Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A320 EZY command prep > All Weather Operations > Flashcards

All Weather Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What constitutes a “contaminated runway”?

A

Over more that 25% of any runway third:
Fluid that isn’t “thin”; OR
Any hard contaminant.

21/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is “wet ice” a hard contaminant or a fluid contaminant?

A

Hard

21/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What take off performance should be selected if a runway is contaminated?

A

TOGA only.
Thrust reversers may be used (as opposed to for a dry runway, where thrust reversers credit is not applied. Note that the EFB performance will state “all reversers inoperative” for dry runway performance, but “all reversers operating” for anything that’s not “dry”).

24/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You see a SNOWTAM for a Greek Island in summer. Is this normal?

A

Yes.
The SNOWTAM format contains the RCR (Runway Condition Report). The RCR states the RWYCC derived from the RCAM.
So a thunderstorm dumping loads of hail and rain onto a runway should result in a SNOWTAM being issued, and the RWYCC being added to the ATIS.

21/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you find out what RWY COND to select for calculating take off performance?

A

Consult the RCAM.

21/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can the FO be PF for a contaminated runway take off?

A

No.

21/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What depth of standing water may you not attempt take off in?

A

13mm (½”)

21/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What depth of wet snow may you not attempt take off in?

A

30mm

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What depth of dry snow may you not attempt take off in?

A

100mm

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where can you find the holdover times?

A

Cold Weather Quick Reference

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a crosswind exceeds 20kt, what are the considerations for take off?

A

Rolling take off is recommended. Use tailwind take off technique.
First Officer may not be PF (unless 25kt limit applies to that FO).

OMB amendment of late 2024 says that SFOs who have completed the FY25 EBT module 1 are limited to 25kt crosswind.

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the minimum width for snow clearance on a runway?

A

30m

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Taxiing OUT in wintery conditions: can you do a OETD?

A

OETD is not permitted if the taxiways are slippery or contaminated, or if LVPs are in force.

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Taxiing IN in wintery conditions: can you do a OETA/SETWA?

A

If LVPs are in force, SETWA is not approved, but OETA is (in other words, you can do a single engine taxi but only with the APU).
Taxiways still need to be not contaminated.

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What contamination is allowed on the aircraft?

A

FFURC - Frost on Fuselage, Underside, Cowls:
- Fuselage: thin hoar frost on the upper surface (providing ports and vents are clear)
- Underside: A light coating of frost up to 3mm thick on the underside of the wing, where the fuel is cold-soaked
- Radome
- Cowls

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the “clean wing” policy

A

Winter Operations Manual states, “totally clean or cleaned with deicing/anti-icing fluids that still protect the surface…”

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes the red AUTOLAND light to illuminate?

A

RFLAG

Radio altimeters
Flare
Localiser
Autopilot
Glideslope

The red AUTOLAND light is armed below 200ft.

further information:
- Radio altimeters differ by >15ft
- Flare is long or untimely
- Localiser: deviation or loss of signal down above 15ft
- Autopilot loss
- Glideslope: deviation or loss of signal above 100ft

04/11/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain minimum RVRs for take off.

A

The absolute lowest minimum is 125m reported RVR. This is subject to a 90m visual segment being available from the cockpit at the start of the take off run.
This is subject to runway edge and centreline lighting being available (runway centreline lighting must be spaced at 15m or less, edge lights at 60m or less).
This RVR value must be achieved by all relevant RVRs.
LIDO must also be consulted to see if minimum publised RVR for take off is higher.

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If LVPs are not in force, what minima are required for take off?

A

400m, providing:
Day: runway edge lights and centreline markings;
Night: runway edge lights or centreline lights AND end lights.

25/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between FALS, IALS, BALS and NALS?

A

Remember: 720, 420, 210

  • Full Approach Light System (>720m)
  • Intermediate Approach Light System (420-719m)
  • Basic Approach Light System (210-420m)
  • No Approach Light System (<210m)

24/09/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should you perform the ice shedding procedure?

A

During ground operations when OAT less than 3°C, and operating in icing conditions for more than 30 minutes.
OR if significant engine vibration occurs.

25/09/24

22
Q

For ice shedding purposes, how is ground operations time considered?

A

The taxi in time from the previous sector is added to the taxi out time of the current sector. When this totals 30 mins, the ice shedding procedure must be carried out.

25/09/24

23
Q

How do you conduct the ice shedding procedure?

A
  • Set parking brake ON or apply pressure to brake pedals
  • CEO: Every 30 mins and just before take off, set 70% N1 for 30 secs
  • NEO: Every 60 mins, and just before take off, set 50% N1 for 5 secs.

It’s good practice to inform ATC if you think there will be a delay before take off.

25/09/24

24
Q

What are the minimum altitude and distances to remain from a CB or TS?

A

Enroute: 20nm from any thunderstorm considered severe.
When taking off or landing, 3nm.

