - During Delivery; Chlamydia, E.Coli
3) Postnatal - Milk, Saliva, Contact; HIV.CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Which bacteria is detected by Slide agglutination ?
How does it work?
Qualitative or Quantitative ?

A

E. Coli Serotypes Detection, E.g. O157:H7
Latex agglutination of the released antigen
Qualitative: Y/N (15 tests instead of 100 method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Chemoprophylaxis - Definition

A

Administration of an antimicrobial agent for preventing an infection or for suppressing contacted infection, before the clinical manifestations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Resistance Abbreviations:

VRSA

A

Resistance Abbreviations:

VRSA = Vancomycin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Torch test - when is it done ?

A

Before or in the First Trimester of the Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q 
Toxoid Vaccines (Disabled Virulence):
3 Examples
A

Toxoid Vaccines (Disabled Virulence):

1) C. Diphtheria
2) C. Tetani
3) C. Botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:
HepB
(Extra knowledge)

A

Hepatitis B

12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Phenol coefficient

A

Dilution of the test compound that kills the organism in 10 min devided by Dilution of phenol compound that kills the organism in 10 min.
(appropriate Incubations and colonies count measured before)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Elimination of Prions - Protocol:
Immerse 2N ____ for 1 Hour / 1N ____ for 2 Hours
Autoclave at ___C, __ ATM, for 1 Hour
Two steps should be________!

A

Elimination of Prions - Protocol:
Immerse 2N NaOH for 1 Hour / 1N NaOH for 2 Hours
Autoclave at 134C, +2 ATM, for 1 Hour
Two steps should be repeated one more time!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Liquid media for Anaerobic culture - Methods of Environment Production for Anaerobes

A

Before inoculation, O2 is eliminated from media by means of boiling. After inoculation, media are sealed by means of sterile wax or Vaseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Which molecule is mimicked by penicillin?

Why?

A

D-Ala-D-Ala (crossed linked NAM by transpeptidase forming Peptidoglycan)
This is a beta-Lactam ring which is part of peptidoglycan.
When penicillin binds the active site (competitive inhibition) and leads to ultimately membrane weakening.

203
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:
IPV
(Extra knowledge)

A

IPV - Poliovirus

2/4/6 Months, 18 Months, 6 years

204
Q

On which Bacterial spectrum will we be able to find Endotoxins?

A

Gram Negative

205
Q

Obligate intracellular parasites - Culturing:

Coxiella burnetii

A

Coxiella burnetii must be done in a biosafety level 3 containment facility (Highly Infectious)

206
Q

What are the 4 general different mechanisms of action of antibiotics:

A 
Inhibition of:
Cell wall synthesis
Proteins synthesis
DNA synthesis
or 
Membrane permeability changes
207
Q

How do Anionic Detergents work?

A

gross disruption of the lipoprotein framework of the cell

membrane.

208
Q

4 ECM Enzymes with Antiphagocytic Effect for Bacteria

A

Leucodin (Pore Forming Toxin)
Coagulase (S.Aureus)
Hemolysins (S.Aureus, S.Pyogenes)
Proteases (Legionella)

209
Q

Antibiotics altering DNA and RNA synthesis

A

Quinolone
Metronidazole
Rifampin

210
Q

Principles of Antibacterial Chemotherapy -

Dosage Principle and Factors to Consider

A

Antibiotics should be given allowing for seum level higher than MIC at the locus of Infection. Factors: Age, Weight, Pregnancy, Liver and Kidney Function.
(Timing and Method of Uptake and Price as well)

211
Q

Examples for Industrial Use of Microbiology in Pharmaceutical Therapy

A

Antibiotics - Bacillus Subtilis yields Bacitracin

Vaccines - Version of Diphtheria Toxin are used as Toxoid from Immunization

212
Q

Antiseptics:

Tincture of Iodine (2% I2 in 70% alcohol) - Action and Use

A

Inactivates proteins

on skin and In drinking Water

213
Q

Vital Staining: Preparation process and Purpose

A
  • Wet mount preparation
  • Drop of Methylene Blue
  • After ten minutes low power magnification
  • Fast detection by higher contrast of Neisseria (example)
214
Q

ID50/LD50/TCID50 Measurements Gave a value more than 10^5 Germs.
What does it mean?

A

Low Virulence since this is a High Germ count that causes 50% of Hosts/Cultures to have a pathologic conditions (Infection/Death/Damage).

215
Q

SIRS

A

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (Sepsis)

216
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Cell Division

A

Prokaryotes: Binary fission (Transfer via conjugation, transduction and transformation)
Eukaryotes: Mitosis

217
Q

Determination of MIC - Tube Dilution (“Macro-“)

A

1) Sequential dilution of the drug
2) Equal amount of bacteria into each tube
3) Incubation Overnight at 37 C
4) MIC will be the Highest dilution tube that’s transparent!

218
Q

Components of Peptidoglycan?

Arrangement?

A

NAG - N-Acetylglucosamin
NAM - N-Acetylmuramate
3-5 Amino acids peptides
Crosslinked in sheets, Peptides bind only NAM

219
Q

Examples for Use of Animals in the Lab for Microbial Investigation:
Producing antibodies for passive immunization

A

Antibodies for Botulism Toxin Produced in Mice.

220
Q

Fluroquinonolons side effect

A

Tendon and cartilage damage

221
Q

A patient with a splenectomy history has increased susceptibility to bacteria with which component?

A

Capsule - Polysaccharide Coat is recognized by Splenic Macrophages

222
Q

TCID50

A

A Quantitative Determinant of Virulence

Tissue Culture Infecting Dose - Number of Germs damaging 50% of Cultures.

223
Q

Basic Structure of Antibody

A 
2 Heavy chains
2 light chains
Disulfide bonds
Variable region - Antigen Binding Fab
Constant - (Crystallizable) Fc
224
Q

IgM and IgG are both Negative - What is the time of the Infection

A

Too early or No Infection

Could be early days, Pathogen would be a better way for detection at this point

225
Q

Examples for Use of Animals in the Lab for Microbial Investigation:
-Determination of virulence

A

The LD50 (also LD90) is a laboratory measurement of virulence, which determines the number of microbes necessary to kill 50% (or 90%) of the animals infected.

226
Q

Transport swab:
Example
Components

A 
Transport swab:
Stuart Transport (Just keeping the microbe alive)
Thioglycolic Acid (Reduction Agent) and Electrolytes
227
Q

What does the Spore Cortex consists of ?

A

Modified Peptidoglycan Layer

228
Q

Disinfection by Heat:

Examples for Bacteria that will survive Pasteurisation

A

Disinfection by Heat: Pasteurisation Survivors

Spore Forming Bacteria like B. Anthracis and M. Tuberculosis

229
Q

Colonization is ____ multiplication of microbes at the site of ___ or Close to it.

A

Colonization is Irreversible multiplication of microbes at the site of entry or Close to it.

230
Q

Microaerophilic Bacteria Express only _____ and this allows them to survive in low amount of Oxygen while mainly relying on ______.

A

Microaerophilic Bacteria Express only Superoxide Dismutase and this allows them to survive in low amount of Oxygen while mainly relying on Fermentation.

231
Q

Vancomycin is an example for a non ____-______ antibiotic that acts on the bacterial ____ ____ .

A

Vancomycin is an example for a non Beta-Lactam antibiotic that acts on the bacterial cell wall.

232
Q

Disinfectants:

Mercuric chloride- Action and Use

A

Inactivates proteins by reacting with sulphide groups

Disinfectant, although occasionally used as an antiseptic on skin

233
Q

What is the usual function of capsules and what are the possible components?

A

Antiphagocytic and Adhesion
Usually made of Polysaccharides but there are B. Anthracis with Poly-D-Glutamate Capsule and S.Pyogenes with Hyaluronic Acid Capsule.

234
Q

_______ Transduction happens when the host chromosome is broken down and a random part of it is packaged in the phage with the Viral DNA.

A

Generalized Transduction happens when a random part of the host chromosome is broken down and packaged in the phage with the Viral DNA.

235
Q

Difference between antibiotics and chemotherapeutics?

A

Antibiotics - produced by microbes

Chemotherapeutics - produced synthetically

236
Q

What is the importance of extracellular enzymes found on bacteria? (Collagenases, haemolysin..)

A

In vitro - diagnostics
In vivo - virulence factors
Pharmaceutical - antibiotics

237
Q

________ are substances produced by pathogens that cause damage to phagocytes e.g. __________ or ______ released before or after phagocytosis.

A

Aggressins are substances produced by pathogens that cause damage to phagocytes - Extracellular enzymes or toxins released before or after phagocytosis.

238
Q

Classification of Exotoxins based on toxicity mechanism.

Intracellularly-acting toxins - 3 Examples

A

(AB toxins: A-enzymatically active, B for binding )

  • Inhibition of protein synthesis (Diphtheria)
  • Growth inhibitors (LF - Anthrax MAPK Cleavage)
239
Q

Study (monitoring) of antimicrobial drug level in clinical samples

A

Determination of MIC - Punching test is done twice in parallel (Holes on lawn Culture): one for calibrated bacterium that is pre-incubated and second from the clinical sample (Serum)→diameter of the zone of inhibition is compared !

240
Q

IgM Positive and IgG Negative - Infection Time

A

Acute Infection
(Pathogen Should be present and observable too, Days or Weeks)
This could also be a False Positive IgM!

241
Q

What is the type of enrichment required for Listeria?

A

Cold Enrichment of the Culture

242
Q

Determination of MIC - Agar plate dilution test

A

1) Various concentrations of antibiotic are incorporated in a series of plates and Agar solidify them
2) Equal amount of bacteria into each Agar
3) Incubation Overnight at 37 C
4) MIC will be the Highest dilution tube that’s transparent!

243
Q

What are Neisser I. and Neisser II stain contents?

A

methylene blue (I) and crystal violet (II)

244
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:

HiB

A

HiB - H. Influenzae B

2/6 Months, 18 Months

245
Q

IgM and IgG are Positive - Time of Infection

A

Recent or Acute Infection

3 weeks to Months

246
Q

Phenetic definition of Phylum

A

Group of Organisms with a certain degree of morphological or developmental similarity.

247
Q

______ is a _____ vaccine that has 2 _______ components for Diphtheria and Tetanus and 1 _______ component for Pertussis.

A

DPT is a triple vaccine that has 2 toxoid components for Diphtheria and Tetanus and 1 Inactivated component for Pertussis.

248
Q

Western Blot - Ab differentiation and a better alternative

A

Larger Ab will move a further distance .

Line Immunoassay could be a replacement.

249
Q

Flagella stains material

“Titanic Flagella”

A

Tannic Acid

250
Q

Tube agglutination - For which bacteria?

Qualitative or Quantitative?

A

Salmonella typhoid (Grubel-Widal Reaction)
Qualitative - Specific Antibodies from serum
Quantitative - Antibody Titer Determination

251
Q

Examples for Use of Animals in the Lab for Microbial Investigation:
Producing monoclonal antibodies for serological tests-

A

Hybridoma method in mouse

252
Q

Inactivated Vaccines (Cultured and Destroyed):
3 Examples
(Extra knowledge)

A

Inactivated Vaccines (Cultured and Destroyed):

1) V. Cholera
2) B. Pertussis
3) Y. Pestis (Bubonic Plague)

253
Q

What amino acid abundance with water contributes the most for the initiation of the germination of a spore to bacterial cell?

A

Alanine

254
Q

Give Examples for a Low Therapeutic Index and High Therapeutic Index Antibiotics:

A

Low Therapeutic Index - Aminoglycosides

High Therapeutic Index - Penicillin

255
Q

Antibiotic produced by Bacillus subtilis:

  1. Nystatin
  2. Streptomycin
  3. Amphotericin
  4. Bacitracin
  5. Gentamicin
A

Bacitracin

256
Q

When does MBC is important for the determining antibiotic amount of prescription? Which conditions?

A

Severe cases of infection:

Osteomyelitis, Endocarditis, Sepsis, Immunocompromised

257
Q

_____ is a _______ and a _______ vaccine that contains _______ ______ as well and it contains ______ of S. Pneumoniae.

A

PCV13 is a conjugate and a subunit vaccine that contains diphtheria proteins as well and it contains subunits of S. Pneumoniae.

258
Q

How does Gram staining shows on both kinds of bacteria?

A

Gram+ : purple

Gram- : pink/red

259
Q

Definition of Virulence

A

Degree of pathology caused by the organism.

depends on its Virulence factors : Structural as cell wall or Capsule and Biochemical as Exotoxin or Endotoxin.

260
Q

Torch test - Microbes Initials meaning

A 
Toxoplasma
Other - Syphilis,VZV, S. Agalactiae
Rubella
CMV
Herpes
261
Q

What are the two time points when Antigenic variations may take place?

A

1) Between infections of the pathogen

2) During the course of Infection

262
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Very effective against ____ signs of tuberculosis

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Very effective against early signs of tuberculosis

263
Q

Glycopeptides antibiotics

A

Vancomycin and Teicoplanin

264
Q

MIC - for Classification of Antibiotics

Definition and Unit

A

Minimal Inhibitory Concentration that prevents Growth of the Microbe in the Host ant relays on the Host defence to finish the Job. (ug/ml or mg/L)

265
Q

Ozone- Action and Use

A

Generates lethal oxygen radicals.

Purification of water, sewage.

266
Q

Equivalence Zone

A

The right amount of Ag in serum that provides the Maximal level of agglutination

267
Q

What is present in a chocolate agar plate?

Why?

A

Lysed RBCs that have been heated to 80c.

Growing of Fastidious bacteria such as Haemophillus Influenzae

268
Q

Definition of Infection

A

Invasion and Multiplication of Microorganisms that are not natural to the body or area.

269
Q

Risks of Using Antibiotics: Inhibition of

immune system

A
  • Embryotoxic action

- Formation of drug resistance

270
Q

Serum Resistant bacteria the include Gram_ species that cause bacteremia .

A

Serum Resistant bacteria the include Gram- species that cause bacteremia .

271
Q

How can we prove true motility with direct examination in microscope? Otherwise, what is observed (could be perceived as motility)?

A

Observing a bacteria swimming from one side of the slide to the other. Otherwise it is just brownian motion.

272
Q

MBL - Initials

A

MetalloBeta Lactamases

273
Q

MIC - Minimal inhibitory concentration

Methods of Determination: (3)

A

Micro and Macro Dilution
Agar Dilution
E-Test

274
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Antibiotic prophylaxis for _________________ people to prevent opportunistic infections.

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Antibiotic prophylaxis for immunocompromised people to prevent opportunistic infections.

275
Q

Antimicrobial Drugs in combination - Possible Outcomes

A

1) Indifference
2) Antagonism
3) Synergism

276
Q

Key Components of Gram+ Bacteria cell wall

A 
Lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
Peptidoglycan (much thicker with it)
277
Q

What kinds of different consistencies can culture media have?

A

Broth - liquid media
Solid media
Semisolid media

278
Q

Toxoid containing:

  • BCG vaccine
  • DPT vaccine
  • Pneumococcal 13 valent vaccine
  • Meningococcal polyvalent vaccine
  • Haemophilus influenzae vaccine
A

DPT vaccine

279
Q

Obligate anaerobe infect while usually causing _____ in the abdominal cavity and ______ in lungs in order to form a good environment for themselves.

A

Obligate anaerobe infect while usually causing abscess

in the abdominal cavity and aspirations in lungs in order to form a good environment for themselves.

280
Q

What 2 types of Bacteria can form spores?

A

Aerobic Bacillus and the Anaerobic Clostridium.

281
Q

Conjugate Vaccines :Conjugation of Bacterial _____ to proteins (e.g Toxins created enhanced Immune recognition of the ______.

A

Conjugation of Bacterial Polysaccharides to proteins (e.g Toxins created enhanced recognition of the Polysaccharides . Example - H. Influenzae B

282
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Inhibition of phagocytic engulfment:

Resistance to phagocytic ingestion is usually due to a _______ of the bacterial ________, ______ or a _______ .

A

Mechanism of evasion - Inhibition of phagocytic engulfment:

Resistance to phagocytic ingestion is usually due to a component of the bacterial fimbriae or a capsules.

283
Q

Microaerophilic Culture:

  • Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Percentage Needed
  • Example
A

Microaerophilic Culture:

  • Oxygen 10% and CO2 10%
  • Skirrow Medium for H.Pylori and Campylobacter
284
Q

What is the Microscopic activity of Spores?

A

Refreactive

285
Q

Precautions in case of danger of cholera, EXCEPT:

  1. Providing sterile drinking water
  2. Passive immunisation
  3. Safe sewage removal/processing
  4. Increasing personal hygiene
  5. Providing effective therapeutic measures
A

Passive immunisation

286
Q

Capsules, Outer membrane permeability barrier of Gram Negative Bacteria and LPS are all examples of ____ Mechanisms ____ ____ _____.

A

Capsules, Outer membrane permeability barrier of Gram Negative Bacteria and LPS are all examples of Evasion Mechanisms from host defences.

287
Q

What are the 2 structures of Spores that allow survival in Chemical and Heat changes?

A

1) “Keratin-Like” Protein Core- Protecting from Chemicals

2) Dipicolinic Acid Coat - Protects from Heat

288
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Membrane enclosed organelles

A

Prokaryotes - None

Eukaryotes - Lysosomes, Golgi, ER, Mitochondria

289
Q

ESBL - Initials

A

Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamases

290
Q

Order of Taxonomy:

Kingdom→ _______→ Class → Order → _______→ ______ → Species

A

Order of Taxonomy:

Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

291
Q

Exotoxins - Inhibition of Protein Synthesis, 2 Examples

A

1) ADP Ribosylation - E2F Inactivation by Diphtheria’s lethal toxin and Exotoxin A of Pseudomona
2) Shiga and Shiga-like (EHEC) toxins binding 60S

292
Q 
Antiseptics:
Silver nitrate (AgNO3) - Action and Use
A

Precipitates proteins.

General antiseptic and used in the eyes of new-borns.

293
Q

Welch Method - Preparation process and Purpose

וולץ מסניף קריסטל ,מחלל את חם, כופר ומסלף דברים העיקר לראות שמיים כחול בהיר, חי בקפסולה הבנאדם

A
  • Hot crystal violet
  • wash with copper-sulfate
  • Capsule appears pale blue
294
Q

A persistent, asymptomatic after treatment, bacterial colonization of the trachea of a CF patient could be caused by _____ properties of a bacteria.

A

A persistent, asymptomatic after treatment, bacterial colonization of the trachea of a CF patient could be caused by Biofilm properties of the bacteria.

295
Q

Significance of Microbiology

Nitrogen Fixation

A

Some Bacteria remove N2 from the atmosphere and converts it to Ammonia for use by plants and animals.

296
Q

What are disinfectants and Antiseptics?

A

Disinfectant - toxic, for inorganic surface

Antiseptics - less toxic for organic surface

297
Q

MBC - for Classification of Antibiotics

Definition and Unit

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration of the antibiotic.

lowest concentration of an antibiotic that kill 99.9% of a certain (ug/ml or mg/L)

298
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen Staining (Acid Fast): Preparation process and Purpose
נילסן אכל קבבול בפושקין התעצבן שלוש פעמים אז שפכו עליו מים והקיא את כל ה96% אלכוהול נהיה חיוור אז שמו לו מטלית כחול

A
  • Carbol-Fuchsin (Mycolic acid binds)
  • Heat 3 times and Wash with water
  • Decolorization with 96% alcohol
  • Counter stain with Methylene Blue
299
Q

What is Natural resistance?

A

A quality of the target bacteria as in contains enzymes for elimination of the antibiotics or lacking the target molecule for the antibiotics attack.

300
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:
MMR
(Extra knowledge)

A

MMR - Measles, Mumps, Rubella

15 Months + Reactivation in 11 years

301
Q

What componants solidify the culture?

A

Agar or gelatin

302
Q

When there is a patient with food poisoning he will receive Passive Immunization with IgG through injection to prevent the risk of ___ such as ____.

A

When there is a patient with food poisoning he will receive Passive Immunization with IgG through injection to prevent the risk of toxins such as Botulism.

303
Q

Disinfectant:

Formaldehyde (8%) - Action and Use

A

Reacts with NH2, SH and COOH groups

Kills Endospores.

304
Q

When would we use combinations of antibiotics

A

Synergistic effect
Increased length of use like in TB
High variance of resistance or types of microbes

305
Q

Gas-pack jar (Compartment) - Methods of Environment Production for Anaerobes

A

Cultivation of Anaerobic microbes by - Placing a Gas Pack in the Jar that releases H2 and CO2, a Catalyst in the cell produces Water from O2 and H2 thus ultimately eliminating the Oxygen in the sealed Jar.

306
Q

What is the cause of the disinfectant effect of Agents such as Formaldehyde or Ethylene Oxide?

A

Alkylating Proteins

307
Q

Agglutination

A

Ag-Ab reaction linked to cell surface - Visible to the naked eye

308
Q

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental work for individuals with damaged ____ _____.

A

Examples for Chemoprophylaxis:

Prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental work for individuals with damage heart valves.

309
Q

History of Microbiology - Robert Koch

1880

A

Founder of Modern Bacteriology
Identified the specific causative agents for Tuberculosis cholera and Anthrax.
Koch’s Postulates - 4 criteria designed to establish a cause effect between microbe and disease

310
Q

Anaerostate (Compartment) - Methods of Environment Production for Anaerobes

A

Cultivation of Anaerobic microbes by - Air Expulsion by Pressure Cylinder, Air Aspiration and Filling or Anaerocult that produces the Correct Gas mixture.

311
Q

Biological method - Fortner-technique: Environment Production for Anaerobes

A

Growing Anaerobes and Aerobes together on Blood agar - Anaerobe over consume the Oxygen allowing for an Anaerobic environment for the other Anaerobe.

312
Q

Generalized transduction

A

Virus is transmitting the Genetic matter to a bacterium, which multiples and lead to production of more viral proteins and DNA.

313
Q

Chemical method - Liquid media for Anaerobic culture

A

Thioglycolate broth allows for reduction of Oxygen to water in the tube. Aerobes will culture the top of the liquid (Contact with air) anaerobe the bottom.

314
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Survival inside phagocytes:

Inhibition of _______________________ fusion - This allows for no _________ discharge inside the phagosome.

A

Mechanism of evasion - Survival inside phagocytes:

Inhibition of Phagosome-Lysosome fusion - This allows for no lysosomal discharge inside the phagosome.

315
Q

Antibiotics Interfering with 30S

A

Aminoglycosides - Gentamycin, Streptomycin

Tetracyclines - Oxy-Tetracycline and Doxycycline

316
Q

When are endotoxins released from a bacteria?

A

Cell Death

317
Q

Wet Mount: Preparation process and Purpose

A
  • drop of bacterial suspension in the middle of slide
  • Coverslip - Surface tension holds the sample
  • 40x magnification
318
Q

Resistance Abbreviations:

VRE

A

Resistance Abbreviations:

VRE = Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus

319
Q

Examples for enzymes aiding in killing phagocytes before phagocytosis

A

Hemolysin - Lyse RBCs as well

Streptolysin O - Lysosomal granules explosion in cell

320
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes : Glycocalyx

A

Prokaryotes: Present as capsule or slime layer
Eukaryotes: Present in some cells that lack a cell wall (Animal cellls)

321
Q

Monitoring of antibiotics (prevention of kidney failure)

A

Calibration curve of weekly taken cultures and their relative inhibition zones

322
Q

Control of Bacterial Sterility of Parenteral Drugs

A

Thioglycollate Medium - Parallelly under Aerobic and Anaerobic Conditions at 37C for 7 days

323
Q

Tetracyclines side effect

A

Complex with Calcium colorize and defect enamel.

324
Q

Discoverer of Penicillin:

  1. Paul Ehrlich
  2. Selman Waksman
  3. Robert Koch
  4. Alexander Fleming
  5. Ian Fleming
A

Alexander Fleming

325
Q

When there is a patient with animal bites he will receive Passive IgG through injection to to prevent the risk of ___.

A

When there is a patient with animal bites he will receive Passive IgG through injection to to prevent the risk of Rabies.

326
Q

LPS - Effect on Complement:

Products released with consequence

A

C3a - BP↓ and Edema

C5a - Neutrophills Chemotaxis and Edema

327
Q

What is the Utility of having a Glycocalyx on the bacterial Surface?

A

Aids in formation of Biofilms and so survival in harsh conditions is easier e.g. S.Epidermidis in Catheters

328
Q

Sterilisation - Mechanical

A

Bacteria filter
0.45 or 0.1 microns pores
(Mycoplasma or viruses can pass)

329
Q

What do culture media actually contain?

A

Carbons Source (Sugar), minerals, buffer, yeast extraction, water and Amine Source (Casein derivatives Tryptone/Peptone)

330
Q 
Which of the following causes the purple color staining in Gram positive Bacteria:
1)LTA
B)NAM
C)Capsule
D)Fimbria
A

NAM

331
Q

Rifamycin side effects

A

Hepatitis - Orange body fluids

332
Q

Pros and Cons of Detergents?

A

Pro:low toxicity levels, lack of smell, good skin tolerance
Con:Ineffective for Gram Negative Bugs

333
Q

What kinds of specificity can culture media have?
Give examples
(4 types in total)

A

Basic media - blood media (5%)
Selective media - Chocolate media with Vancomycin
Differential media - EMB, Eosin Methylene Blue
Special Media - Chocolate media

334
Q

Definition of Antibiogram

A

The Spectrum of Antibiotic options to be given in a situation

335
Q

What is this Vaccine for? and When is it recommended?:
PCV13
(Extra knowledge)

A

PCV13 - S. Pneumoniae

12 Months

336
Q

Pure culture

A

After streaking of mixed bacteria with special streaking pattern distinct, isolated colony can be grown on the surface of culture media. Every bacterium shows the same biochemical pattern, and antibacterial sensitivity pattern, belongs to the same species. Preparation of pure culture is essential to the identification, and other microbiological investigation.

337
Q

Phenolic compounds - Action and Use

A

Denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes.

Antiseptics at low concentrations; disinfectants at high concentrations

338
Q

Bacterial Antigens names for Capsule, Cell Wall, Flagella, Fimbria

A

Capsule - K antigen
Cell wall - O Antigen
Flagella - H Antigen
Fimbria - F Antigen

339
Q

Mechanisms of Evading immunological response:

3 examples for Tolerance formation to Bacterial Ag

A
  • Fetal exposure to the antigen
  • High persistent doses of the circulating antigen
  • Molecular Mimicry
340
Q

What specimens are detected by Dark Field Microscopy?

A

Spirochaetes - Treponema Pallidum, Borrelia Burgdorferi, Leptospira Icterohaemorrhagiae

341
Q

Invasin

A

Extracellular Protein binds to Integrin receptor allowing for Bacteria entry to Epithelial cells

342
Q

Bacterial Isolate

A

a population of bacteria that belong to one species, and were isolated at a certain time from a certain origin.

343
Q

MODS

A

Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome result of shock (in our case septic shock)

344
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Fllagela

A

Prokaryotes: 2 Protein building blocks - flagellin
Eukaryotes: Complex (9+2) Microtubules structure

345
Q

Types of metabolism preformed by aerobic and anaerobic bacteria?

A

Aerobic bacteria - Respiration

Anaerobic bacteria - Fermentation

346
Q

What is an Endoflagella?

Where is it found?

A

Flagella located in the cytoplasm

Usually in Spirochetes

347
Q

Mechanisms of Bacteria Evading Complement:

Alterations of LPS - 2 Examples

A

1) LPS O antigen with Sialic Acid prevents the C3 convertase formation. (N. Meningitidis and H.Influenzae).
2) LPS with long intact O antigen side chains causes distancing of MAC from Bacterial Membrane

348
Q

What are the two functions of Eosin Methylene Blue agar medium?

A
  • Selective: for Isolation of Gram Negative

- Differential: for Isolation of Lactose Fermenting

349
Q

Ideal Antibiotic Drug Factors (6)

A 
Selective Toxicity
-Cidal/-Static
Reach the target +good concentration active (Kinetics)
Spectrum
Lack of Side effects
Little Resistance development
350
Q

3 Desired effects of Antimicrobial Drugs in combination

When applied for the correct pathogen

A

1) Synergism for Strong Pathogen/Weak Immune Sys
2) Extend Spectrum for Empirical Identification of Cause
3) Prevent Induction of Resistance Mechanisms for Long treatments (E.g Tuberculosis - R.I.P.E)

351
Q

What is the cause of the disinfectant effect of Agents such as Iodine , Chlorine or Hydrogen Peroxide?

A

Oxidizing Proteins

352
Q

3 ECM Enzymes Facilitating Bacterial Invasion

A

Streptokinase (S.Pyogenes)
Collagenases (Clostridium)
Hyaluronidase (S.Aureus, C.Perfringens, T.Pallidum)

353
Q

Disinfectant catagories;

A 
Agents against cell wall
Detergents
Peptide denaturating agents
Agent acting on nucleic acids
Oxidazing agents
Alkylating agents
354
Q

2 Examples for a Polypeptide antibiotics

A

Bacitracin and Polymyxin

355
Q

Flocculation

A

Large Precipitation

Used for Syphillis detection

356
Q

____ _____ : Antigenic determinants of a bacterium are so closely related chemically to host “self” components that the immune system cannot recognize it.

A

Molecular Mimicry : Antigenic determinants of a bacterium are so closely related chemically to host “self” components that the immune system cannot recognize it.

357
Q

What is the advantage of Transport plates over transport swabs? Examples

A

Saves time by letting the bacteria grow meanwhile (Culture). Uricult and Gono-line.

358
Q

Mechanism of evasion - Survival inside phagocytes:
Survival inside the Phagolysosome due to components of the bacteria or Extracellular substances produced that resist the __________ _____________ .

A

Mechanism of evasion - Survival inside phagocytes:
Survival inside the Phagolysosome due to components of the bacteria or Extracellular substances produced that resist the lysosomal constituents .

359
Q

Resistance Abbreviations:

VISA

A

Resistance Abbreviations:

VISA= Vancomycin Intermediate Staphylococcus Aureus

360
Q

Which could serve as a strong Antigen, Bacterial Lipid or Protein ?

A

Protein

361
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotics (2):

  1. Penicillin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Chloramphenicol
  4. Rifampicin
  5. Streptomycin
A

Penicillin and Streptomycin

362
Q

Determination of MIC - Microdilution test

Equal amount of bacteria into each

A

1) Sequential dilution:96-well polystyrene microtiter plate

2) MIC will be the Highest dilution tube that’s transparent!

363
Q

Selective Toxicity (Substance)

A

A Substance should be harmful to the pathogen but not harmful to host.

364
Q

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 3:

The Microorganism should ___ ___ when introduced into ____ ____ .

A

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 3:

The Microorganism should cause a disease when introduced into healthy organisms .

365
Q

Limitations of Chemoprophylaxis:

A
  • Risk of side effects, Like Dysbacteriosis
  • Possible High Cost
  • Possible Low Incidence of the disease
366
Q

Paratrophic organisms

A

Need a living host for reproduction

367
Q

LAL test

A

Atlantic horseshoe crab blood aggregates in presence of Lipid A - Detection of Pathogens

368
Q

Neisser Staining: Preparation process and Purpose

ניסר לו איזה תירס עם וולט וחצי כדי לעבוד על כלי-סידן ובלוטין

A
  • Stain fixed smear of Corynebacteria with mixture of N.1 and N.2 (2:1 ratio)
  • Water Wash
  • Chrysoidine dye then Dry with blotting paper
  • Detection of Volutin Granules
369
Q

How can we eliminate resistant Spores?

A

Soap and water washing

Not alcohol

370
Q

Artificial Snow, Botox, Pesticides, Hyaluronic Acid are all examples for ________ _________ used in the unusual Industrial ways.

A

Artificial Snow, Botox, Pesticides, Hyaluronic Acid are all examples for Bacterial Products used in the unusual Industrial ways.

371
Q

7 conditions to keep in mind when preparing a bacterial culture

A
  1. Nutrients
  2. Temperature
  3. Oxygen - Aerobic/Anaerobic/microaero/capnophilic
  4. Water
  5. pH 7.2-7.4
  6. Osmotic pressure (NaCl concentration)
  7. Sterile environment
372
Q

History of Microbiology - Dmitri Ivanovsky

1892

A

Discoverer of filterable nature of viruses - founder of virology.
Discovered the Tobacco mosaic Virus.

373
Q

Classification of Exotoxins based on Site of Action

A 
Neurotoxins - Botulinum
Cytotoxin - Pertussis Toxin
Enterotoxin - Cholera Toxin
Leukocidin - WBC Pore forming
Hemolysin - RBC Pore forming
374
Q

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 4:

The Microorganism must be ___ from the ____ ___ ____ and Identified as being Identical to the ____ ___ ___.

A

Koch’s Postulate - Criteria 4:
The Microorganism must be Re-isolated from the Experimental Diseased Host and Identified as being Identical to the Original causative agent.

375
Q

3 Options for Adhesion to Host cells by Bacteria

A

1) Fimbrial Glycolipid has a Glycoprotein Interaction
2) Bacterial Adhesion Molecules bind Glycoprotein (Afimbrial)
3) Hydrophobic Adhesion: Bacterial Cell wall

376
Q

ID50

A

A Quantitative Determinant of Virulence

Infective Dose - Number of Germs inducing disease in 50% of Hosts.

377
Q

Principles of Antibacterial Chemotherapy -
Toxemia as a treatment Consequence
(Jarisch–Herxheimer reaction)

A

Bactericidal Antibiotics cause great number of Bacterial death, at the beginning of the treatment large amount of toxins are released. Prevention of Shock is Essential.

378
Q

Candidiasis

Candida (yeast) normally live harmlessly in our body

A

With antibiotic use, the normal flora in the vagina or oral cavity is disrupted → candida grows → fungal infection formed

379
Q

Elek’s Test - Precipitation

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae Toxin Detection

The specific Toxin could be released and detected by the Filter Paper (bind to antitoxin)

380
Q

History of Microbiology - Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

1847

A

Early antiseptics Pioneer - “Savior of Mothers”

Chlorine hand wash prevented Puerperal Fever in Child Birth (Streptococcus Pyogenes)

381
Q

India Ink and Quelling test are 2 Important tests that help in visualization of _________ bacteria.

A

India Ink and Quelling test are 2 Important tests that help in visualization of Encapsulated bacteria.

382
Q

Obligate anaerobe lack oxygen protective enzymes and are mostly part of the ____ ____ and _____ Flora. They prefer living in _____ if formed.

A

Obligate anaerobe lack oxygen protective enzymes and are mostly part of the oral cavity and GI Flora. They prefer living in abscesses if formed.

383
Q

Determination of MIC - E –test

A

Placing a plastic strip impregnated with the concentration gradient of the certain antibiotic on a Lawn Culture. From the scale you can read the MIC numerically. MIC = number where the elliptic zone crosses the plastic strip.

384
Q

_______ Antibody formation can happen as a result of pathogen ability to present ______ antigenic determinants.

A

Ineffective Antibody formation can happen as a result of pathogen ability to present various antigenic determinants.

385
Q

Phylogenetic definition of Phylum

A

Group of organisms with a certain degree of evolutionary relatedness.

386
Q

Comparison of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes :

Nucleus

A

Prokaryotes - Nucleoid with no Membrane or Nucleolus

Eukaryotes - Nucleus with Membrane and Nucleolus

387
Q

Risks of Using Antibiotics: Penicillin

A
  • 5% of people are allergic (hypersensitivity reaction type 1) to penicillin
  • This can cause anaphylactic shock
    (all other types of HSN are also Possible with it)
388
Q

Quellung Reaction - Examples for target bacteria:

“KESHA”

A

Encapsulated Bacteria: (KESHA)

Klebsiella, E. Coli , S. Pneumoniae, H. Influenzae, (S.)Agalactiae, (Salmonella, N. Meningitidis).

389
Q

Colony morphology - Example for Identification by Color

A

Pseudomona Aeruginosa - Pyocyanin and Pyoverdin
S. Aureus - Yellow
Serratia Marcescens- Red

390
Q

Colony morphology - Example for Identification by Smell

A

Pseudomona Aeruginosa- Grape Like

391
Q

Colony morphology - Example for Identification by Motility

A

Proteus Mirabilis - Swarming Motility
Enterobacter Cloacae - Highly Motile
Klebsiella Pneumoniae/Shigella Dysenteriae - Immotile

392
Q

Colony morphology - Example for Identification by Hemolysis

A

Clostridium Perfringens - Double Zone α + β

393
Q

Eosin-Methylene-Blue medium (EMB) - What happens when a lactose fermenting bacteria is introduced? Describe the Process

A

Lactose Fermentation → pH ↓→ eosin loses its color→ The blue color remains→ the bacteria incorporate it→ the colony is BLUE in color (Klebsiella Pneumoniae).
*E.Coli → Metallic Green!

394
Q

Eosin-Methylene-Blue medium (EMB) - What happens when a non lactose fermenting bacteria is introduced? Describe the Process

A

No Lactose Fermentation → pH same→ Pink color is enhanced (Salmonella Typhi).

395
Q

Russel culture media containing: Brilliant sugar= dextrose, saccharose, lactose. Andrade indicator- decolourised fuchsin: Acid = red
Possible Outcomes:

A

Lactose + dextrose fermentation = whole culture Red
Lactose + dextrose fermentation + gas production = Red
with Burst
Lactose -, dextrose +: the high part is red, the slant not

396
Q

TSI (triple sugar iron agar): Glucose, Lactose, Sucrose, pH indicator, Iron.
Colors of: H2S production, Glucose is broken down, Lactose are broken down.

A

H2S production - Black, In Salmonella Typhi / Proteus
Glucose is broken down - Only Slope Yellow, Proteus
Lactose are broken down - All Yellow, Escherichia Coli

397
Q

ONPG- The demonstration of the β - galactosidase enzyme

A

Determination of the ability of an organism to produce beta-galactosidase, that hydrolyzes ONPG to ortho-nitrophenol = Fast Lactose Fermenter

398
Q

The ureum-indol (UI –medium) / Christensen medium
Contains: dextrose, ureum, phenol red indicator
Examination of the Tryptophanase enzyme- demonstration of the indole production with Kovács- reagent on UI- medium. Possible Outcomes:

A

1) Tryptophanase enzyme is cleaving tryptophan →free indole ring + pyruvic acid + ammonia.
2) If free indole ring is present, the aldehyde group containing indicator turns RED

399
Q

Antibody Titer (Quantitative Tube Agglutination): Definition and Example

A

A serial dilution is made from patient sera, known antigen solution is added to each tube. The Result Value Corresponds to the highest dilution factor (lowest concentration) that still yields a positive reading. Grubel-Widal reaction - Salmonella typhi.

400
Q

What Serological Measurement is described here? Antibodies or Ag in vitro are bound to the surface of latex particle or red blood cells so that the binding partner will cause agglutination. Modern, fast technique. The antibodies or the Antigens are in vitro bound to latex particle.

A

Latex Agglutination - Diagnosis of meningitis
Co-Agglutination - S. Aureus Diagnosis
(Both are Passive Processes)

401
Q

What Serological Measurement is described here?
Precipitation ring can be seen in the equivalent zone- the zone where the amount of antigen and antibody are equal.Qualitative measurement.
Steps: introduce serum into the tube → add ag → disc-shaped zone of precipitation

A

Ring Precipitation - Liquid phase precipitation

402
Q

What Serological Measurement is described here?
The precipitation reactions can be visualised by allowing the Ag and the Ab to diffuse towards each other through agar gel - Immunodiffusion.

A

Semi-solid phase precipitation (agar gel precipitation)

403
Q

What Serological Measurement is described here?
-Filter paper impregnated with anti-toxin (antibody against bacterial toxin) is placed in agar plate.
- Bacterial strains to be tested are placed onto the surface of the plate at right angles to the paper strip.
- Antitoxin diffuses from the filter paper into the agar-gel, binds to the toxin produced by the bacteria.
- A fine precipitation line is formed in the equivalence
zone.

A

ELEK’s test - Diphtheria Toxin detection

404
Q

Antituberculotic drugs: Common Characteristics

A
  • All cause hepatotoxicity
  • All are given orally for a period of 6-9 months
  • High penetration into most tissues (must reach the center of caseous granuloma)
405
Q

Antituberculotic drugs:

Phase I of treatment - 2 months (RIPE)

A
  • Rifampin (Rif-AMP-in)
  • Isoniazid (ISO-niazid)
  • Pyrazinamide (Pyrazin-AMIDE)
  • Ethambutol (Etham-BUTOL)
406
Q

Antituberculotic drugs:

Phase II of treatment - 4-7 months

A
  • Rifampin (Rif-AMP-in)

- Isoniazid (ISO-niazid)

407
Q

What is the definition/name for a TB that is resistant to Rifampin and Isoniazid ?

A

Multidrug resistant M. tuberculosis (MDR TB)

408
Q

What is the definition/name for a TB that is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one of the second-line drugs (potentially untreatable) ?

A

Extensively drug-resistant M. tuberculosis (XDR TB)

409
Q

What are the necessary modification in treatment needed in case of a XDR TB or MDR TB?

A
  • Extensive use of second-line agents for an extended
    period of time (18-24 months).
  • Surgery may be required to remove the origin of infection.
410
Q

What is common for all the following drugs?

  • Quinolones
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Polypeptides
  • Linezolid
A

Second-line drugs for TUBERCULOSIS treatment

411
Q

What is the chemoprophylactic treatment needed in case of TB exposure for HIV patients?

A

Isoniazid (6-9 months), Rifampin (4 months).

412
Q

AIDS patients with CD4+ T-cell count less than 50 cells/μl - prophylaxis against M. avium complex: Prophylactic treatment.

A

Clarithromycin

413
Q

Immunoprophylaxis: Vaccination with attenuated M. bovis - BCG (bacillus Calmette-Guerin for TB): Where? When? Who?

A
  • Countries where tuberculosis is endemic
  • Administered to young (less effective in adults)
  • Cannot be used in immunocompromised patients (HIV infection)
414
Q

Complement Fixation test (for Antibody detection)

Which bacterial antibodies are diagnosed with it?

A
  • Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
  • Chlamydophila Pneumoniae
  • Chlamydia Psittaci
415
Q

FITC - Definition

A

Fluorescein Isothiocyanate - Molecule covalently attached to Antibodies allowing for Direct and Indirect Immunofluorescence.

416
Q

How does Direct Immunofluorescence work?

A

Checking the presence of the Antigen by confirming its attachment to FITC-labeled Antibody.

417
Q

How does Indirect Immunofluorescence work?

A

Checking the presence of the Antigen by attachment to a Primary Antibody that will be afterwards confirmed by binding to a Second type FITC-labeled Antibody/ies.

418
Q

ELISA- Definition

Give an example in Microbiology

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assays
B. Anthracis detection by Anti-PA (Protective Antigen, Indirect)
T. Pallidum detection by Recombinant Antigen (Direct)

419
Q

What type of Serology Test is described below?

  1. Premade -Antigens are affixed to the vessel Surface
  2. Patient serum added and Ab-Ag binding occurs
  3. Enzyme-Conjugated Anti-Human Antibody (E) is added
  4. After binding of E to Ab a substrate added is converted to Chromophore - Spectrophotometric Analysis is done.
A

Direct ELISA - Antibody Detection

420
Q

What type of Serology Test is described below?

  1. Premade -Antibody are affixed to the vessel Surface
  2. Antigen specimen added and Ab-Ag binding occurs
  3. Second Premade -Enzyme-Conjugated Anti-Human Antibody (E) is added (Ab-Ag-E complex)
  4. After binding of E to Ag a substrate added is converted to Chromophore - Spectrophotometric Analysis is done.
A

Indirect ELISA - Soluble Antigen Detection

421
Q

What type of Serology Test is described below?

  1. Proteins are separated by SDS-PAGE
  2. Proteins are blotted into nitrocellulose paper
  3. Incubation with antigen-specific antibody or patient sera (1Ab)
  4. Incubation with enzyme-conjugated anti human sera sera (2Ab)
  5. Enzyme conversion of substrate identifies the antigen.
A

Western Blot

422
Q

What is common for all the serological test listed below?

  • Real-time PCR
  • Nucleic Acid Hybridization
  • Immunofluorescence assays
  • Indirect ELISA
  • Latex Agglutination
A

Direct Detection of Pathogen (Antigen)

423
Q

How are toxoids formed?

Acceleration of the toxins loss of pathogenicity and retainment of antigenicity

A

By reagents like formalin, iodine, pepsin, ascorbic acid and ketones

  • 37C
  • 6-9 weeks.
424
Q 
Diagnostic Skin tests:
Tuberculin test (PPD) - with Positive and False Positive results
A

Purified Protein derivative of TB- Injection into skin.
Takes 48-72 hours.
Positive - red lesion greater than 15 mm indicates TB infection or previous exposure.
False Positive - Lesser reactions indicate infections with other mycobacteria or BCG vaccination passive immunity.

425
Q 
Diagnostic Skin tests:
Tuberculin test (PPD) - with False Negative and Negative results
A

Purified Protein derivative of TB- Injection into skin.
False Negative -rare, due to AIDS/Steroids/Malnutrition.
Negative - 0 mm lesion should be recorded

426
Q

Allergy Skin test - with Positive results

A

Skin Prick/Scratch/Intradermic/Patch tests all expose the skin (forearm) to the tested allergen . If - Rash, Urticaria, Anaphylaxis = Positive.

427
Q

Individuals in a population will respond differently to the same dose of a toxin (Age/Sex/Weight…). How can we determine the probability of an outcome in a population, meaning the Acute toxicity of a substance?

A

For a population-level measure the LD50 is used!

428
Q

What are Antitoxins?

A

Antibodies produced by toxin introduction in animals that are able to neutralize the Toxin -Collected and Given as Medical Passive immunity.

429
Q

Diagnostic test using Antitoxins

A

ELEK’s Test - For C. Diphtheriae Diagnosis

430
Q

Passive Immunization - Advantages

A
  • Quick and Life saving

- Independent of the Immune system state

431
Q

Passive Immunization - Disadvantages

A
  • Difficult and Costly to produce
  • Antibody harvesting from Humans or Animals
  • Allergic Reaction occur
  • Given intravenously, more complicated than vaccine.
  • Short lived
432
Q

Serotype

A

a group of closely related microorganisms distinguished by characteristic set of antigens.

433
Q

Latex Agglutination- Examples for Diagnosed Microbes

A

Bacterial Antigens of : S. Agalactiae, S. Pneumoniae, H. Influenzae B, N. Meningitidis.
Primarily from CSF specimens.

434
Q

Bacterial Non-Obligatory Vaccines

A
  • Meningococcal vaccine: B / ACWY (Capsular Serotypes)
  • Typhoid Vaccine: Live Attenuated S.Typhi
  • Cholera Vaccine : Live Attenuated 01 Serotype Toxoid
  • Shigella Vaccine
435
Q

What are the 3 factors that determine the effectiveness of post exposure vaccines (Therapeutic) ?
(Mostly for Viral Pathogens)

A
  • Rate of Replication of the Pathogen
  • Incubation period
  • Pathogenic Mechanism
436
Q

Name 4 Bacteria capable of Antigenic Variation

A
  • Neisseria Meningitidis
  • Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
  • Borrelia Recurrentis
  • Borrelia Hermsii
437
Q

Name two Bacteria causing reactive Arthritis:

A

Campylobacter Jejuni and Chlamydia Trachomatis

438
Q

Blood culture bottles:

Importance

A
  • Bacteriemia increases the mortality rate by 40+%

- Collecting the blood specimens efficiently is essential for diagnosis and treatment

439
Q

Indications for Blood culture ( Try to remember at least 5)

A
  • Bacteremia
  • Septicemia
  • Shock
  • Unexplained fever of several days
  • Chills and fever in patients (Infectious patients)
  • Debilitating patients
  • Following body piercing with signs of infection
440
Q

Collection of Blood Sample:

  • The venipuncture site should be __________ in order to reduce the chance of contaminant microorganisms
  • Blood culture can be obtained either by using a needle and syringe or by the ______ system, consisting of a vacuum bottle and double-needle collection tube.
A

Collection of Blood Sample:

  • The venipuncture site should be desinficiated in order to reduce the chance of contaminant microorganisms
  • Blood culture can be obtained either by using a needle and syringe or by the closed system, consisting of a vacuum bottle and double-needle collection tube.
441
Q

Timing of Blood Sample collection:

  • Before the use of systemic _________ if possible
  • Obtaining the blood culture one-half hour before a temperature ____ is ideal because the highest concentration of organisms are circulating at that time
A

Timing of Blood Sample collection:

  • Before the use of systemic antimicrobials if possible
  • Obtaining the blood culture one-half hour before a temperature spike is ideal because the highest concentration of organisms are circulating at that time
442
Q

Number of Blood Sample collection:

  • _ pair blood cultures (aerobic/anaerobic)
  • In continuous bacteraemia: three blood cultures a day, spacing __ minutes apart
A

Number of Blood Sample collection:

  • 3 pair blood cultures (aerobic/anaerobic)
  • In continuous bacteraemia: three blood cultures a day, spacing 30 minutes apart
443
Q

Volume of Blood Sample collection:

  • __ ml of blood should be drawn from adults during each venipuncture.
  • In infants: _ ml
A

Volume of Blood Sample collection:

  • 20 ml of blood should be drawn from adults during each venipuncture
  • In infants: 2 ml
444
Q

Possible Culture medium of Blood Sample:

A

Culture medium of Blood Sample:

  • Blood culture bottles is multipurpose and nutritionally enriched
  • Commercially available blood culture media
445
Q

Blood Sample Culture:
After inoculating the culture vials on the hospital floor, they are sent to the microbiology lab
clinical pathology department. Here the cultures are entered into a blood culture machine,
which keeps the samples at ____ temperature.

A

Blood Sample collection:
After inoculating the culture vials on the hospital floor, they are sent to the microbiology lab
clinical pathology department. Here the cultures are entered into a blood culture machine,
which keeps the samples at Body temperature.

446
Q

Blood Sample Culture - Negative Results:
by monitoring carbon dioxide levels produced by
bacteria in the vials via fluorescence detected by a ___. Most cultures are monitored for _ days, after which, if the vials are negative, they are removed.

A

Blood Sample Culture - Results:
by monitoring carbon dioxide levels produced by
bacteria in the vials via fluorescence detected by a LED. Most cultures are monitored for 5-days, after which, if the vials are negative, they are removed.

447
Q

Blood Sample Culture - Positive Results:
Microbiologist will perform a ____ Stain on the blood for a rapid, general ID of the bacteria (Initial report), The blood is later also subcultured onto agar plates to isolate which takes up to 3 days time for checking _____ & ______(C&S) process IDs the species of bacteria. Antibiotic _______ are then assessed.

A

Blood Sample Culture - Positive Results:
Microbiologist will perform a Gram Stain on the blood for a rapid, general ID of the bacteria (Initial report), The blood is later also subcultured onto agar plates to isolate which takes up to 3 days time for checking Culture & Sensitivity (C&S) process IDs the species of bacteria. Antibiotic Sensitivities are then assessed.

448
Q

Biofilm and its Significance:

Bacteria are able to adhere to medically important surfaces such as:

A

Biofilm and its Significance:
Bacteria are able to adhere to medically important surfaces such as catheters, either urinary or Intravenous, artificial heart valves and other Implants.

449
Q

Biofilm and its Significance:

__% of all water living bacteria live as biofilms on surfaces.

A

Biofilm and its Significance:

99% of all water living bacteria live as biofilms on surfaces.

450
Q

Biofilm and its Significance: 3 steps of the formation process

A
  • Primary Layer (Slime formation) - electrolytes, proteins etc.
  • Colonization of Bacteria - many bacteria involved including different species.
  • Breaking off of the biofilm - Dissemination to planktonic forms.
451
Q

Biofilm and its Significance: Detection

A

-Electron Microscope on the side of a glass tube

452
Q

Biofilm and its Significance: Reasons for Higher resistance to Antibiotics

A
  • Inhibit the penetration of certain antibiotics - result in higher MIC and MBC.
  • Slower multiplication
  • Allow for more intense gene transfer between bacteria.
453
Q

Biofilm and its Significance: Diseases involving biofilm

A
  • Native Heart valve endocarditis
  • Implantates: Artificial valves, Urinary Catheters, IUDs
  • Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis
  • Cystic Fibrosis Patients
  • Periodontitis and Dental Plaques
454
Q

Common causative agents of Meningitis in neonates

A
  • E. coli
  • S. Agalactiae
  • Listeria Monocyogenes
455
Q

Common causative agent of Meningitis in postnatal period

A
  • Hemophilus Influenza B

- Listeria Monocyogenes

456
Q

Common causative agents of Meningitis in Adults

A
  • Listeria Monocyogenes
  • N. Meningitidis
  • S.Pneumoniae
  • S. Aureus
  • Leptospira Interrogans (Serous - unique)
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (Subacute)
457
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Meningitis: 5 including Brudzinski Sign and Kernig Sign

A
  • Headache, Fever, Nuchal Rigidity
  • Neck flexion may cause flexion of the legs (Brudzinski)
  • Limitations in leg extension when knee flexed (Kernig)
  • Obstruction of Flow of CSF leading to Hydrocephalus
  • Brain Infarcts and Neurological Deficits
458
Q

Acute Meningitis - Diagnosis

A

CSF smear examination:

  • Granulocytes Presence
  • Low Glucose
  • Bacteria Presence
459
Q

Common causative agents of Diarrhea in neonates

A
  • Salmonellosis
  • E.Coli subspecies
  • Campylobacter
  • Yersiniosis
  • Shigellosis
  • H.Pylori
  • C. Difficile; Pseudomembranous Colitis
  • Aeromonas Hydrophila
  • Plesiomonas Shigelloides
460
Q

Diarrhea - Types and their Duration

3 non-solid stools or more per day

A
  • Acute Diarrhea <14 days
  • Persistent diarrhea >14 days
  • Nosocomial Diarrhea: 72 hours after admission
461
Q

Diarrhea -Biochemical Tests:

A
  • Clinically: Bloody/Watery and Onset
  • Selective Culture Media: EMB, Brilliant-green, McConkey
  • Serology Methods using stool as a sample; Toxins/Bacterial Antigens
462
Q

UTI - Important Typical pathogens

A
  • E.Coli (1st most common cause)
  • Streptococcus Saprophyticus (2nd Most common)
  • Proteus Mirabilis (Kidney Staghorn stones)
  • Klebsiella Pneumoniae
  • Enterobacter Cloacae
  • Serratia Marcescens
  • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
463
Q

UTI - Important Atypical pathogens

A
  • Ureaoplasam Urolyticum
  • Chlamydia Trachomatis
  • Mycoplasma Hominis
  • Neisseria Gonorrohoeae
  • Treponema Pallidum ssp
464
Q

Manifestations of UTI:

A
  • Pyuria (>5 WBCs, in microscopy) (Could be Sterile as well)
  • Significant Bacteriuria: >105 CFU/ml
  • Asymptomatic
  • Symptomatic:Acute Urethral Syndrome
465
Q

Methods of Sampling:

A
  • Urine in sterile container
  • Urine taken with catheters
  • Uricult-anaerobic culture for urine sample
  • Puncture of bladder
466
Q

What are the causative agents for these classic STD?

  • Syphilis
  • Gonorrhea
  • Ulcus Molle (Chancroid)
  • Lymphogranuloma Venereum
  • Granuloma Inguinale
A
  • Syphilis → T.Pallidum (spp Pallidum / endemicum)
  • Gonorrhea → N.Gonorrhoeae
  • Ulcus Molle (Chancroid) →H.Ducreyi
  • Lymphogranuloma Venereum →Chlamydia Trachomatis
  • Granuloma Inguinale →Klebsiella Granulomatis
467
Q

What is a predisposing bacterial factor that allows for bacterial vaginosis (STD)?

A

Unbalanced Vaginal Flora - mainly when Lactobacillus spp is missing or diminished and replaced by Facultative/Obligate Anaerobes!

468
Q

What is the normal Anaerobe/Aerobe ratio in the Vagina? and in Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Normal - 5/1

Bacterial Vaginosis - 100/1

469
Q

Symptoms of Bacterial Vaginosis:

A

Symptoms of Bacterial Vaginosis:

  • Increased vaginal discharge that often smells like fish
  • Discharge is White/Gray
  • Burning Sensation in urination may occur
470
Q

How are STD samples collected? (Instrument)

A

Cytobrush

471
Q

Which STD causing bacteria are not diagnosed with Serology? How are they diagnosed, Otherwise?

A
  • N.Gonorrhoeae
  • Chlamydia Trachomatis
  • Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
  • Diagnosis by PCR (Called NAAT in Chlamydia)
472
Q

How are Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma are cultured? (STD)

A

Eaton Agar

473
Q

Syphilis - Screening (Aka Non-Specific):
Antigen Used
Antibody Used

A

Antigen Used - Cardiolipin from catale’s heart

Antibody Used - From damaged cells during early phase, present on cell surface of T.Pallidum

474
Q

Syphilis - Screening (Aka Non-Specific):

Wassermann reaction

A

Complement fixation test:

  • Negative: Lysed Sheep’s RBCs
  • Positive: RBCs remain intact (Ag-Ab interaction fixate Complement)
475
Q

Syphilis - Screening (Aka Non-Specific):

VDRL

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory:

-A drop of Cardiolipin is placed on a slide with a drop of serum for microscopical investigation

476
Q

Diagnosis of Syphilis - Specific Methods for Diagnosis:

TPI

A

T. Pallidum Immobilization test:
Living T.Pallidum = Antigen, Complement of Guinea Pigs.
If in a mixture with IgGs from Serum there is no locomotion because of a Ab-Ag-Complement reaction this is a Positive result.

477
Q

Diagnosis of Syphilis - Specific Methods for Diagnosis:

TPHA

A

T.Pallidum Haemagglutination test: (Flocculation)

-Aggregation of T. Pallidum sensitized (with Ab) RBCs with exposure to patient serum means Positive result.

478
Q

Diagnosis of Syphilis - Specific Methods for Diagnosis:

FTA-ABS

A

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibodies:

  • Antigen = Killed T.Pallidum , Second Antibody = Fluorescein labeled Anti-Human Antibodies, First Antibody from Patient Serum!
  • Positive results: Bright yellow fluorescence upon triple particle Immunocomplex formation.
479
Q

A human first becomes colonized by a normal flora at the moment of:

A

A human first becomes colonized by a normal flora at the moment of birth and passage through the
birth canal.

480
Q

Exposure of an individual to an organism can lead to one of three outcomes:

A
  1. Transient colonization (hours to days)
  2. Permanent colonization
  3. Cause disease
481
Q

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora synthesizes and secretes _______ in excess of their own needs, which can be
absorbed as nutrients by their host. For example, in humans, enteric bacteria secrete _______ and
_________ , and lactic acid bacteria produce certain ________ .

A

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora synthesizes and secretes vitamins in excess of their own needs, which can be
absorbed as nutrients by their host. For example, in humans, enteric bacteria secrete Vitamin K and
Vitamin B12, and lactic acid bacteria produce certain B-vitamins

482
Q

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora prevents colonization of ______ by competing for attachment sites or for
essential nutrients.

A

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora prevents colonization of pathogens by competing for attachment sites or for
essential nutrients.

483
Q

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora may antagonize other bacteria through the production of substances which inhibit
or kill ___-______ _____ .

A

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora may antagonize other bacteria through the production of substances which inhibit
or kill non-indigenous species.

484
Q

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The intestinal bacteria produce a variety of substances ranging from relatively nonspecific fatty acids and peroxides to highly specific bacteriocins, which :

A

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The intestinal bacteria produce a variety of substances ranging from relatively nonspecific fatty acids and peroxides to highly specific bacteriocins, which inhibit or kill other bacteria.

485
Q

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora stimulate the ________ of certain tissues, i.e., the cecum and certain lymphatic tissues (Peyer’s patches) in the GI tract.

A

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
The normal flora stimulate the development of certain tissues, i.e., the cecum and certain lymphatic tissues (Peyer’s patches) in the GI tract.

486
Q

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:

Low levels of antibodies produced against components of the normal flora are known to cross react with:

A

Beneficial effects of Normal Flora:
Low levels of antibodies produced against components of the normal flora are known to cross react with certain related pathogens, and thereby prevent infection or invasion.

487
Q

Examples for Normal flora of the Skin:

A
  • Nares, Face and Hands: Staph. Aureus

- Upper parts of Hair Follicles: Staph. Epidermidis and Propionibacterium spp.

488
Q

Examples for Normal flora of the Respiratory Tract:

A
  • Nares: Staph. Epidermidis, Staph. Aureus(20% of pop)
  • Pharynx: Strep.Pneumoniae, Pyogenes, H.Influenzae, N. Meningitidis.
  • Facial Sinuses and Lower respiratory tract should be sterile in healthy conditions.
489
Q

Examples for Normal flora of the Urogenital Tract:

A
490
Q

Examples for Normal flora of the Oral Cavity:

A

-Lactobacilli, Bacteroides, Spirochetes , Streptococcus Salivarius (First kind in neonates), Viridans Group (After teeth erupt)

491
Q

Examples for Normal flora of the Gastrointestinal tract:

A
  • Esophagus: Lactobacillus.
  • Proximal Small Intestine: Lactobacilli, Bacteroides and Enterococcus Faecalis
  • Distal Small Intestine: Lactobacilli, Enterococcus Faecalis with E.Coli
  • Colon: More and More Coliforms, Bacteroides and Lactobacilli
492
Q

Examples for Normal flora of the Gastrointestinal tract in Infants:

A
  • Bifidobacteria is prominent in Breast Fed

- Bacteroides, Enterococci are prominent in Bottle fed

493
Q

Transient Bacteremia

A

Self Limited, due to multiplication of infected tissue (Abscess)/Trauma to Mucosal Surface/Localized infection

494
Q

Intermittent Bacteremia

A

Microorganisms from an infected site are spasmodically released into the blood. may be from extravascular abscess, empyemic cavities or diffuse infections.

495
Q

Continuous Bacteremia

A

Severe, Overwhelms the host defences. Intravascular site of infection: Endocarditis/ Catheters/ AV fistulas/ Long-term Cannulae.

496
Q

Sepsis

A

Excessive Inflammation caused by a combination of factors related to the particular blood invading pathogen and the status of the immune system. May lead to Shock and Multi-organ failure.

497
Q

SIRS (Systemic inflammatory response syndrome) - diagnosed by two or more of signs,
due to pancreatitis, burns, trauma, other. What are the signs? (Try to remember 3)

A

Ø Temperature > 38° or < 36°
Ø Tachycardia > 90 BPM
Ø Respiratory rate > 20 breaths / min or PaCO2 < 4.3 kPa
Ø WBC count > 12 * 109 or < 4 * 109 or > 10% immature forms

498
Q

Steps of Sepsis: by severity

A

1) SIRS - According to Parameters
2) Sepsis - SIRS with a suspected/Confirmed infection
3) Severe Sepsis - Hypotension, Signs of End Organ Failure and Elevated Lactic Acid in Blood.
4) Septic Shock - Persistent symptoms of Severe Sepsis

499
Q

Nosocomial infection - Definition

A

Hospital-acquired infections (vs. community-acquired). Includes any infections acquired in the hospital
during 48 hr from Staff or Equipment.

500
Q

Cause of Nosocomial infections:

A

When health care workers do not practice proper hygiene. Medical procedures that bypass the body’s natural protective barriers increase the risk of
nosocomial infections

501
Q

What is the most common route of nosocomial infections?

A

Direct contact

502
Q

Common Microbes responsible for Nosocomial Infections: (Remember at least 5)

A
  • Ventilator-associated/Hospital-acquired pneumonia
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • MRSA
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Acinetobacter baumannii
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Urinary tract infections
  • KES
  • Enterococci
503
Q

Iatrogenic infections - Definition

A

Infections transmitted during medical treatment and care. Any effect on a person, due to the effect of
healthcare professionals, that does not support a goal of the person affected.

504
Q

Iatrogenic infections - Causes

A
  • Side effects of possible drug interactions, overuse of drugs, adverse effects of drugs
  • Complications following a surgical procedure
  • Medical error, including wrong prescriptions / ineligible writing
  • Negligence

S.N Microbiology (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions