6 Flashcards

1
Q

Carpal spasm

A

Trousseau sign (hypocalcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Twitching of the nose and lips

A

Chvostek sign (hypocalcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cotruncal abnormalities (interrupted aortic arch, truncus arteriosus)

A

DGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Other DGS if first and second pouches involved

A

hypertelorism, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia, bifid uvula, cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Familial Hyopcalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH) inheritance

A

AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FHH defect

A

CaSR hyposensitivity in parathyroid gland and kidneys. Higher levels of calcium are needed to suppress PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mild asymptomatic hypercalcemia, reduced urinary excretion of calcium and high normal or mildly elevated PTH

A

Familial Hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (AD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GH, prolactin and EPO

A

Transmembrane receptor activation of Janus kinase-STAT pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ach (nicotinic), serotonin, NMDA, GABA

A

transmembrane ligand gated ion channels (ionotropic receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Insulin and insulin-like GF

A

Transmembrane receptors with tyrosine kinase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vitamin D

A

Intracellular receptor (like steroid hormones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Without ApoE3 and E4

A

liver cannot remove chylomicrons and VLDLs leading to increased cholesterol and TGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ApoC2

A

Activates lipoprotein lipase on chylomicrons and VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ApoA1

A

required for esterfication of free cholesterol in HDL particles by lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

LCAT or Apo1 deficiencies

A

low HDL and increased circulating free cholesterol levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inositol monophosphate inhibition is hypothesized to be one of the mechanisms by which ______ exerts its antidepressant and antimanic effects

A

lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FMR1 loss of function mutation

A

Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neurophsychiatric issues, development delay, hyperlaxity of joints in hand, large testes, prominent forehead and chin, long and narrow face

A

Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1) Fibromyalgia cause

2) proven pain reduction method that improves function

A

1) Abnormal central processing of pain

2) Gradual incremental aerobic exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bilateral muscle weakness and associated skin (malar rash, violaceous eruptions on the eyelids, knuckles and elevated Creatine kinase

A

Dermatomysitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inflammatory disorder that affects patients >50 and causes subacute pain and stiffness in the shoulders, hips, weight loss, fever and malaise

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Really bad in morning and gets better during the day

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Federal socialized medical insurance program: Covers 65 and older who have worked and paid taxes. Covers younger individuals with disabilities, ESRD, ALS

A

Medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Covering inpatient hospital visits

A

Medicare Part A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Covering a select number of outpatient services and medical devices
Medicare Part B
26
An optional capitated plan with additional benefits (vision, dental)
Medicare Part C
27
Optional prescription drug plan
Medicare Part D
28
State-run medical insurance program: covers homeless, undocumented immigrants, prego women, and low-income familes
Medicaid
29
Fever, pruritic skin rash, and arthralgias that begin 7-14 days after exposure to an antigen
Serum sickness (Type III) w/ fibrinoid necrosis and intense neutrophil infiltration (labs will show neutropenia, low C3 and C4)
30
TNF-alpha inhibitors ADR
neutropenia
31
Prevention of atelectasis
Breathing exercises
32
Prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy
Adequate hydration
33
physical exam reveals pulsatile mass with a thrill on palpation. Auscultation reveals a constant bruit over the site.
AV fistula
34
Increase preload (End diastolic volume) and decrease after-load
AV shunts
35
Gingivostomatitis (see multinucleated giant cells) = HSV. What is the reason for hospitalization ?
Pain often results in dehydration (this is the reason for hospitalization)
36
Surgical landmark during appendicitis
teniae coli (similar function to outer layer of muscularis externa in GI)
37
Injury to the base of the pons
contralateral weakness and ataxia (corticospinal and corticobulbar) and pontocerebellar fibers
38
Frontal cortex lesions
social disinhibition and deficits in attention and executive functions (planning, organizing, decision making)
39
Anterior 2/3 of the posterior limb of the internal capsule=
mainly motor fibers (corticospinal tract)
40
Posterior 1/3 of posterior limb of internal capsule=
sensory (thalamocortical)
41
occurs secondary to leakage of plasma proteins through damaged vascular wall and is characterized by collagenous sclerosis, and accumulation of mural foamy marcrophages
Lipohyalinosis
42
Microatheromas
atherosclerotic accumulation of lipid-laden macs within intimal layer of penetrating artery near its origin off parent vessel
43
Result of small vessel occlusion (due to lipohyalinosis and microatheroma formation) in penetrating vessels supplying the deep brain structures
Lacunar infarcts (Uncontrolled HTN and diabetes = risk factors
44
Ateriovenous concentration
indirect measurement of the solubility of the anesthetic in the body tissue
45
High AV concentration = ________ time of onset
slow b/c more anesthetic is extracted from the blood by the body tissues, increasing the time it takes for the blood to become saturated and slowing the onset of action
46
High blood/gas partition coefficient (solubility of anesthetic in blood)
slower onset of action (absorbed to a greater extent by the blood)
47
Steeper arterial tension curve
less soluble anesthetic (partial pressure in the blood rises more rapidly with less soluble anesthetics)
48
Lower the MAC
the more potent the anesthetic
49
Prolonged untreated sleep apnea increases risk for
pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure
50
Small VSD produces what kind of murmur and where?
Loud holosystolic best heard over left sternal boarder at 3rd/4th intercostal space
51
Larger (nonrestrictive VSDs) produce what kind of murmur
Maybe absent due to decreased resistance across the VSD and lower transseptal pressure grandient
52
Fixed, wide splitting S2
ASD
53
________ can be caused by severe hypomagnesemia (double decrease), which can be seen in prolonged diarrhea
hypoparathyroidism | Single decrease would increase PTH
54
Aromatase inhibitors that reduce the synthesis of estrogen from androgens, suppressing estrogen levels in post-menopausal women and slowing progression of ER-positive tumors.
Anastrozole, letrozole, exemestane
55
Epidermal growth factor receptor 2
HER2
56
Inhibits MAPK and PI3K/Akt signaling pathways, increased degradation of HER2, and facilitates antibody-mediated destruction of tumor cells
Trastuzumab
57
Dopamine agonist used in growth hormone-secreting pituitary tumors or prolactinoma
Cabergoline
58
Uses of leuprolide?
Management of prostate cancer, precocious puberty and endometriosis
59
located near the 3' end of the mRNA (post-translational modification) = Poly-A-tail. What is its role
to protect mRNA from degradation within the cytoplasm after it exits the nucleus
60
Consensus sequence
AAUAAA
61
Where should thoracentesis be performed in midclavicular line, midaxillary, posterior scapular?
above the 8th above the 10th above the 12th