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SAM > Anaesthesiology questions 1 > Flashcards

Anaesthesiology questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Premedication:
A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
B. Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia
C. Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia
D. Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia

A

A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia

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2
Q 
Calming
A. Analgesia 
B. Anxiolysis
C. Sedation 
D. Anesthesia
A

C. Sedation

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3
Q 
Reduction of Fear
A. Analgesia 
B. Anxiolysis 
C. Sedation 
D. Anesthesia
A

B. Anxiolysis

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4
Q 
Pain Relief
A. Analgesia 
B. Anxiolysis 
C. Sedation 
D. Catalepsy
A

A. Analgesia

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5
Q 
Catalepsy can be caused by:
A. Ketamine 
B. Propofol 
C. Fentanyl 
D. Xylazine
A

A. Ketamine

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6
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the false answer
A. Superficial sleeping
B. Analgesia
C. Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

A

D. Caused by benzodiazepine and opioid combination

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7
Q 
Anesthesia types. Pick the false answer
A. Local
B. Regional 
C. Subtotal 
D. General
A

C. Subtotal

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8
Q 
General anaesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer
A. Inhalational
B. Hypnosis
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle relaxation
A

A. Inhalational

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9
Q

Balanced anesthesia. Pick the false answer:
A. Achievable with a single monoanesthetic drug
B. Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics
C. Pain may be controlled by analgesics
D. Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

A

A. Achievable with a single monoanesthetic drug

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10
Q

Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the false answer
A. Thalamocortical dissociation B. Limbic depression
C. Peripheral analgesia
D. Alteration of consciousness

A

B. Limbic depression

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11
Q 
Phenothiazines may cause life-threatening hypotension in
A. Dobermanns
B. Boxers
C. Staffordshire terrieres 
D. Greyhounds
A

B. Boxers

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12
Q 
Brachycephalic breeds need.... pick the false answer
A. Preoxigenation 
B. Short induction 
C. Fast intubation 
D. Early extubation
A

D. Early extubation

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13
Q 
MDR1 gene defect is detected in... pick the false answer
A. Australian shepherd 
B. English shepherd 
C. German shepherd 
D. Pug
A

D. Pug

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14
Q 
Preanaesthetic circulatory exam. Pick the false answer
A. Mucous membranes
B. Capillary refilltime
C. Spleen size
D. Pulse frequency and quality
A

C. Spleen size

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15
Q 
Preanaesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer 
A. Auscultation
B. Electrocardiography 
C. Ultrasonography
D. Hearth muscle biopsy
A

D. Hearth muscle biopsy

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16
Q 
Preanaesthetic minimal laboratory exam. Pick the false answer
A. Parasitological examination of feces
B. White blood cell count and hematocrit
C. Totalplasmaprotein
D. Urea, Crea and ALT
A

A. Parasitological examination of feces

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17
Q 
ASA 1. Pick the false answer
A. Healthy state
B. Symptom-freestate 
C. Low anesthesia risk 
D. Age: 0 days to 8 years
A

D. Age: 0 days to 8 years

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18
Q 
ASA 2 Pick the false answer
A. Mild systemic disease
B. No apparent functional disorders
C. High anesthesia risk
D. Age: 6 weeks to 5 years
A

C. High anesthesia risk

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19
Q

ASA 3 Pick the false answer
A. Severe systemic disease
B. Visible functional impairment C. Age:6weeks to 5years
D. Not life-threatening status

A

C. Age:6weeks to 5years

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20
Q 
ASA 4. Pick the false answer
A. Severe systemic disease
B. Constant threat to life
C. Age: 0 to 3 days or over 10 years
D. Age: 6 to16 years
A

D. Age: 6 to16 years

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21
Q

CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer
A. I: immediate, life-saving intervention
B. II:urgent intervention
C. III: planned for near future
D. IV: no time for classification

A

D. IV: no time for classification

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22
Q

Preanasthetic fasting. Pick the false answer
A. Usually 6 hours
B. Less than 6 hours in very young patients
C. More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients

A

B. Less than 6 hours in very young patients

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23
Q 
Advantages of premedication. Pick the false answer
A. Decreases stress, fear and aggression
B. Lowers anesthetic demand
C. Decreases drug expenditure and costs
D. Increases the excitation phase
A

D. Increases the excitation phase

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24
Q 
Steps of general anaesthesia. Pick the false answer
A. Premedication
B. Induction
C. Stadium analgesiae 
D. Recovery
A

C. Stadium analgesiae

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25
Q

Effects of premedication. Pick the false answer
A. Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
B. Increases O2-demand
C. Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs
D. Eliminates excitation stage

A

B. Increases O2-demand

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26
Q 
Reasons of vein cannulation. Pick the false answer
A. Drug administration
B. Fluid therapy
C. Emergency access
D. Monitoring core temperature
A

D. Monitoring core temperature

27
Q

Preferred drugs for Induction, pick the false answer
A. Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects
B. Rapid onset of action
C. Long duration
D. Short duration or counteractable

A

C. Long duration

28
Q 
Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer
A. Intramuscular 
B. Intravenous 
C. Inhalational 
D. Epidural
A

D. Epidural

29
Q 
Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the false answer
A. Control the depth of anesthesia 
B. Patient monitoring
C. Reduce surgical time
D. Maintain homeostasis
A

C. Reduce surgical time

30
Q

Stages of narcosis.Pick the false answer
A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase
B.Stadium excitationis=excitatory phase
C. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

A

D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

31
Q 
Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer
A. Unconsciousness
B. Lack of perception
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle rigidity
A

D. Muscle rigidity

32
Q

Atropine is used for… pick the false answer
A. Bradycardia caused by opioids
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (high BP)
C. AV- and SA-blocks
D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm

A

B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (high BP)

33
Q 
ACP effects.. pick the false answer
A. Calming
B. Vasodilation
C. Depression of thermoregulation 
D. Emetic
A

D. Emetic

34
Q 
ACP effects.. pick the false answer
E. DecreasesBP
F. Antihistaminic
G. Depression of platelet function 
H. Analgesic
A

H. Analgesic

35
Q

Diazepam and Midazolam, pick the false answer
A. For old animals with poor general condition
B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole
C. Decrease anxiety, relax muscles
D. High dose causes respiratory depression

A

B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole

36
Q 
Alphaq agonists. Pick the false answer
A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone
B. Detomidine
C. Medetomidine and dexmedetomidine
D. Xylazine
A

A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone

37
Q 
Alpha2 agonists.. pick the false answer
A. Sedative
B. Analgesic
C. Emetic
D. Not antagonisable
A

D. Not antagonisable

38
Q

Medetomidine, xylazine. Pick the false answer
A. Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance can not be separated
B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil
C. Not recommended for old and cardiac and diabetic patients
D. Cause circulatory and respiratory depression

A

B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil

39
Q 
Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer
A. Morphine and fentanyl
B. Buprenorphine and butorphanol
C. Tramadol and thiopental
D. Naloxone (as antagonist)
A

C. Tramadol and thiopental

40
Q 
Opioid receptors. Pick the false answer
A. 􏰛 (mu)
B. 􏰜(kappa)
C. o (omicron)
D. 􏰉 (delta)
A

C. o (omicron)

41
Q 
Fentanyl. Pick the false answer
A. Full agonist opioid drug
B. 15-30 minutes duration of effect
C. Do not combine with propofol
D. May be redosed
A

C. Do not combine with propofol

42
Q 
Morphine. Pick the false answer
A. Full agonist opioid drug
B. 4-6 hours duration of effect
C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients
D. May be redosed
A

C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients

43
Q

Opioids. Pick the false answer
A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
B. Major analgesics
C. Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression
D. Can be antagonized by naloxone

A

A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

44
Q 
Full opioid agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine 
C. Butorphanol 
D. Tramadol
A

A. Morphine

45
Q 
Full opiod agonist
E. Naloxon
F. Buprenorphine 
G. Butorphanol 
H. Fentanyl
A

H. Fentanyl

46
Q 
Short duration of action
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine 
C. Fentanyl
D. Fentanyl patch
A

C. Fentanyl

47
Q 
Partial mu agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine 
C. Butorphanol 
D. Fentanyl
A

B. Buprenorphine

48
Q 
Partial mu antagonist and kappa agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine 
C. Butorphanol 
D. Fentanyl
A

C. Butorphanol

49
Q 
Weak alpha agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine 
C. Butorphanol 
D. Tramadol
A

D. Tramadol

50
Q

Propofol. Pick the false answer
A. Can be used in almost all patient groups
B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
C. Short duration of action, can be redosed
D. High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

A

B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic

51
Q

Application of propofol. Pick the false answer
A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
B. Slowly
C. IV
D. To effect

A

A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants

52
Q

Ketamine.. pick the false answer
A. Moderate analgesic effect
B. Benzodiazepines can help avoid catalepsy
C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
D. Eyes remain open, thus the cornea may desiccate

A

C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

53
Q 
Safe inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Ether
B. Isoflurane 
C. Sevoflurane 
D. Desflurane
A

A. Ether

54
Q

Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. 1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases
B. 2 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 100% of cases
C. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
D. Short induction and recovery

A

C. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect

55
Q 
Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Hypnotic
B. Muscle relaxant
C. No analgesic effect 
D. Sedative
A

D. Sedative

56
Q

Local anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Block nerve cells
B. Local anesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal
C. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
D. Possible side-effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity

A

C. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics

57
Q 
LA side-effects. Pick the false answer
A. Cardiovascular
B. CNS
C. Cell toxicity
D. Respiratory
A

D. Respiratory

58
Q

Pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium
A. Central muscle relaxants
B. Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants
C. Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants
D. Local anesthetics

A

B. Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants

59
Q

Pain, pick the false answer
A. Complex, multidimensional negative experience
B. There is no linear correlation between degree of pathological changes and intensity of pain
C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
D. Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up

A

C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

60
Q

Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer
A. Function: physiological or pathological
B. Origin: organic or psychogenic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
D. Duration: acute or chronic

A

C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

61
Q

Pathological pain. Pick the false answer
A. Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
B. Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
C. Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers

A

D. Never combine pain-killers

62
Q

Ascending pathways of nociception
A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception
D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception

A

B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception

63
Q

Modern concepts of pain management. Pick the false answer
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
B. Preemptive(prophylactic) analgesia
C. Multimodal (multipleapproach) analgesia
D. No gap should appear!

A

A. Young animals do not need analgesics

64
Q 
Intraoperative analegesic effect. Pick the false answer
A. Ketamine CRI
B. Lidocaine+fentanyl CRI
C. Local anesthetics + opioids
D. Inhalants alone
A

D. Inhalants alone

SAM (16 decks)

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