Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

U-World > 8 > Flashcards

8 Flashcards

1
Q

Patients receiving parenteral nutrition through central venous catheter are at a high risk for

A

Candidemia (pseudohyphae with blastoconidia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Low testosterone with decreased FSH and LH

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (Kallman Syndrome) just one example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LOS is like LPS but lacks

A

repeating O antigent (amount of LOS correlates to NM disease severity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LOS of N. meningitidis causes sepsis via what cytokines?

A

TNF-alpha, IL-1b, IL-6, IL-8 due to interaction with toll like receptor 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes of Asherman syndrome

A

Postpartum endometritis and dilation/curettage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MDD: SIG E CAPS (5+ present for longer than 2 weeks)
Dont forget:
Depressed mood

A 
S- Sleep disorder
I-Interest deficit (anhedonia)
G- Guilt (worthlessness, hopelessness, regret)
E- Energy deficit
C-concentration
A- Appetite disorder
P- psychomotor retardation or agitation 
S- Suicidality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adenomyosis is common in what age group

A

middle aged parous females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and on exam a UNIFORMLY enlarged uterus (from hormonal stimulation of endometrial glandular tissue in myometrium)

A

Adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fibroids

A

Leiomyomas caused by proliferation of myometrial smooth muscle cells. IRREGULARLY enlarged uterus and heavy menstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hyperplastic growth of endometrial glands and stroma leading to a benign projections of uterine lining. Do not cause uterine enlargement

A

Endometrial polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

During first few weeks of embryogenesis Hb is synthesized by _______

A

Yolk sac (zeta or epsilon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hb F begins around 8 weeks gestation and replaces embryonic Hb by 14 weeks. Where is it made?

A

Spleen and liver (by 14 weeks erythropoiesis is taking place here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hb H (3 deletions of alpha gene) manifest as

A

chronic hemolytic anemia (note: Hb Barts- gamma4 is not compatible with life- hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sources of ALK phos other that osteoblast

A

Placenta during pregnancy, liver, and intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Difference btw liver and bone alk phos

A

Bone= boil (easily denatured). Electrophoresis can be used and so can monoclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Osteoclast produce: It is tartrate-resistant and is unstable in frozen serum samples

A

Acid phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Measurement of osteoClastic activity?

A

1) Urine deoxypryridinoline (pryridinoline covalently cross links collagen fibers)
2) Tartrate resistance

3) hydroxyproline could be used but can be fasely high in urine due to meat products (shitty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ipratropium

A

Anti-muscarinic (bronchodilation) + blocks the parasympathetic stimulation of tracheobronchial submucosal glands in the lungs (great add benefit for asthma and COPD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inhaled glucocorticoid used for the prophylactic treatment of bronchial asthma

A

Flunisolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does Nifedipine cause bronchodilation

A

By blocking calcium influx into bronchial smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bronchodilation by blocking PDE activity–> increasing intracellular cAMP

A

Methylxanthines (theophylline and aminophylline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase pathway for prophylactic asthma therapy

A

Zileuton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

benign nerve sheath neoplasms predominantly comprised of SCHWANN CELLS (derived from neural crest cells)

A

Cutaneous Neurofibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

spontaneous episodes of rest and nighttime angina with transient ST elevation

A

Vasospastic or variant (prinzmetal) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drug causes of vasospactic angina?

A

Dihydroergotamine, cig smoking, cocaine/amphetamines, triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can be used to treat vasospastic angina?

A

Nitroglycerine to treat acute. Prophylactic Ca++ channel blockers (don’t forget smoking cessation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acts as vasodilator reducing SVR and increases venous capacitance. Also sympatholytic effects on cardiovascular system. Can be used for severe pain in acute MI

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Decrease left ventricular volume and stress via VENO>arterial dilation

A

Nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Vitamin D toxicity

A

Hypercalcemia–> impaired depolarizatins of neuromuscular membranes (muscle weakness, constipation and mental status change) and impaired concentration of urine at distal tubule (polyuria, polydipsia). Dehydration
Note: hypercalciuria also seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PTH-independent conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) by 1-alpha-hydroxylase (expressed in activated macrophages)

A

Seen in granulomatous diseases (sarcoidosis, tuberculosis)
-Increased intestinal absorption of calcium

Can also be seen in Hodgkin Disease and some non-Hodgkin lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Biliary obstruction alters lipid absorption and can lead to

A

FAT soluble vitamin deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome can have pallegra (niacin def.)

A

Tryptophan—> Serotonin (all shunts this way). Niacin hardly produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Impaired incorportation of copper into ceruoplasmin and defective excretion of excess copper into bile (elevated free copper and deposition in the liver and other organs)

A

Wilsons Disease: ATPB7 gene Chromosome 13
Autosomal Recessive

TX: chelation w/ penicillamine or trientine, oral zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mental status changes, muscle weakness, constipation, polyuria/polydipsia, and dehydration

A

Hypercalcemia presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Superficial branching nests of distended capillaries

A

telangiectasias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ataxia-telangiectasia predisposes to…

Note: deficiency in both cell-mediated and humor dysfunction

A

Increased risk of hematologic malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hypersensitivity to X-ray radiation that causes multiple chromosomal breaks. ATM gene mutated responsible for DNA break repair. AR

A

Ataxia- Telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Choreoathetoid movement and spasticity also seen in Lesch-Nyhan. Inheritance?
HGPRT nemonic

A

X-Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Immunodeficiency resulting from a defect in expression of HLA-II antigens on surfaces of APCs. Note: MHC class II present foreign antigen to T cells to elicit a cell mediated AND humoral response (because T cells must first activate B cells to mature and undergo class switching)

A

Bare Lymphocyte syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HSM, anemia, motor neuropathy–>hypotonia and areflexia, and cherry red spot on mucula

A

Niemann-Pick disease (AR)

Defect in sphingomyelinase–> shingomyelin accumulates within monocytic cells (early death in child hood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Wide, fixed splitting of S2 that does not vary with respiration

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ASD–>L-R shunt–>P.HTN via laminated medial hypertrophy–>Pulm vascular resistance > total SVR–> Eisenmenger syndrome ensues (due to pulmonary HTN). What will the pulmonary valve show over time?

A

Closure of ASD may be required to prevent IRREVERSIBLE pulmonary sclerosis and a permanent Eisenmenger syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pulmonary edema due to HTN emergency. Give Nitroglycerine, Nitroprusside. Used to improve acute heart failure by reducing

A

Afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Nitrates (NO) –> activate sGC–> Increased cGMP in endothelium decreases INTRACELLULAR CALCIUM–> decrease myosin light-chain kinase–> leading to myosin light chain dephosphorylation and _______

A

vascular smooth muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Check for association btw 2 CATEGORICAL (%) variables

A

Chi-square
Ex: determine if the distribution of gender and smoking status is random or if there is a difference between the sexes regarding smoking status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Used to compare the difference between the means of 2 groups

A

t-test

47
Q

Compares the difference between the means of 2 or more groups

A

ANOVA

48
Q

Studies assessing the effects of aspirin on certain cardiovascular events may be inconclusive. However, analysis of data compiled from multiple clinical trials may reveal significant benefit.

A

Meta-analysis
“pooling data from several studies to perform an analysis having greater statistical power than individual studies themselves”

49
Q

Model the linear relationship btw dependent variable and 2 or more independent variables.

A

Multiple linear regression
Ex: quantify the effects of alcohol use, tobacco smoking and charred food consumption on the incidence of gastric cancer.

50
Q

measure of the strength and direction of a linear relationship btw 2 variables

A

Pearson correlation coefficient

Ex: Average blood glucose levels and HbA1c

51
Q

Treatment for pufferfish tetrodotoxin (voltage Na sodium block)

A

Gut lavage and charcoal

52
Q

Originate above the dentate line and are covered by columnar epithelium. Autonomic innervation from the inferior hyogastric plexus (sensitive to stretch not pain, temp, or touch)

A

Internal Hemorrhoids

53
Q

External hemorrhoids (painful if thrombose) originate below the dentate line and are covered by _________ epithelium and have cutaneous (somatic) innervation from ________

A

1) modified squamous

2) Inferior rectal nerve (branch of pudendal nerve)

54
Q

Supply the perineum and external genitalia in males and females are very sensitive to touch, temp, and pain

A

Branches of pudendal nerve

55
Q

Derived from L1, carries sensation from:

  • skin of the upper and medial part of the thigh
  • root of the penis and upper part of the scrotum
  • mons pubis and labia majora (females)
A

Ilioinguinal nerve

56
Q

Inferior gluteal nerve? Branches? Innervation?

A

L5,S1-S2

Motor to gluteus maximus

57
Q

sympathetic and parasympathetic components (innervates the internal pelvic viscera but not the external perirectal area

A

inferior hypogastric plexus

58
Q

derived from S2,S3, and S4 and provide parasympathetic innervation to the pelvic and genital organs

A

pelvic splanchnic nerves

59
Q

Continuation of hypogastric nerve with additional input from the pelvic and sacral splanchnic nerves. Gives rise to prostatic plexus (w/in fascia of prostate)

A

Inferior hypogastric plexus

60
Q

________ and _______ ________ _______ arise from the prostatic plexus and pass beneath the pubic arch to innervate the corpa cavernosa of the penis and urethra

A

Greater and lesser cavernous nerves: carry post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers—> facilitate erection

61
Q

Prostatectomy or injury to prostatic plexus can cause

A

ERECTILE dysfunction–> thus surgeons try to preserve integrity of prostatic fascial shell during surgery.