25/09/24

25
Q

Where is the RCAM?

A

Operational Quick Access

25/09/24

26
Q

Where is the “Maximum recommended crosswind on wet and contaminated runways” matrix found?

A

RCAM.
EFB will also highlight if crosswind is out of limits for the runway state.

25/09/24

27
Q

When should the ENG MODE SEL be selected to IGN?

A

For take off, if there is standing water on the runway.
In flight, if flying through heavy rain or if severe turbulence is expected after take off.

25/09/24

28
Q

Describe how you would manage the threat of taxying in low visibility.

A

CLEAR:
- Checks when stationary only
- Lights: use all available
- Engines (OETD prohibited)
- ATC: inform if uncertain of position
- Route thoroughly briefed.

25/09/24

29
Q

Describe a Cat II/III holding position marking.

A

25/09/24

30
Q

What is the FO handling limit for RVR for take off?

A

550m

25/09/24

31
Q

If OEI, what are the limits on autolanding capability, and do you have a choice between flap 3 and flap full?

A

OEI gives a limitation of CAT 3 SINGLE, and full flap is required.

16/10/24

32
Q

How many approach attempts are permitted?

A

2 approach attempts are permitted.
A 3rd attempt is permitted if there has been a significant improvement in the weather, or in an emergency, or one of the go-arounds was for a non weather related reason and a landing is assured.

04/11/24

33
Q

Talk through the events [task sharing] for PF and PM on a Cat IIIB approach and landing.

A

1000ft - fully configured & stable. CM2: “1000” - CM1 “checked”.
800ft - LANDING INHIBIT
700ft - FMGC data lock
500ft - CM2: “[500], stable/not stable, go around” - CM1: “checked/go around, flaps”
400-350ft - CM1 checks LAND FMA & announces, and checks ILS course on PFD
200ft - red autoland light becomes active
100ft - alert height. CM2 “one hundred” - CM1 “continue”
40ft - CM2 checks FLARE FMA & announces
30ft - RETARD auto callout & THR IDLE FMA
10ft - ROLLOUT FMA
Touchdown - CM2 “Rollout, spoilers, rev green, decel, 70kt”

04/11/24

34
Q

What are the centerline colour codings for lights as you approach the end of the runway on a landing rollout, or RTO?

A

900m to 300m: alternating red & white
300m to end: red

04/11/24

35
Q

How far past the threshold are the PAPIs usually located?

A

300m

04/11/24

36
Q

For a manual roll out, when should the autopilot be disconnected?

A

If NWS or anti-skid has failed: on touchdown.

37
Q

What is standard localiser coverage?

A

At 25nm, 10° either side of the localiser.
At 10nm, 35° either side of the localiser.
Outside these ranges, there is little point in identifying the ILS facility as you will be outside the promulgated coverage.

04/11/24

38
Q

If making an approach in heavy rain, what visual illusion should you be aware of?

A
39
Q

What defines mist, haze and fog?

A

Mist: visibility >1000m (and <5000m)
Haze: visibility <5000m and obscuration is due to “lithometeors”
Fog: visibility <1000m and obscuration is due to “hydrometeors”
(ref: ICAO Annex 3)

04/11/24

40
Q

Would the failure of a single engine illuminate the Autoland light?

A

No

04/11/24

41
Q

What is the definition of fail operational and fail passive?

A

Fail Operational: after the failure of any single component the autopilot is capable of completing an approach & landing using the remaining autopilot.
Fail Passive: in the event of a failure, there is no significant deviation of flight path or attitude. The capability to continue the autoland may be lost and an alternate course of action (e.g., a missed approach) may be required.

04/11/24

42
Q

How much runway is left when you see alternating red and white lights?

A

900m

04/11/24

43
Q

How much runway is left when you see all red lights?

A

300m

04/11/24

44
Q

What are the weather limits for an airport to initiate LVPs?

A

550m visibility, 200ft cloud base

04/11/24

45
Q

Take off during LVOs: describe some considerations.

A
46
Q

What is lowest permissable RVR for landing?

A

75m (for CAT IIIB (UK)/ CAT III no DH or DH<50ft (EASA))

04/11/24

47
Q

CAT IIIA (CATIII approach with DH): what are the visual references required?

A

3 consecutive lights

04/11/24

48
Q

Describe actions required if a Master Caution or downgrade occurs when making an approach to autoland.

A
49
Q

Can an autoland be made onto a contaminated runway?

A
50
Q

Your departure airport is below Cat 1 minima, but well within the limits for Cat 2. What are the considerations?

A
  1. If overweight, autoland will not be possible.

04/11/24

51
Q

What external parts of the aircraft should be de-iced by an engineer (rather than a de-icing operator)?

A
  • Engines
  • xxxxx
  • Cannot find references, look this up

A320 EZY command prep (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions