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U-World > 2 > Flashcards

2 Flashcards

1
Q

Absent or abnormal (incus, malleus, stapes) lead to profound conductive hearing loss. Also see craniofacial abnormalities (mandibular, maxillary, zygomatic bone hypoplasia) due to abnormal development of 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches

A

Treacher-Collins syndrome

Learn your arches

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2
Q

Kidney issues:

1) Heroin and pamidronate:
2) Gold therapy

A

1) FSGS

2) Membranous nephropathy

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3
Q

Most common agents for tubular necrosis?

A

Aminoglycosides, radiocontrast media, cisplatin, AmpB, foscarnet

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4
Q

Drug induced tubular obstruction

A

Sulfonamides, MTX (and motabolite), IV acyclovir, triamterene can precipitate in renal tubules and cause failure

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5
Q

Drug induced interstitial nephritis (renal interstitial infiltration)

A

Methicillin (MC), cephalosporins, acetazolamide, allopurinol, sulfonamides, and NSAIDs

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6
Q

a chloride channel that is activated by cAMP-mediated phosphorylation and subsequently gated by ATP

A

CFTR (3 base pair deletion that removes a phenylalanine at position delta-508)–>impaired posttranslational processing

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7
Q

Less common CFTR mutations

A

1) Mutations causing premature termination of the transmembrane protein (nonsense, frameshift)–>complete absence of CFTR (Ashkenazi Jew)
2) Mutation–>defective ATP binding by CFTR–>membrane bound nonfunctional protein
3) Mutation–>impaired chloride conductance through CFTR (milder disease)
4) Mutation–> decreased production of functionally normal CFTR (reduced mRNA or protein stability) also milder

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8
Q

Amlodipine (DHP vasodilator) ADRs

A

HA, dizziness, flushing, peripheral edema

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9
Q

Indapamide

A

thiazide diuretic used for HTN tx

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10
Q

Terazosin (alpha-1 antagonist) used in BPH/HTN ADRs

A

lightheadness, orthostatic hypotension

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11
Q

Prolonged neonatal jaundice beyond 2 weeks due to increased erythrocyte breakdown and immaturity of newborn liver

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

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12
Q

Role of IL-2 and INF-gamma in granuloma formation

A

IL-2 stimulates the autocrine proliferation of Th1 cells and INF activates macrophages–>promoting granulomas

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13
Q

Metabolism of glucose through hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt has two major fucntion (all rxns occur in cytoplasm)

A

1) production of NADPH as a reducing equivalent
2) synthesis of ribose-5 phosphate for nucleotide synthesis (non-oxidative)

Note: in erythrocytes, the HMP shunt is only major pathway that generates NADPH to maintain glutathione in a reduced form via glutathione reductase (protects from free radical damage)

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14
Q

G-6-PD results in denatured hemoglobin (heinz bodies resulting in erythrocyte destruction by spleen. Additionally oxidative stress results in …

A

stiffening of the erythrocyte membrane and hemolysis in the microvasculature due to an inability of the erythrocyte to deform and fit through capillary beds

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15
Q

Cholesterol gallstone are due to ability of bile salts to solubilize cholesterol being overwhelmed by concentration of cholesterol in bile. These stones are yellow and pale gray and hard. Now what about pigment stones?

A

Composed of calcium salts and UNCONJUGATED bilirubin (soft and brown-black)

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16
Q

Arise secondary to bacterial (e.coli) or helminthic (Ascaris lumbricoides, Clonorchis sinensis aka liver fluke) infection of biliary tract resulting in release of beta-glucuronidase (hydrolyize bilirubin glucuronides to increase unconjugated bilirubin) by injured hepatocytes and bacteria

A

Pigment stones (asian populations or hemolytic anemia)

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17
Q

7-alpha-hydroxylase catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to 7-alpha-hydroxycholesterol

A

First step in bile salt synthesis (lowers ratio of cholesterol to bile salt) = protective to cholesterol stones

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18
Q

_____ upregulate HMG Co-A reductase to increase cholesterol synthesis

A

Estrogen

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19
Q

High-oxygen affinity hemoblobin mutations (left shift/lowered P50)

A

Hemoglobins Chesapeake and Kempsey–>Kidney will increase EPO to keep patient mainly asymptomatic

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20
Q

Sickle cell oxygen-Hb curve shift?

A

Right (hypoxia-induced hemolysis)

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21
Q

Fever, uticaria, angioedema, eosinophilia

A

Katayama fever caused by Schistosomia Haematobium

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22
Q

How does Toxic Shock Syndrome present?

A

Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, desquamation and HYPOTENSION

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23
Q

Loners with longings

A

Avoidant personality disorder

vs schizoid or schizotypal = content w/ social isolation

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24
Q

10 years post radical mastectomy in setting of persistent lymphedema (chronic dilation of lymphatic channels)

A

Lymphangiosarcoma- malignant neoplasm of the endothelial lining of lymphatic channels

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25
Q

Cavernous hemangioma

A

Benign neoplasm of small blood vessel endothelial cells (do not confuse w/ carvernous lymphangioma aka cystic hygroma–differ only by lack of luminal blood cells)

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26
Q

Hypertrophic granulation tissue that grows rapidly as exophytic red nodules attached by a stalk to gingival or oral mucosa

A

Pyogenic granuloma (pregnancy or trauma)

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27
Q
  • Birthmark consisting of malformed, dilated blood vessels in superficial dermis
  • Permanent
A

Nevus fammeus (port-wine stain)

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28
Q

Spindle-shaped cells with markers of both smooth muscle and vascular endothelial markers (biopsy w/ lymphocytic infiltration)

A

Kaposi Sarcoma (HHV-8)

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29
Q

Integration of viral DNA into cellular genome of the host is considered a trigger for neoplastic change

A

HPV (cervical cancer) and HBV hepatocellular carcinoma (preceded by HBV induced cirrhosis)

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30
Q

HBx protein activates insulin-like growth factor II and receptors for insulin-like growth factor I thereby stimulating cell proliferation. Name another effect of HBV gene products…

A

Suppression of p53 and chronic inflammation and regeneration by HBV infection –> mutations in hepatocytes

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31
Q

Pathogenosis of HBV:

A

Infected hepatocytes express MHC class I and are destroyed by CD8+ T-cells

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32
Q

Tx for TTP

A

plasma exchange (life saving)

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33
Q

Bicep tendonitis is characterized by tenderness at the bicipital groove. Insertion? Origin? Action?

A

Origin: Supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
Insertion: Radius
Action: Flexes and supinates the forearm (contributes some to shoulder flexion)

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34
Q

Serratus anterior: O, I, A, Injury?

A

Origin: lateral surface of first 8 ribs
Insertion: Scapula
Action: Pulls scapula forward and rotate it to raise the glenoid.
Injury: Long thoracic nerd = winged scapula

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35
Q

Supraspinatus muscle assists in abduction of the arm (first 10-15 degrees) and stabalization of glenohumeral joint. Injury to Tendon?

A

Impingement btw acromion and head of humerus . Most common cause of rotator cuff syndrome

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36
Q

Wheezing and migratory infiltrates in asthma patient. Increased IgE tiders and antibodies to….

A

Aspergillus are diagnostic of ABPA (allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis)

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37
Q

Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis occurs in immunocompromised and neutropenic patients

A

cough, hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain, and fever. Necrotizing pneumonia and granuloma formation also occur. Extrapulmonary involvement is common.

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38
Q

Common peroneal nerve is susceptible to injury at the

A

lateral neck of fibula (caused by compression)–>leads to foot drop due to deep peroneal nerve innervates anterior compartment muscles (tibialis anterior- dorsiflexion) and toe extension (extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus)

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39
Q

Superficial peroneal nerve injury (concmitant from common peroneal injury) causes impaired

A

Foot eversion (peroneus longus and brevis) and sensory loss over lateral leg and dorsolateral foot

40
Q

Femoral nerve injury:

A

weakness on hip flexion (iliopsoas) and knee extension (quadriceps)

41
Q

Sensory innervation to posterolateral leg

A

Lateral sural cutaneous nerve (branch common peroneal nerve)

42
Q

Sensory loss over the peroneal, tibial, and sural nerve distributions with weakness in the majority of the lower leg muscles (include hamstrings)

A

Sciatic nerve

43
Q

Largest terminal branch of sciatic nerve. Damage = difficulty with foot PLANTAR flexion (???muscles???) and decreased sensation over SOLE of foot

A

Tibial Nerve

Gastrocnemius and Soleus

44
Q

Unilateral facial pain that worsens with jaw movement, H/A, ear discomfort. Symptoms can originate from TMJ, pathologic contraction of muscles of mastication, and/or hypersensitivity of the nerves that supple the jaw

A 
Temporalmandibular disorder (TMD)
(Madibular nerve of trigeminal nerve involved)
45
Q

V3 (mandibular nerve) of trigeminal nerve contains both motor and sensory components supplies sensation to? and motor to?

A

Sensation: Floor of the mouth, inside of cheeks, anterior tongue, much of skin of lower face
Motor: Muscles of mastication (medial and lateral pterygoid, masseter, temporalis), muscles of floor of the mouth (mylohyoid), tensor veli palatini and TENSOR TYMPANI in the middle ear.

46
Q

V2 of trigeminal = maxillary division: sensory of

A

Cheeks, nares, upper lip and teeth, the PHARYNGEAL PALATE, and MAXILLARY SINUSES

47
Q

= O2 consumption / Ateriovenous O2 difference

A

CO

48
Q

Respiratory quotient is ratio of CO2 to O2 across alveolar membrane and is used to estimate

A

metabolic rate (normal = 0.8)

49
Q

CO= (135X ____) / [(13XHb) X (SaO2-SvO2)

A

BSA (body surface area)

50
Q

Glenohumeral joint is the most commonly dislocated joint in body. Anterior dislocation (MC) classically follows blow to an externally rotated and abducted arm (throwing a football). What nerve is injured? What do you see?

A

Axillary nerve–> innervates deltoid and teres minor muscles and sensory to skin over lateral shoulder.
Flattening of deltoid and acromial prominence

51
Q

Shotgun shoulder

A

Fracture of coracoid process

52
Q

Acromioclavicular joint subluxation

A

downward blow to tip of the shoulder. Swelling and upward displacement of the clavicle

53
Q

Spiral fracture of midshaft humerus (torsion produced falling on an outstretched hand). Nerve than can be injured?

A
  • Radial

- swelling, bone crepitus, ecchymoses of the arm.

54
Q

Predisposing factors to infective endocarditis in developed nations

A

MVP (MC), valvular sclerosis, and mechanical valves

RHD in developing is frequent cause

55
Q

Sharply demarcated, salmon-colored, rounded plaques covered with a loosely adherent white scale. Erupts MC on elbows, knees, lumbosacral and scalp.

A

Psoriasis

56
Q

Calcipotriene (calcipotriol), calcitriol, tacalcitol

A

Topical Vitamin D analogs for psoriasis bind and activate the Vit. D receptor (a nuclear transcription factor that causes inhibition of keratinocyte proliferation and differentiation (inhibits T-cell proliferation and other inflammatory mediators too)

57
Q

Etanercept MOA in treating moderate to severe plaque-type psoriasis?

A

Recombinant form of TNF receptor that binds TNF-alpha

58
Q

Ustekinumab (Stelara) MOA

A

Monoclonal Ab used in psoriasis that target IL-12 and IL-23. It inhibits differentation and activation of CD4+ TH1 and Th17 cells

59
Q

DM1 patient on insulin with Addison. What do with dose?

A

Descrease! (glucocorticoids increase insulin resistance and this hoe ain’t got any)

60
Q

DM1 patients prone to developing

A

Autoimmune endocrinopathies including Addisons, Hashimoto, Graves

61
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency electrolyte abnormalities

A

Hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia, Hyperchloremia, and NON-anion gap metabolic acidosis

62
Q

Block Na/Cl in distal tubule…more Na+ reach collecting tubule–>increased K+ and H+ excretion. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis

A

Thiazide diuretics

63
Q

Isolated Hyperkalemia causes

A

Excess in diet, cell lysis, B1 antagonist, decreased shift into cells due to insulin deficiency

64
Q

Normal serum sodium in the setting of hypokalemia and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis suggest

A

Distal hypokalemic or proximal RTA

65
Q

Mineralcorticoid (primary hyperaldo) electrolyte imbalance

A

Metabolic alkalsosis (increased HCO3 in serum and loss of H+ in urine), Hypernatremia (mild due to ADH intact), Hypokalemia (loss in urine)

66
Q

Restrictive pericarditis change on juglar venous tracing

A

Rapid Y-descent that becomes deeper and steeper during inspiration

67
Q

Causes of restrictive pericarditis (slow progressive dyspnea, peripheral edema, ascites)

A

Radiation therapy of chest, cardiac surgery, TB

68
Q

Increases risk of preeclampsia, spontaneous abortion, fetal demise, and placental abruption

A

Prenatal coke use

69
Q

Fetal macrosomia, caudal regression syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are associated with…

A

Gestation diabetes

70
Q

Burning on urination and urgency may be seen in hemorrhagic cystitis caused by:

A

Cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide

71
Q

Doxorubicin is an _____ and _____

A

anthracycline antibiotic and chemotherpeutic intercalating agents (ADR= CHF)

72
Q

ADR of bleomycin

A
  • Dry cough and exertional dyspnea= pulmonary toxicity/fibrosis
  • Flagellate skin discoloration
73
Q

Tarry stool (melena) and fatigue can be seen with all chemo drugs affecting rapidly dividing cells but most commonly…

A

alkylating agents

Cell death in cells with high turnover rate: hair, skin, and the mucosa of the GI system

74
Q

Melena is most commonly cause by:

A

Upper GI bleed

75
Q

Mercaptopurine (S-phase) ADR

A

Abdominal pain and jaundice. Cholestasis and hepatitis. Patients using it chronically like RA watch out for liver cirrhosis

76
Q

Forty, fat, female, and fertile

A

Gallbladder disease (usually cholecystitis)

77
Q

CCK is produced by _____

A

Produced by I cells in duodenum and jejunum

78
Q

Promotes bicarb secretion from pancreatic ductal epithelium

A

Secretin

79
Q

Stimulates gastic acid secretion and motility.

A

Gastrin

80
Q

Made in response to low pH. Inhibits release of GH, TSH, Gastrin, CCK, VIP, Secretin, insulin, and glucagon. Inhibited by vagal stimulation.

A

Somatostatin

81
Q

Spore often contaminate animal hides:

A

C.Burnetii

82
Q

MacConkey agar contains what that will inhibit growth of contaminant organisms

A

Bile

83
Q

Inhibits mitochondrial gycerophosphate dehydrogenase and complex I (first electron transport chain enzyme)—>decreased energy stores causes AMPK activation—> decreased hepatic gluconeogenesis

A

Metformin

84
Q

Avoid metformin in what patients

A

CHF or alcoholism due to increased risk for lactic acidosis

85
Q

Diagnosis of gestational diabetes

A

3-hour glucose tolerance test

86
Q

VMA is screening tool for

A

pheochromocytoma

87
Q

Sulfonylureas are associated with

A

blood dyscrasias

88
Q

Thyroid test for what two drugs most commonly

A

lithium and amiodarone

89
Q

calcium dependent (Gardos) potassium channel blockers

A

Prevent intracellular dehydration by reducing K+ and water efflux–>reducing polymerization of Hb S in sickle cell

90
Q

Hydroxyurea increases Hb F synthesis. It is reserved in sickle cell patients with

A

PAIN CRISIS

91
Q

Subtype of social anxiety disorder is given to patients who have symptoms only in performance situations (eg. speaking or performing in public)

A

“performance-only” social anxiety disorder

92
Q

Excessive fears of scrutiny or embarrassment in social or performance situations, resulting in significant distress and functional impairment

A

social anxiety disorder

93
Q

Livedo reticularis (purplish network-patterned discoloration) and palpable purpura (small infarcts sometimes with ulceration) seen in

A

1/3 of PAN patients (segmental, TRANSMURAL, necrotizing inflammation of medium small sized arteries)

94
Q

Heterophile Ab- negative mono-like syndrome (2 negative agglutination tests) include

A

CMV, HHV-6, HIV, and Toxo

95
Q

Aspectic meningitis and herpangina (fever, posterior pharyngeal gray vesicles/ulcers) in children

A

Coxsackie A virus

96
Q

Fanconi Anemia (AR or hypersensitivity to DNA-crosslinking agents)

A

impaired DNA repair

97
Q

Bloom syndrome inheritance

A

AR (impaired DNA)

U-World (16 decks)

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