62
Q

Detrusor muscles are controlled by what nerves? Overactivity can lead to what?

A

1) Parasympathetic fibers from pelvic splanchnic nerves and inferior hypogastric plexus.
2) Urge incontinence (women>men)

63
Q

Innervation of external urethral and anal sphincters. Sensory to external genitalia.

A

Branches of pudendal nerve

64
Q

Fecal incontinence, decreased penile sensation, or external urethral sphincter paralysis due to injury to what nerve?

A

Pudendal nerve

65
Q

Cremasteric reflex

A 
Genitofemoral nerve (L1-L2 spinal nerves origin)
Loss of reflex is seen is testicular torsion or L1-L2 spinal injury
66
Q

Tracheobronchitis

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

67
Q

Can lead to complement mediated, intravascular hemolytic anemia due to similarity between antigens in the cell membrane of ________ and the cell membrane of erythrocytes (I-antigen)

A

M. pneumoniae

68
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of M.pneumoniae

A

SJS, joint pains, encephalitis, cardiac rhythm, bullos myringitis

69
Q

Lack of cell wall facilitates resistance (stripped down genome that can not perfom metabolic function (peptidoglycan cell wall and synthesis of purines)

A

M. pneumoniae (no bacterial cell wall antigen; phospholipid bilayer cell membrane only)

70
Q

Enzyme deficiencies that cause anemia

A

G6PD and pyruvate kinase

71
Q
  • AR
  • RBCs most effected (no mito thus anaerobic respiration)
  • Loss of ATP
  • Membrane failure–> phagocytosis in spleen (extravascular hemolysis)
  • New born with anemia and spleenomegaly (severe)
A

Pryuvite Kinase deficiency

72
Q

Increases amino acid transport and ribosomal translation efficiency in muscle, adipose and liver tissue

A

Insulin

73
Q

Lack of insulin induces catabolic state, and patients typically lose weight despite normal or increased appetite

A

New-onset DM1

74
Q

Stimulates glucagon release
Increases release of glucose from the liver
Decreases peripheral uptake of glucose

A

Epinephrine

75
Q

increases renal absorption of sodium, leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure

A

Insulin (glucose reuptake is INDEPENDENT OF INSULIN)

76
Q

Most common congenital breast anomalies in women and men are

A

accessory nipples (polythelia, supernumerary nipple)

77
Q

Cause of polythelia/supernumerary nipple (asymptomatic but may swell or become tender during menses, pregnancy, and lactation)

A

failure of involution of mammary ride

78
Q

Hyperpigmentation, epidermal thickening, pilosebaceous structure of Montgomery areolar tubercles, smooth muscle bundles (areola) and possible mammy glands and multiple ducts

A

Accessory nipple histo (similar to normal nipple)

79
Q

Clonal proliferation of benign melanocytes in utero. Can be raised are hyperpigmented

A

Congenital melanocytic nevi

80
Q

Increased melanin production on sun-exposed areas

A

Ephelides (freckles)

81
Q

Increased proliferation of melanocytes! Larger than freckles also flat) and are seen in adults

A

solar lentigines

82
Q

Skin tags, benign, pedunculated outgrowths of normal skin. In locations of friction (below breast or axillae)

A

Acrochorda

83
Q

Sudden onset of heart failure in 10% of people with severe aortic stenosis

A

Atrial fibrillation

decrease preload to LV (hypotension) and pulmonary edema (increase pulm. venous pressure

84
Q

Scurvy in children is more severe than the normal easy bruising, periodontal disease, poor wound healing, and hyperkeratotic follicles

A

Children= hemorrhages, bony deformities, and subperiosteal and joint hematomas

85
Q

Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine are essential for cross-linking collagen molecules. Failure to hydroxylation is due to

A

prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases not having vitamin C to function as reducing agent. Results in decreased tensile strength of collagen

86
Q

Hesselbach’s triangle (direct hernia goes through). Boarders?

A

Inferior: Inguinal ligament
Lateral: Inferior epigastric
Medial: Rectus abdominus muscle
Floor: Trasnversalis fascia (weakness can lead to protrusion of abdominal contents through triangle into inguinal canal)

87
Q

Direct vs. indirect coverings

A

Indirect (thru deep inguinal ring): all three spermatic fascial layers)
Direct (superficial ring): external spermatic fascia only

88
Q

Due to failure of processus vaginalis to obliterate and the internal inguinal ring to close.

A

Indirect inguinal hernias (most common type of hernia)

Protrude lateral to inferior epigastric artery

89
Q

If pertechnetate or perchlorate are present, uptake of iodine isotypes will decrease due to competitive inhibiton

A

NIS (sodium-iodide symporter) located on basolateral membrane transports perchlorate, pertechnetate, and iodide into thyroid follicular cell

90
Q

______ treatment can cause a transient worsening of hyperthyroidism (elerdly or severe disease) are started initially on anti-thionamides (propylthiouracil, methimazole)

A

Radioiodine

91
Q

Hyperthyroidism–>Increased sympathetic activity

A

Beta-blockers can provide initially sympathetic relief and are often continued during radioactive iodine tx

92
Q

Contains factors VIII, XIII, vWF, and fibrinogen (precipitate obtained from FFP by centrifugation/thawing)

A

Cryoprecipitate

93
Q

Brodifacoum, a long-acting 4-hydroxycoumarin derivative

A

Rodenticides. Tx: FFP in addition to vitamin K (IM)

94
Q

Distal tubule sodium sensor

A

macula densa

95
Q

Beta-adrenergic antagonist inhibit _____ release via B1 receptors on Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Renin

96
Q

Inhibits sacral micturition center

A

Cerebral cortex

97
Q

Located in the pontine reticular formation. Coordinates relaxation of external urethral sphincter with bladder contraction during voiding

A

Pontine micturition center

98
Q

Located at S2-S4 level and responsible for bladder contraction. Parasympathetic fibers travel from S2-S4 ventral white matter within pelvic nerves and stimulate cholinergic receptors in the bladder wall

A

Sacral micturition center

99
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus–>decreased CSF absorption–>ventricular enlargment–> traction on cortical efferent and afferent fibers (corona radiata). Traction disrupts periventricular pathways that transmit impulses from the cortex to the sacral micturition center. Later in disease, lack of cerebral cortex inhibition to sacral micturition center leads to

A 
Urge incontinence (uncontrolled and frequent micturition)
Bladder fills with urine and empties reflexively when full. Patient has no control over bladder function or sensation. Voluntary relaxation of urethral sphincter remains intact
100
Q

APML (M3 variant)

Risk for DIC

A

t(15;17)
PML gene on 15 and RARA on 17
Codes for abnormal retinoic acid receptor, which then inhibits myeloblast differentiation.

101
Q

Smear of APML

A

Abnormal promyelocytes and aeur rodes

102
Q

Anemia (fatigue, pallor), thrombocytopenia (petechiae, hemmorrhages) and neutropenia (fever, opportunistic infections, result from marrow replacement by leukemic cells

A

AML manifestations clincally

103
Q

Defective PDGF receptor plays a role in pathogenesis of several cancers. Name one?

A

Ovarian

104
Q

Two most common causes of SVC syndrome

A

Lung cancer> non-Hodgkin lymphoma

105
Q

Dyspnea, distended neck veins, distal heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus (decrease in systolic pressure >10mmHg during inspiration)

A

Pericardial effusion

106
Q

Arise at lung apex. Shoulder pain (brachial plexus). Horners syndrome (cervical sympathetic plexus).

VERY VERY rarely SVC syndrome

A

Superior sulcus tumors (Pancoast tumors)

107
Q

most selective determinant of particle size penetrance (renal)

A

GBM and slit diaphragms (btw foot processes of epithelial cells)

108
Q

Charge selectivity is provided by (renal)

A

Negatively charged anions (heparan sulfate and other proteoglycans).
Located on endothelial cells in GBM

*Reason for albumin leak in MCD (loss of molecules)

109
Q

Tubular proteinuria: presence of low molecular weight proteins ( such as…..) that are normally filtered and reabsorbed in PCT. Appear in urine with PCT function in disrupted as in tubulointerstitial nephritis (P’s)

A

B2-microglobulin, immunoglobulin light chains (multiple myeloma), AAs, and retinol-binding protein

110
Q

Functional proteinuria

A

Caused by change in blood flow through glomerulus
Excercise, high fever, stress, or cold exposure
Common in young adults with normal renal function. Disappears on repeated testing

111
Q

Orthostatic Proteinuria

A

Older, tall, thin adolescents
increased protein excretion in upright position, but normal when supine/sleeping
Normal renal function (albuminuria less than 1g a day and normal at night )

112
Q

Highly selective proteinuria: mostly low-molecular weight proteins such as albumin and transferrin excreted

A

MCD

113
Q

Bloody diarrhea with or without abdominal pain is the hallmark of

A

Ulcerative colitis (in Crohn’s disease there may also be bloody diarrhea but abdominal pain is virtually always present

114
Q

Complications of UC

A

Toxic megacolon (most dangerous) can lead to perforation. UC increases risk for adenocarcinoma of colon.

U-World (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions