Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

mycoplasma vs mycobacteria

A

plasma: sterol. bacateria: mycolic acid

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2
Q

keratin coat

A

spore

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3
Q

glycocalyx

A

polysaccharide which enables adherene to surfaces

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4
Q

where in the cell are beta-lactamases?

A

periplasm (between cyto and outer membrane) in gram negative

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5
Q

Endotoxin/LPS location

A

just under capsule in gram negative

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6
Q

which has thick peptidoglycon layer?

A

gram-positive

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7
Q

lipoteichoic acid

A

gram positive

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8
Q

bugs that don’t gram stain

A

These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color:

Treponema, Rickettsia, Mycobacteria, Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia

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9
Q

Giemsa stained

A

Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience:

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsiae, Trypanosomes, Plasmodium

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10
Q

PAS stain (periodic acid-schiff)

A

stains glycogen to diagnose Whipples (Tropheryma whipplei)

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11
Q

Acid fast bugs

A

Nocardia, Mycobacterium

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12
Q

India Ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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13
Q

Silver stain

A

Fugni (P jeruvici), Legionella, H pylori

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14
Q

chocolate agar

A

H influ

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15
Q

VPN media (vanco, polymyxin, nystatin)

A

nesseria (gonorrhoeae and meningitidis)

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16
Q

Potato agar

A

B. pertussis

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17
Q

Eaton agar

A

M pneumoniae

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18
Q

Pink colonies on MacConkeys agar

A

lactose-fermenting enterics (E. coli and Klebsiella)

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19
Q

Green metallic sheen colonies on EMB media

A

E. coli

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20
Q

Charcoal yeast estract agar

A

legionella

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21
Q

Sabouraud’s agar

A

Fungi

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22
Q

burn infxn

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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23
Q

obligate aerobes

A

Nagging Pests Must Breath: Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Mycobacteria tub, Bacillus

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24
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

Can’t Breath Air: Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces

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25
Q

________ cannot kill anaerobes

A

aminoglycosides

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26
Q

obligate intracellular

A

RC: Rickettsia, Chlamydia

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27
Q

facultative intracellular

A

Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY: Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia pestis

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28
Q

The spleen clears which bacteria

A

encapsulated ones

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29
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A

SHiNE SKiS: Strep pneumo, H influ, Nesseria men, E coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella pneum, group B Strep (agalactiae)

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30
Q

vaccines for encapsulated bacteria

A

capsule (polysaccaride) + protein. to promote t-cell activation and class switching. these are “conjugated’

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31
Q

quellung rxn

A

encapsulated bacteria swell when given correct antisera

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32
Q

Catalase-positive organisms

A

PLACESS for your CAT: Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candida, E coli, S. aureus, Serratia

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33
Q

catalase positive organisms tend to infect people with

A

chronic granulomatous disease

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34
Q

urease-positive bugs

A

Urinate yourself, CHuck norris hates PUNKSS: Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermidis, S saprophyticus

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35
Q

yellow sulfur granules

A

actinomyces israelii

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36
Q

yellow/gold piment

A

staph aureus

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37
Q

blue-green pigment

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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38
Q

red pigment

A

serratia marcescens

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39
Q

S aureus protein A

A

binds Fc of Ig to prevent

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40
Q

secretion of IgA protease

A

S. pneumo, H. influ, Neisseria

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41
Q

group A strep M protein

A

prevents phagocytosis

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42
Q

Endotoxin bacteria type and other name

A

gram neg. LPS

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43
Q

what are exotoxins made from vs endotoxin

A

Exo: protein Endo: lipopolysaccharide

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44
Q

genes of exo vs endo toxin

A

exo: plasmids or phage. Endo: chromosomal

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45
Q

LPS effects

A

induces TNF and IL-1 causing fever and shock. Heat stable too

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46
Q

Diphtheria toxin mech

A

inactivate EF2

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47
Q

Exotoxin A (pseudomonas aeruginosa) mechanism

A

inactivation of EF2

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48
Q

Shiga toxin mechanism

A

inactivate 60S by removing adenine from rRNA

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49
Q

shiga-like toxin mechanism

A

same as shiga toxin: inactivate 60S ribosome

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50
Q

O157:H7 is

A

EHEC strain

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51
Q

LT (Heat-labile) toxin from ETEC mechanism

A

activate adenylate cyclase (secretion)

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52
Q

ST (heat stabile) toxin from ETEC mechanism

A

overactivate guanylate cyclase (high cGMP). decrease NaCl resorption

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53
Q

anthrax edema factor mechanism

A

mimic adenylate cyclase

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54
Q

cholera toxin mechanism

A

activates adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP

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55
Q

pertussis toxin mechanism

A

overactivates adenylate cyclase by inhibiting Gi and impares pagocytosis

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56
Q

tetanospasmin mechanism

A

tetanus toxin: cleave SNARE protein to prevent GABA hence no inhibition and muscles spasm

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57
Q

botulinum toxin mechanism

A

Cleave SNARE for prevention of ACh release (stimulatory)

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58
Q

alpha toxin (clostridum perfinges) mechanism

A

phospholipase that degrades tissue and cell membranes

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59
Q

Streptolysin O (strep pyogenes) mechanism

A

degrades cell membrane

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60
Q

Toxic shock syndromes toxin (TSST-1) -S. aureus: mechanism

A

super antigen: brings MHC II and and TCR together causing hella INF-gama and IL-2

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61
Q

Exotoxin A (strep pyogenes) mech

A

super antigen: brings MHC II and and TCR together causing hella INF-gama and IL-2

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62
Q

Endotoxin effects

A

ENDOTOXIN: Edema, Nitric oxide, DIC/Death, Outermembrane, TNF-alpha, O-antigen, Xtremely heath stable, IL-1, Neutrophil chemotaxis

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63
Q

catalase + and coagulase + gram +

A

S. aureus

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64
Q

gram +, catalase +, coagulase -

A

Staph epideridis (novobiocin sen), staph saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant)

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65
Q

gram +, catalase -

A

Strep

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66
Q

how does S auerus make an abscess?

A

it has coagulase which lets it make a protective clot around itself

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67
Q

gram + cocci clusters

A

staph

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68
Q

gram + cocci chains

A

strep

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69
Q

staph aureus toxins

A

Protein A (binds Fc of IgG) and TSST-1 (super antigen) and enterotoxin causing rapid food posioning (MAYO)

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70
Q

why is MRSA so bad?

A

beta-lactam resistant do to altered penicillin-binding protein

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71
Q

Staph epidermidis

A

normal skin flora, infects prosthetics and catheters by producting biofilms. contaminates blood cultures

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72
Q

lancet-shaped gram-positive diplococci

A

strep pneumo

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73
Q

strep pneumo causes what most commonly

A

1 cause of MOPS: Meningitis, Otitis media (children), Pneumonia, Sinusitis

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74
Q

rusty sputum

A

strep pneumo

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75
Q

sepsis in sickle cell/splenectomy

A

strep pneumo

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76
Q

special about strep pneumo capsule (2 thangs)

A

contains IgA protease, and no virulence w/o capsule

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77
Q

optochin sensitive

A

strep pneumo

78
Q

endocarditis to damaged valves

A

strep sangis (virdians)

79
Q

dental carries bacteria

A

strep mutans (vidirians group)

80
Q

ASO titer tests for?

A

recent strep pyogenes infxn

81
Q

what is group A strep?

A

strep pyogenes

82
Q

three classes of effects of strep pyogenes

A

(Group A strep)

  • Pyogenic: pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo
  • Toxigenic: scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis
  • Immunologic- rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis
83
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

JONES: Joints,

84
Q

Scarlet fever

A

Group A strep. Scarlet rash sparing face, strawberry/scarlet tongue, scarlet throat

85
Q

Group B strep name and distinguishing feature

A

strep agalatiae, B is for BABIES

86
Q

group b strep pregnancy prophylaxis

A

penicillin

87
Q

what is group D strep?

A

enterococci

88
Q

resistance and growth conditions of group D strep

A

ALL are penicillin G resist, some are vancomycin resistant. grow in 6.5% NaCl and bile

89
Q

most famous group D strep member

A

strep bovis

90
Q

group d/ bovis in the blood means

A

colon cancer

91
Q

typical group d strep infxns

A

UTI, biliary tract infxn, endocarditis

92
Q

black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

93
Q

what is diptheriae toxin encoded by?

A

beta-prophage

94
Q

pseudomembranous pharyngitis (gray-white membrane)

A

diptheriae (exotoxin induced)

95
Q

gram-positive club shapped rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules

A

diphtheriae

96
Q

core of spores

A

dipicolinic acid

97
Q

spore forming bacteria

A

bacillus anthracis, clostridium perfings, c. tetani, b. cereus, c. botulinum, coxiella burnetti

98
Q

clostridum tetani

A

makes tetenospasmin which blocks GABA release from Renshaw cells in spinal chord

99
Q

clostridium botulinum

A

spores typically found in honey and canned food. adults get it via exotoxin ingestion. blocks ACh release

100
Q

clostridium perfingens

A

produces “alpha toxin” which is a lecithinase and causes myonecrosis (gas gangrene)

101
Q

C. diff

A

produces two toxins. A: binds brush boarder. B: destroys cytoskeletal structure of enterocytes and causes the psuedomembranous colitis

102
Q

diarrhea after prolonged ampicillin or clindamycin use

A

C. diff

103
Q

how to treat c diff

A

metronidazole or oral vancomycin

104
Q

only bacteria with a polypeptide capsule

A

anthrax

105
Q

black eschar (painless) surrounded by edematous ring

A

cutaneous anthrax . caused by edema factor and lethal factor

106
Q

pulmonary anthrax

A

inhalation of spores (classically from wool) causing rapidly progressive flu with pulm hemorrhage

107
Q

bacillus cereus

A

from reheated rice. toxin- cereulide

108
Q

listeria sources

A

milk, cheese, deli meat, vagina

109
Q

amniotic granulomatosis or meningitis in fetus

A

listeria

110
Q

listeria treatment

A

ampicillin

111
Q

two bacteria types that have branching structure like fungi

A

actinomyces and nocardia

112
Q

actinomyces normal location and treatment

A

normal oral flora. penicillin

113
Q

nocardia normal location, presentation, and treatment

A

soil, pulm infxn and cutaenous infxn. treat with sulfonamides

114
Q

mycobacteria chord factor

A

inhibits macrophage maturation and causes TNF-a release

115
Q

mycobacteria surface sulfatides

A

inhibits phagolysosomal fusion

116
Q

staining and distinctive feature about Leprosy

A

it is acid-fast (mycobacteria) and likes cool temperatures

117
Q

leprosy reservoir in the US

A

armadillos

118
Q

lepromatous vs tuberculoid leprosy

A

lepromatous is letal and wide spread and Th2

tuberculoid is localized and has a Th1 response

119
Q

leprosy treatment

A

dapsone and rifampin for 6 months (tuberculoid) or that plus clofazimine for 2+ years for lepromatous form

120
Q

loss of eyebrows, nasal collapse, lumpy earlobe

A

leprosy face

121
Q

gram - diplococci

A

Neisseria men and gon

122
Q

gram - coccoid rods

A

H flu, Bordetella pertussis

123
Q

gram - oxidase + comma shaped

A

cholera and campylobacter jejuni

124
Q

gram - rods

A

klebsiella, E. coli, serratia, shigella, salmonella, proteus, pseudomonas, h pylori

125
Q

Neisseria meningococci prophylaxis

A

vaccine, rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone

126
Q

which neisseria ferments maltose?

A

meningococci (both ferment glucose)

127
Q

treatment for Neisseria gonococci

A

ceftriaxone + azithromycin for chlamydia coinfxn

128
Q

treatment for neisseria meningococci

A

ceftriaxone or penicillin G

129
Q

H flu causes?

A

eMOPS (kinda like MOP for strep pneumo): Epiglottitis (cherry red tongue), Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia

130
Q

H flu growth conditions

A

chocolate agar, needs factor V and X

131
Q

H flu treamtent

A

ceftriaxone and rifampin for prophalax (vaccine available)

132
Q

Legionella causes what and from what?

A

pneumonia, fever, GI, CNS symptoms. from Aerosol transmission for water source (not person to person)

133
Q

Legionella growth conditions and stain

A

gram - but weak, so silver stain it. grows on charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine

134
Q

legionella treatment

A

macrolide or quinolone

135
Q

burn wound infxn

A

pseudomonas

136
Q

pneumonia in cystic fibrosis

A

pseudomonas

137
Q

black lesions on skin

A

anthrax or pseudomonas

138
Q

hot tub folliculitis

A

pseudomonas

139
Q

drug use/diabetic osteomyelitis

A

pseudomonas

140
Q

pseudomonas toxins

A

endotoxin (fever/shock), exotoxin A (EF2 inhib), blue-green pigment that smells like grapes (cool)

141
Q

pseudomonas treatment

A

aminoglycoside plus extended spectrum penicillin

142
Q

E. coli virulence factors

A

fimbriae- cystitis and pyelonephritis
k capsule - penumonia, neonatal meningitis
LPS - septic shock

143
Q

red currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

144
Q

klebsiella gram stain and consequence

A

gram -. 4A’s : Aspiration Pneumonia, Abscess in lungs/liver, Alcoholics, diAbetics

145
Q

salmonella motility, spread, reservoirs, symptoms

A

flagella allow for heme spread, multiple animals carry, produce bloody diarrhea with smelly farts, monocytic response

146
Q

shigella motility, spread, reservoirs, symptoms, immune reponse

A

no flagella so must spread cell by cell, humans are only reservoir, bloody diarrhea but not smell farts (no HS), PMN response

147
Q

extreme diarrhea, headache, fever, rose spots on abdomen

A

typhoid fever (salmonella typhi)

148
Q

latantcy of typoid fever

A

can remain in gallbladder as a carrier state

149
Q

comma shaped/s shaped oxidase positive gram - that grows at 42C

A

campylobacter jejuni

150
Q

what does campylobacter jejuni cause?

A

bloody diarrhea in kids, and major cause of Guillan-Barre syndrome and reactive arthritis

151
Q

campylobacter jejuni sources

A

poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk

152
Q

rice water diarrhea, endemic

A

vibrio cholerae

153
Q

comma shaped, oxidase positive gram - that grows in alkaline media

A

cholera

154
Q

how does cholera happen what do you do?

A

toxin activates Gs to increase cAMP. oral rehydration (gatorade)

155
Q

90% of duodenal ulcers

A

h pylori (also almost all gastric ulcers)

156
Q

curved gram negative rod urease positive

A

h pylori

157
Q

h pylori treatment

A

proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, amoxicillin/metronidazole

158
Q

flu, jaundice, photophobia, conjunctivitis in surfer

A

Leptospira interrrogans (found in animal urine contaminated water)

159
Q

transmited by Ixodes

A

borrelia burgdorferi (lymes) and Babesia

160
Q

Lyme disease natural history

A

stage 1: expanding bulls eye rash, flu
stage 2: neurological (facial nerve palsy) and cardiac (AV block)
stage 3: musculoskeletal (polyarthritis), encepthalopathy, and cutaneous sxm

161
Q

Lyme disease treatment

A

doxycycline, ceftriaxone

162
Q

what causes syphilis and how do you treat?

A

treponema pallidum. Penicillin G

163
Q

primary syphilis

A

localized disease. painless chancre. screen with VDRL then confirm with FTA-ABS

164
Q

secondary syphilis

A

disseminated disease. maculopapular rash (palms/soles), condylomata lata.

165
Q

how to visualize syphilis

A

dark field microscopy

166
Q

tertiary syphilis

A

chronic granulomas, aortitis, neurosyphilis(tabes dorsalis), Argyll Robertson pupil, broad-based ataxia, romberg positive, charcot join, stroke. test spinal fluid for VDRL

167
Q

argyll robertson pupil

A

accomidates but not light reactive (prostitutes hate light)

168
Q

saber shins, saddle nose, deafness, hutchinsons teeth, mulberry molars

A

Congential syphilis (must treat cause it transmits in 1st trimester)

169
Q

VDRL test for and false positive

A

tests for nonspecific antibodies (beef cardiolipin). used for syphilis screen. false pos VDRL: Viruses (mono,hep), Drugs, Rheumatic fever, Lupus/Leprosy

170
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimers reaction

A

following antibiotic use, dead bacteria release pyrogens causing fever

171
Q

fishy pussy with gray discharge

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

172
Q

clue cells

A

vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria (gardenlla vaginalis)

173
Q

gardnerella vaginalis treatment

A

metronidazole

174
Q

rash on your palms and soles

A

use your palms and soles to drive CARS: Coxsackievirus A, Rocky Mountain fever (rickettsia), Syphilis

175
Q

treatment for all Rickettsial infxns

A

doxycycline

176
Q

rickettia rickettsii vs typus

A

(R)ickettsii starts on wRists and palms

Typus on Trunk

177
Q

what can’t chlamydiae make?

A

ATP (obligate intracellular)

178
Q

what does chlamydiae cell wall lack?

A

muramic acid

179
Q

two forms of chlamydiae?

A
  • Elementary body (small dense) enfect cells via endocytosis

- Reticulate body replicates by fission

180
Q

chlamydia causes

A

reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritits, and PID

181
Q

walk pneumonia

A

mycoplasma pneumonae

182
Q

walking pneumonia treatmetn

A

macrolide or fluoroquinolone

183
Q

cat scratch

A

bartonella

184
Q

louse

A

borrelia recurrentis (recurrent fever)

185
Q

unpasteurized dairy

A

brucella

186
Q

puppies, livestock, undercooked meat

A

campylobacter

187
Q

parrots

A

chlamydophila psittaci

188
Q

aerososls of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

A

coxiella

189
Q

lone star tick

A

ehrlichia chaffeensis

190
Q

deer fly, ticks, rabbits

A

francisella